CV review Flashcards
1
Q
Which IV fluid should be avoided in patients with cerebral edema? and why ?
A
Hypotonic solution, it can reduce serum osmolality and create a fluid shift that increase cerebral edema
2
Q
Proper timing of the IABP requires identification of the _______, correlating with the closure of the ____ ____and the beginning of the ______. In order to visualize the dicrotic notch; the IAP setting my be ____ : ____.
A
Dicrotic notch; aortic valve; diastole; 1;2
3
Q
Proper inflation timing of the IABP is confirmed when the ______augmentation occurs at the _____ ___ or the beginning of the _______ The entire cycle of inflation and deflation occurs during the ________ and _______
A
Diastolic; dicrotic notch; diastole; beginning of diastole; end diastole
4
Q
A serious known complication with the IABP is ____________
A
Limb ischemia.
5
Q
Potential complications associated with removal of Swan-Ganz catheter?
A
Pulmonic valve rupture Air embolism Ventricular arrhythmia
6
Q
The Swan-Ganz catheter is placed in the__________ artery through the ______(left or right) heart
A
pulmonary ; right
7
Q
In order to delay the progression of ______ventricular failure for patients with pulmonary artery hypertension, effective treatments is aimed at reducing the _______ which will (increase/decrease) _____afterload for the right ventricle
A
right; PVR; decrease
8
Q
NYHA Class I
A
No limitation of physical activity
9
Q
NYHA Class 2
A
Slight limitation of physical activity, comfortable at rest. ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea.
10
Q
NYHA Class 3
A
Marked limitation of physical activity less ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea.
11
Q
NYHA Class 4
A
Unable to carry any physical activity without discomfort
12
Q
Inadequate cardiac pumping causes ______ _____ to back up into the _____ and ______ leading to _______ CVP
A
excessive volume; lungs; right ventricle; Elevated
13
Q
Common precipitator of cardiogenic shock is
A
MI
14
Q
Beta blocker (increase/decrease)_____ cardiac contractility therefore (increase/ decrease) cardiac index
A
Decrease
15
Q
Which class of antiarrhythmic medications has been shown to reduce cardiac mortality most significantly in patients with heart failure and reduced EF? _____which are_____
A
Class II; beta blockers
16
Q
Class I of antiarrhythmic medications include:
A
Sodium channel blockers
17
Q
Class II of antiarrhythmic medications include:
A
Beta blockers
18
Q
Class III of antiarrhythmic medications include
A
Potassium channel blockers
19
Q
Class IV of antiarrhythmic medications include
A
Calcium channel blockers
20
Q
__________improve mortality related to Stroke
A
Calcium channel blockers
21
Q
Which of the following malignancies is the most common cause of cardiac tamponade?
A
Lung Carcinoma
22
Q
Unexplained new R-waves and anterior ST depression indicate __________
A
posterior MI
23
Q
Dronedarone is contraindicated in which kind of HF patients NYHA _____(class)
A
NYHA Class III and class IV
24
Q
True or False: beta blockers do not have to be stopped in patients who was taking BBlockers prior to HF diagnosis
A
True. Starting will make worse, continuing existing beta blocker doesn’t affect
25
Cardiogenic shock is associated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cardiac output, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_SVR
Elevated; low; increased
26
Septic shock is associated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cardiac output, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_SVR
low; initial high; low
27
Hypovolemic shock is associated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cardiac output, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_SVR
low; low; high
28
Autoimmune reaction from **sensitization to myocardial cells at time of myocardial infarction** is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_syndrome
Dressler
29
Action of **digoxin i**n heart failure is to the _________ of \_\_\_\_\_\_pump resulting in an increased in _____________ and promoting \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_pump which increases\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
inhibition; Na-K-ATPase ; intracellular sodium; calcium influx; sodium-calcium; contractility
30
**Secondary cause** of sudden hypertension in young adults is ________ and is usually the result of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Pt will have **(hyper or hypokalemia)** and may have ______ on exam
Renal artery stenosis; Fibro muscular dysplasia; hypokalemia; renal bruit
31
Hypocalcemia would show \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_on an EKG tracings; an appro
Prolonged QT;
32
\_\_\_\_\_\_ HF is best characterized y a stiff ventricle which requires an adequate ____ \_\_\_\_ to generate adequate ____ \_\_\_\_
Diastolic; filling pressure; stroke volume
33
Which condition predisposes a patient to have esophageal varices bleeding? why?
End stage liver disease; because ESLD can lead to prolonged PT and aPTT\> that can lead to portal HTN
34
For treatment of DKA, ____ activates ____ \_\_\_\_\_ _____ in many cells, causing _______ to enter cells and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_serum \_\_\_\_\_\_Levels
Insulin; Sodium-Potassium ATPases; potassium decreasing; potassium
35
A pacemaker spike that is not followed by a complex indicates a
FAILURE TO CAPTURE
36
When the pacemaker fails to sense the heart's intrinsic activity it is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; In that case, _______ \_\_\_\_\_ can be indicated
failure to sense; increase sensitivity
37
When the pacemaker is over-sensing, as evidenced by the ______ \_\_\_\_ _______ \_\_\_\_, ______ should be decreased
absence of pacemaker spikes; Sensitivity
38
Optimal CPP is considered to be ___ to ____ mmHg
50-70
39
CPP is
MAP-ICP
40
Recommended ventilator setting include minimizing _____ to maintain a _______ above _____ and decreasing _______ \_\_\_\_ to a ______ \_\_\_\_ goal of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cm H2O
FiO2; PaO2, 55; Tidal volume; Plateau pressure; \<30cmH20
41
Cushing's triad includes: \_\_\_\_\_, ______ and ______ \_\_\_\_ \_and is associated with ________ ICP due to several factors including ____ \_\_\_\_\_, _____ and \_\_\_\_\_
Hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respiration. elevated, cerebral edema, bleeding and tumor
42
Excessive vomiting or gastric suctioning can result in loss of ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ which can lead to which ABG abnormlity?
Hydrochloric acid; metabolic alkalosis.
43
The clinical presentation of hypovolemic shock is related to
the inadequate volume of circulating blood
44
Kussmaul respirations occur in _____ and Is to correct _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_
DKA; Metabolic acidosis .
45
FLuroquinolones Levofloxaxin or ciprofloxacin can lead to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Rupture tendinitis
46
Why are corticosteroids dangerous in patients with post MI pericarditis? It inteferes with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_of MI to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_resulting in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_and increased risk for _______________ wall rupture.
conversion; scar tissue resulting in wall thinning and increased risk of post-MI wall rupture.
47
Short acting ACEI
Captopril , start if unsure of reaction to ACE
48
best point of auscultation for S2
Erb's point
49
The aortic valve area is located under the \_\_\_\_\_\_right \_\_\_\_\_\_space at the \_\_\_\_\_sternal border.
second; intercostal; right
50
The tricuspid valve area is located at the \_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_space at the \_\_\_\_\_sternal border.
fourth, left; intercostal; left
51
The mitral valve area is located at the \_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_space at the\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_.
Left fifth intercostal; mid-clavicular line.
52
The pulmonic valve area is located at the \_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_space at the\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_.
second left intercostal; left sternal border
53
The key to accurate ICP measurement is to use the ______________ which is the _________ or the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The landmark is to approximate the __________ of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
same landmark each time ; tragus of the ear; outer canthus of the eye ; foramen of monro
54
Metabolic acidosis should not be corrected with bicarbonate until pH is _______ and bicarbonate is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
\<7.1 ; 6
55
CVP reading is reassessed by re-performing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, ______ and a ______ \_\_\_\_ ____ test
zeroing, leveling; square wave form
56
Additional oxygen should not be withheld due to fear of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Goal of patient with resp distress is to maintain sufficient oxygen to achieve SaO2 \> ________ and PaO2\_\_\_\_\_\_
losing hypoxic drive; 88%; 55mmhg
57
Rapid Shallow Breathing Index less than _______ breaths/min/L may predict \_\_\_\_\_success. and the formula is \_\_\_\_\_/ (TV/1000)
105; vent weaning; RR
58
Patient with rapid afib lose adequate (atrial or ventricular filling)\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in addition to loss of _______ \_\_\_\_\_. as a result , SV is \_\_\_\_\_\_resulting in (hypo/hypertension) \_\_\_\_\_
ventricular filling; atrial kick; decreased; hypotension
59
Defibrillation may cause _________ \_\_\_\_\_if the electrical current lands on the second half of the ______ , which is the ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. May consider \_\_\_\_\_\_\_for immediate intervention with cardioversion
ventricular defibrillation; T wave, absolute refractory period; Amiodarone
60
The main difference between cardioversion and defibrillation is ___________ based on the
the timing of the shock ; cardiac cycles
61
Synchronized cardioversion senses the _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_and delivers a shock during the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_stage of the cardiac cycle, avoiding delivery of shock on the\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_which may lead to _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
QRS complex; repolarization stage; T wave; ventricular fibrillation
62
ARDS patients have the best outcomes when tidal volumes are \_\_\_\_\_\_. Tidal volume of \_\_\_\_ml/kg
low; 6
63
In patients with cholestasis, the\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is typically elevated to at least four times the upper limit of normal.
alkaline phosphatase
64
Increasing \_\_\_\_\_\_in ARDS may improve \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_and in combination with low \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ventilation, improve \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
PEEP; oxygenation; tidal volume; mortality
65
Status epilepticus is continuous seizure lasting more than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_minutes or \_\_\_\_\_or more seizures without full \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Accumulation of metabolic waste products (lactic acid) and inefficient \_\_\_\_\_\_\_and \_\_\_\_\_exchange. leading to \_\_\_\_\_and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and \_\_\_\_\_\_
30; two; recovery of consciousness; oxygen; CO2; hypercapnia; hypoxia, ACIDOSIS (low pH)
66
According to the ARDS net protocol, VT should be adjusted to maintain Plateau pressure ________ to prevent \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
less than 30mmHg; barotrauma
67
Low tidal volume ventilation begin at \_\_\_\_\_\_and volume can be adjusted downwards to \_\_\_\_\_
8ml/kg to 6ml/kg
68
How often do we check plateau pressure
4 hour after change in PEEP or Vt
69
Central Neurogenic Diabetes insipidus is characterized by (increased/decreased urinary specific gravity\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, increased/or decreased urine osmolality ________ (value ) serum osmolality is (increased or decreased) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_and urine output is (increased or decreased).
decreased; decreased; increased serum; increased urine output
70
SIADH is characterized by (high /low Na+) ; urine output (H/L)\_\_\_\_\_specific gravity (H/L)
low; low; high
71
Goal in CN Diabetes insipidus is to correct the\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_and restore fluid balance by promoting \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_retention
ADH deficiency; sodium; water
72
In the acute phase of CNDI, _________ \_\_\_\_is provided in the form of either \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
desmopressin, vasopressin or lypressin
73
CNDI occurs in 3 phases; First phase consists of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_due to inhibition of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Second phase is ____ t\_\_\_\_\_urine output because the release of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The third phase is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_or \_\_\_\_excessive \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_due to depletion of stored _____ or loss of functioning \_\_\_\_that produce \_\_\_\_\_\_
polyuria; ADH; near-normal; stored ADH. transient or permanent urine output ; ADH; Cells; ADH
74
Cicatracurium infusion is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_and require the use of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_such as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
paralytics; sedation; propofol
75
When caring for an External Ventricular Drain, the ECV can be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_during transport to prevent excessive \_\_\_\_\_\_\_with a change in body position
closed; draining
76
When caring for an External Ventricular Drain, the ECV can be temporary closed for \_\_\_\_\_\_,\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_,\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to prevent excessive draining
crying; sneezing, vomiting; coughing.
77
ARDS is an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_lung condition that leads to \_\_\_\_\_of \_\_\_\_\_\_and \_\_\_\_\_of blood and plasma into air space, resulting in low \_\_\_\_\_\_levels in blood
inflammatory; injury ; lung tissue; leakage; oxygen
78
ST elevation in II, III, aVF is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_occlusion and indicate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_wall MI
Right coronary artery; inferior.
79
ST elevation in I, V5, V6 is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_occlusion and indicate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_wall MI
Circumflex artery; lateral
80
ST elevation in V1-V4 is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_occlusion and indicate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_wall MI
Left anterior descending (LAD) ; anterior (REMEMBER (LAD-ANT)
81
What is the greatest determinant of oxygen delivery?
Cardiac output
82
3 things about Spontaneous Breathing Trial (SBT ) : - should shorten ____________ - Should follow the _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_after\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ - Require active collaboration between _______ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
time to extubation; Awakening trial; sedation; respiratory therapist ; critical care nurse.
83
Central cord syndrome results from trauma and is associated with damage to the __________ \_\_\_\_\_\_ that carry information directly from the _____ \_\_\_\_\_ to the ____ \_\_\_\_\_
large nerve fibers; cerebral cortex; spinal cord.
84
Complications most frequent during acute hospitalization for SCI include \_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_
resp failure, pulmonary edema, PNA, and PE
85
Which medication should the CC nurse anticipate for a patient with suspected malignant hyperthermia?\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
DANDROLENE
86
Dandrolene interferes with __________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_by inhibiting \_\_\_\_\_\_ion release from the _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The initial dose is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_mg/kg , should be repeated every ________ until reversal of the reaction occurs or a total dose of _____ is reached. If there is an insufficient response, another ________ should be considered
muscle contraction; calcium; sarcoplasmic reticulum. 2.5; 5 minutes; 10mg/kg
87
In malignant hyperthermia, there is a massive increase in \_\_\_\_\_\_, one of the early signs is a high \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, despite an increased in minute ventilation setting on the ventilator.
CO2, END tidal CO2
88
A low ScVO2 is a reflection of decreased ________ or increased \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. In malignant hyperthermia, ScVO2 is __________ due to significantly increased ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
oxygen delivery; O2 consumption; decreased; oxygen consumption
89
Hypotonic solutions such as ______ and ______ may worsen intracranial hypertension and are contraindicated
D5W and NS
90
Hypotonic solutions such as ______ and ______ may worsen intracranial hypertension and are contraindicated. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, helps reduce the risk of seizures; \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_osmotic effects can help decrease elevated intracranial pressure. _________ increased metabolic rate and ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, so prompt _______ is indicated for patients with intracranial hypertensive.
D5W and NS; Antiepileptics; Mannitol; Fever; promotes vadodilation. fever treatment.
91
It was initially believed that hyperventilating resultant _________ would decrease the blood flow and thus decrease \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Studies shown that ____________ leads to _____ \_\_\_\_\_and worsened outcomes..
vasoconstriction;' ICP; hyperventilation; cerebral ischemia.
92
\_\_\_\_\_\_and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_Reduce patient ventilator dyssynchrony
Sedation and paralysis
93
ECMO allows external _____ of _______ and addition of _______ to blood , a process inhibited in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
removal ; CO2; O2 ; ARDS
94
the risk of high dose PTU is
Sudden and sever liver failure
95
One of the criteria for diagnosis ARDS is respiratory failure not fully explained by _______ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
cardiac failure or fluid overload
96
ARDS is due to _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_ producing diffuse ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_; lung compliance is __________ and there is impaired ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_ due to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_-\_\_\_\_\_\_mistmatching
Alveolar injury; alveolar damage; gas exchange; ventilation-perfusion
97
Common associated with patients receiving continuous infusion of dexmdetomidine?
hypotension , bradycardia
98
Management of TBI include adequate _____ \_\_\_\_\_ to avoid _____ \_\_\_\_\_. CPP should be maintained at least \_\_\_\_\_\_mmHg, ICP should be \< ___ -\_\_mmHg. If needed, ________ should be given.
Blood pressure; cerebral ischemial 60; 15-20; diuretics
99
In patient that is status epilepticus, the priority is to stop ________ and first line treatment is __________ and one medication is -\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and should be given as soon as possible
seizing; benzodiazepines; lorazepam
100
CPP is an indicator of the pressure driving ________ \_\_\_\_
cerebral blood flow
101
CPP can be increased by raising ________ using _______ or by lowering ________ using \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_,\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Blood pressure; vasopressors; ICP; ventriculostomy drainage; sedation, or mannitol.
102
CPAP and BIPAP machine decreases the _________ and decreases _______ \_\_\_\_, opens ______ \_\_\_\_ and increases the _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of oxygen.
work of breathing, intrapulmonary shunt; collapsed alveoli; driving pressure
103
After a Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, there is an increased risk of insufficient\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ _____ resulting in _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_.
ADH release; Diabetes Insipidus.
104
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_can be used to reduce patient-ventilator dyssynchrony
Neuromuscular blockade
105
It is imperative for sedation to be given with ________ medications
paralytics
106
Synergy Model, clinical inquiry is the ongoing process of ______ and ______ practice and creating -\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ changes through research ________ and ______ learning
questioning; evaluating; practice; utilization; experiential
107
The ability to facilitate learning for patients/families, nursing staff, other members of the healthcare team, and community. Includes both formal and informal facilitation of learning
facilitation of learnig.
108
Abdominal perfusion pressure is ______________ minus \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
MAP- intra-abdominal pressure; normal pressure range from ___ to ____ mmHg
109
Intraabdominal pressure above ______ is intra abdominal \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
12 mmHg: Hypertension
110
In critical care, BS is best maintained below \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
180
111
Mainstay of diagnosis of SAH is ____________ with or without _____ \_\_\_\_\_. if both negative, it effectively __________ the diagnosis of SAH. if still in doubt _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ should be considered
Non-contrast head CT; lumbar puncture; Cerebral angiography
112
Characteristic of SAH initial symptom is _________ described as the ____ \_\_\_\_ ____ . In addition _________ are common. Patient mental status may vary from _____ to _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_
sudden headaches; most painful ever; mental status changes; awake; deeply comatose.
113
Hydrocephalus after SAH is caused by obstruction of _______ flow by blood products , it is considered (acute vs chronic)\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_or adhesions OR by a reduction of _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ at the _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. It occurs after _____ weeks, more likely to be associated with _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_
CSF; acute; CSF Absorption; arachnoid granulations; 2 weeks; shunt dependence
114
Systolic BP is kept between\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ mmHg before aneurysm securement
90-140
115
Best practices management for ARDS include \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_tidal volume and \_\_\_\_\_\_PEEP
low; High
116
It is recommended that ARDS patient maintain a CVP of less than \_\_\_\_\_\_and a PaOP less than \_\_\_\_\_\_in order to ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
4; 8; pulmonary microvascular pressure
117
Low pulmonary microvascular pressure can prevent further ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_and potentially allow reabsorption of existing _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
pulmonary edema; pulmonary edema
118
First line of treatment and the mainstay of seizure management is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
benzodiazepines
119
lorazepam can be given 2mg IV every \_\_\_\_\_minutes x \_\_\_\_\_doses
2; 5
120
The goal of treatment of status epilepticus is to ____________ before \_\_\_\_\_\_\_injury occurs
stop the seizure activity; neuronal
121
The second line of treatment in status epilepticus is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; A bolus of dose of \_\_\_\_\_mg/kg and another ____ mg/kg dose can be considered.
Dilantin; 20; 10
122
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_lobe masses can manifest in sensory deficits, visual neglect, difficulty with right/left discrimination.
Parietal
123
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_lobe masses can include any of the following symptoms: Hemiparesis, visual fields deficits, memory deficits, speech and language deficits.
Temporal
124
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_lobe masses can present with hemiparesis, difficulties with high-level functions, personality changes, behavior and mood changes and fluent speech deficits.
Frontal
125
CPOT are use for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ICU patient
non-communicating
126
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to 30 degree minimizes _____ and optimizes \_\_\_\_\_
HOB elevation ; ICP; CPP
127
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ can be given to a patient who is shivering. but if ineffective, a _______ agent is highly effective agent when another sedative is not able to control the shivering . \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, ______ are all other agents that can be used for shivering
Demerol; Paralytic agent; magnesium sulfate, precede, and propofol
128
Sildenafil is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_found in high consentration in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_prevents the breakdown of ____________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ________ which promotes vascular ____ \_\_\_\_ _____ and decreased ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. For patients with pulmonary HTN, ___________ can improve _______ tolerance, functional class and _____________ hemodynamics.
Phosphodiesterase type 5 ; cyclic guanosine monophosphate. smooth muscle relaxation; pulmonary HTN; sildenafil; exercise; cardiopulmonary.
129
Isolated right ventricular dysfunction will lead to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_congestion not,, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_congestion
Vascular; pulmonary
130
SIADH symptoms are (weight gain/loss)\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (high or low Na+) ______ and high or low urine spec gravity\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Weight gain; low sodium, Anuria, high spec gravity
131
DIC, platelet count is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_because platelets are used up during excessive \_\_\_\_\_\_
low; clotting
132
Bleeding Esophageal varices treatment (VOB)
Vasopression, Octreotide gtt Balloon tamponade.
133
Preferred method of Feeding in ICU, except in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Enteral ; new onset GIB
134
Is organ failure a contraindication for Enteral feeding?
NO
135
Intra-abdominal HTN first step in management
Diuretics
136
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_agents are also use in Intraabdominal HTN
paralytics
137
\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_should be monitored in intraabdominal HTN. Normal is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Bladder pressure, normal is \<12mmHG
138
As far as electrolyte imbalances go, Hypocalcemia and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_commonly occur together
Hypomagnesemia
139
positive \_\_\_\_\_\_\_sign reflects a twitching of the facial nerve, occur in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_(what thyroid condition)
Chovtestk ; parathyroidism
140
About \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_of calcium in plasma that is biologically active is in ionized form
1/2
141
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_of _________ provides 3x more calcium compared to ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_
1 g of calcium chloride; Calcium gluconate
142
Low ionized calcium in renal failure is related to __________ \_\_\_\_\_\_
Phosphate retention
143
Diagnostic criteria for AKI
increase in Cr 1.5X baseline increase in Serum Cr \> or equal 0.3 in 48 h
144
Arrhythmia associated with both low K and low mag
Torsade de pointes
145
2 drugs to watch for prolonged QT
Sotalol and Haloperidol
146
Fluids Contraindicate in SIADH is\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_, it worsens \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
hypotonic solution; hyponatremia
147
Medication that does not decrease K+ __________________ because it is a
spironolactone; potassium-sparing diuretics
148
In a patient with DKA, do not initiate insulin Gtt until serum K is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
at least 3.3
149
ACid base imbalance in DKA is and also is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_respitations
Metabolic acidosis; Kussmal' respirations
150
Spleen's role in lymphocyte production and \_\_\_\_\_\_- ___ stimulation it is intergral part of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_system. Monitor splenectomy patient for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
B cell; immunological . infection
151
In Hyperkalemia, ________ activates ____ \_\_\_\_ in many cells, causing _____ to enter cells and \_\_\_\_\_serum \_\_\_\_\_
Insulin; Na+K+-ATPase , K+; decreasing ; potassium
152
Symptoms of DI are : \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, (H/L) Spec gravity , (H/L) Na+ , and presence of _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_
polyuria, low; high; Pituitary tumor
153
Treatment of SIADH (HDV)
Hypertonic saline Dietary fluid restriction Vasopressin-receptor antagonists (TOLVAPTAN)
154
In DKA, \_\_\_\_\_\_shift from intracellular to extracellular in response to _____ \_\_\_\_\_(acid base imbalance)
K+; metabolic acidosis
155
Which dose is not given to ET tube in case IO access cannot be obtained?
AMIODARONE
156
Calculate MAP formula is
Systolic BP + 2 (DBP) / 3
157
Asian males and from Thailand at risk for
BRUGADA SYNDROME
158
LBBB will show slurring in R wave in which leads
I and V6
159
CO =
HR x SV = Cardiac output in ml then convert to Liters
160
MRSA
gram positive coverage with Vancomycin
161
Anaerobes Cover with
metronidazole
162
Diflucan will be used for
Fungal
163
post op fever differentials: Inflammatory response/ cascade, SIRS
PE (DVT) ; incisional abscess, lines, tubes, NG tube (sinusitis)
164
Normal SVR
800-1200 dynes
165
Normal PVR
\<250 dynes
166
Normal CVP
2-6 mmHg
167
An _______ heart sound is caused by volume overload of the ventricle and is associated with heart failure
S3
168
A pericardial friction rub is heard in what condition\_\_\_\_\_\_usually as a results of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Pericarditis; MI
169
An _________ heart is heard when ventricle is stiff, such is found in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
S4; hypertension
170
A systolic ejection fraction is caused by ________ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_of a valve
Stenosis, regurgitation
171
What is the major side effect of Nesiritide? If it occurs the nurse should \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_or\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. She should ________ her patient to encourage improvement in BP . When BP is adequate, restart infusion at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_than the original infusion
Hypotension; decrease infusion by 30%; shut it off; reposition; 30% less
172
Because all four chambers of the heart are enlarged, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cardiomyopathy patients are at risk for _________ they should be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_With \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Dilated; MI, PE, DVT; anticoagulated with Warfarin.
173
As a compensatory mechanism in cardiogenic shock the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_nervous system and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_system will be initiated, there will vasoconstriction and retention of sodium and water. Preload is _______ in cardiogenic shock
Decreased
174
In chest tube, the water seal chamber as as a _________ between the patient's _______ and the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_,thereby preventing the \_\_\_\_\_\_and fluid to re-enter the ______ cavity.
barrier; lungs; environment; air ;pleural
175
Temporal Lobe is known as the _________ area which affects \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Damage of Wenicke's area leads to the inability to _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_and ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. This is identify as __________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Wenicke's , verbal reception; interpret speech; comprehension of words; Wecnike's aphasia.
176
Damage to left frontal lobe or right frontal lobe can cause
Expressive aphasia
177
Patient with bleeding esophageal varices, should protect \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_and vasoconstrictors such as _________ -and high dose of _________ would be first to stop bleeding and increase BP
Airway; octreotide, Vasopression
178
Chronic __________ result in the release of digestive enzymes in the body including \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_A2. It breaks down the cellular structure of the __________ beds and endothelium and leading to tissue damage throughout the body \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Pancreatitis: Phospholipase A2; capillary; MODS
179
CO
4-8
180
Dizziness and palpitations during drain phase in peritoneal exchange is because
too-rapid fluid shift leading to a vagal response.
181
What is the best method of monitoring dialysis effectiveness during dialysis?
Rate of urea clearance.
182
In treating DKA, once the glucose level is less than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, Fluid \_\_\_\_\_\_should be started to slow the drop in glucose and slowly correct the ________ to less than ____ .
300; D5NS; Anion Gap; 20.
183
The patient failed to respond to the initial insulin infusion dose, because it should drop serum glucose by ________ if not -\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_the infusion rate
50mg/Dl; double
184
Definite treatment of DIC
Treatment of underlying or potential causes
185
Complication of blood transfusion is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. When the cell lysis, _________ is released. Monitor electrolytes after _______ PRBCS
Cell lysis; intracelluar potassium; 2 units
186
When after liver involvment, be careful when starting
Statins
187
Normal Urine output
0.5ml/kg/hr
188
What is normal SVO2
60-80%
189
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_phase is the phase in which urine output is the lowest . Administering fluids at this time will not result in increased _______ but in a greater ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
OLIGURIC ; Urine output; fluid retention
190
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_the kidney are putting out large amounts of fluid; but not filtering;Fluid intake is required to preven t\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
non-oliguric phase; hypovolemia
191
The tidal volume settings for a patient with ARDS
5-8ml/kg
192
The tidal volume settings for a patient with ARDS\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
5-8ml/kg
193
Excessive tidal volume and high PEEP increase the risk for _________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Volutrauma and bauratrauma
194
What is the preferred vent mode for a patient receiving neuromuscular blockade?
Assist control
195
ITP (idiopathic thrombycytopenia purpura) is a result of
Low platelet count; autoimmune
196
Severe complication when an ileostomy is placed
DEHYDRATION
197
Normal Doll's eyes\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ reflex; the eyes appear to move to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_direction of head turn. it represents \_\_\_\_\_\_\_and \_\_\_\_\_\_damage and may be part of the clinical exam to help determine _____ \_\_\_\_\_
oculocephalic ; opposite; pontine; midbrain; brain death.
198
Requires the patient to be hemodynamically stable \_\_\_\_\_\_
hemodialysis
199
ASH
Syncome, heart failure, Angina (Significant mortality fro it )
200
GB is a ________ weakness; impaired \_\_\_\_\_\_\_function; ______ pain. Death is usually from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_if the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_muscles leading to _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_
Motor; respiratory ; acute; weakening; respiratory; acute respiratory distress.
201
DI usually present with H/L BP with H/L HR and Hypovolemia due to
Low; High ; increased urinary output
202
Low \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_will result in numbness and tingling to extremities
Magnesium
203
Elevated ICP would result in
Widened pulse pressure, pupillary changes and posturing
204
Aggressive correction of hyponatremia result in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_which results in \_\_\_\_\_\_and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_of brain cells. If not corrected lead to _____ \_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_
Osmotic demyelinization; shrinking; lysing ; quadriparesis; flaccidity and neurological deficits.
205
Blunt/penetrating trauma to the right rib 7-9th ribs and complaining of RUQ tenderness, monitor for signs of
LIVER LACERATION
206
wait for cocaine to be removed from system before beta blocker is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_Coronary artery spasms.
constriction occurs with both ; Beta blockers will constrict, cocaine
207
Cocaine is a sympatomimetic ; ALPHA STIMULANT;
Jittery, high BP,
208
Blunt/penetrating trauma to the left rib 9-10th ribs and complaining of LUQ tenderness, SHOULDER PAIN monitor for signs
SPLEEN INJURY
209
Blunt/penetrating trauma to the left rib 9-10th ribs and complaining of LUQ tenderness, SHOULDER PAIN monitor for signs . Peritoneal signs are delayed until
SPLEEN INJURY : adequate blood accumulates to peritoneum
210
List the 3 major components of tissue perfusion or oxygen delivery:
Cardiac output, PaO2 and Hemoglobin
211
Cardiogenic shock is associated with HR that is \_\_\_\_\_\_BP that is \_\_\_\_\_\_Cardiac output that is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, PaOP that is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_and SVR that is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Same hemodynamics value in hypovolemic shock except that PaOP is \_\_\_\_\_
HIGH; LOW; LOW; HIGH;HIGH
212
In cases with suspected hypovolemic shock, watch for \_\_\_\_\_
Vomiting, diarrhea, poor po intake
213
Benzodiazepines overdose is usually link with which acid base imbalance and why ?
RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS; because benzo overdose lead s to increase serum carbonic acid
214
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_can treat sepsis with persistent hemodynamic instability
Steroids (hydrocortisone)
215
List SIRS criteria and parameters to measure:
1. RR \> 20 breaths/min 2. HR \> 90bpm 3. Hypothermia \<36C (96.8) or hyperthermia \>38 , 100.4 F 4. WBC \>12000 or less than 4000, \>10% immature bands. 5. PaCO2 \<32 mmHg
216
Pulmonary artery pressure measures (R or L)
Left pressure
217
Normal wedge pressure
\< 15 mmHg
218
In cardiac tamponade
Normalized high PA, wedge pressure and eventually equalized.
219
SVR calculating formula
MAP-CVP/ CO x80
220
Dobutamine + Dry patient
Arrhythmias
221
Only give Bicarb when pH is less than \_\_\_\_and bicarb less than \_\_\_\_\_
7.2; 12
222
Elevated liver functions
FFPs indicated unless contraindicated.
223
Platelets non functionants
ESRD Leukemia
224
Octreotide is given because
Reduce splanchnic blood flow, inhibit gastric acid secretion, and may have gastric cytoprotective effect
225
GIB interentions: Patient must be \_\_\_\_\_\_for blakemore tube,
Octreotide, Blakemore tube ,
226
HGB increase\_\_\_ after 1 unit; HCT \_\_\_\_
1-2 per unit for Hgb 2-3 per unit for hct
227
pre-albumin
not affected by volume status or calcium
228
pre-albumin Why more accurate ?
not affected by volume status or calcium
229
Chronic liver patients with low sodium because
Liver disease patient because of third spacing
230
CaO2 is _________ oxygen content, calculated with formula
arterial ; CaO2 = 1.34 x hemoglobin concentration xbSaO2 + (0.0031 x PaO2)
231
Causes of pericardial effusion
1. uremia 2. cytology/malignancy 3. Anticoagulation 4. Trauma
232
To decrease VAP
Oral care with chlorhexidine and moisturizer lip balm Daily wean trials Cuff pressure 20-25 cmH20 Changing ventilator circuits only when soiled HOB 35-45
233
Sensory and motor impairment occurs in injury below nipple like
T3 and T4
234
Decreased FEV1/FVC ratio in obstructive lung disease such as\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_reduced vital capacity seen in
Asthma and chronic bronchitis restrictive lung disease
235
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_followed by loss of consciousness followed by period of brief lucidity followed by decompensation . and most common involved artery is the
epidural hematoma; Middle meningeal artery.
236
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_have gradually worsening confusion and pain; source of bleeding is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_veins
Subdural hematoma; bridging
237
hypoventilation and hypercapnia can \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_(Increase or decrease)
ICP
238
Explain Cheyne Stoke respirations. Causes are
progressively increase rate and depth of respirations f/b gradually decreasing rate and depth of ventilation and apnea ; Increased ICP, hepatic and HF, meningitis and drug overdose.
239
Peripheral nerve stimulator also known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_is administered to assess\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_when \_\_\_\_\_\_\_blocking agents are given to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Train of four monitor ; neuromuscular transmission when neuromuscular blocking agents ; block musculoskeletal activity.
240
Describe train of four
When 4 twitches are seen, 0-75% of the receptors are blocked. • When 3 twitches are seen, at least 75% of the receptors are blocked. • When 2 twitches are seen, 80% of the receptors are blocked. • When 1 twitch is seen, 90% of the receptors are blocked. • When no twitches are seen, 100% of receptors are blocked.
241
\_\_\_\_\_\_allows for removal of CO2 and allow O2 entrance
ECMO
242
Inhaled , not IV nitric oxide serve as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_vasodilator, and use to decrease shunting and promote oxygenation
pulmonary
243
hARD ASS MRS MSD Heart murmur
Aortic Regurg =Diastolic Aortic Stenosis: Systolic Mitral regurgitation: Systolic Mitral Stenosis: Diastolic
244
Aortic stenosis characteristics is SAD
Syncope Angina Dyspnea
245
In Pulmonary embolism, when the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_vasculature is occluded, Pulmonary artery pressure is elevated, as a result \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_is elevated in \_\_\_\_\_\_ventricle
Pulmonary; afterload; right ventricle
246
Potent vasodilators should be avoided in _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_because their vasodilatory effects will cause increased in \_\_\_\_\_\_
cerebral edema; ICP
247
Reduced FEV1/FVC is seen in
COPD
248
Which medication is prescribed after a myocardial infraction to aid in prevention of remodeling\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_and its action is to block RAAS stimulated by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
ACEI; renal hypoperfusion
249
The normal diastolic pressure in the pulmonary artery is approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_mmHg
10
250
The diastolic pressure in the right ventricle is close to \_\_\_\_\_\_
0
251
Findings that suggest proximal migration of the catheter tip back into the right ventricle
sudden decrease in the PA diastolic pressure loss of dicrotic notch Ventricular ectopy
252
True or false: Patient with cardiomyopathy have frequent ventricular dysrhythmias.
True
253
Useful in systolic dysfunction but detrimental in diastolic dysfunction\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Vasodilators.
254
Acceleration - deceleration injury will most likely cause
Shearing of aorta
255
Which lead is the most specific for the patient with occlusion of the RCA, for ST segment monitoring
III
256
Classic signs of Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: syncope, chest pain, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_and _________ like murmur that \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_with squatting
- sudden cardiac death, and AORTIC stenosis like murmur that DECREASES with squatting.
257
A serious complication of anteroseptal MI, seen in lead _____ to _____ is
V1-V4 ; Ventricular septal rupture
258
A serious complication of Inferior wall MI seen in lead ____ \_\_\_\_ ____ is \_\_\_\_\_\_--and the murmur is loudest at the _____ and the clinical presentation resembles\_\_\_\_\_
`II, III, avF ; Papillary muscle rupture; apex; Acute pulmonary edema
259
Describe the voltage criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy?
Depth of S wave in V1 or V2 + Height of R wave V5 and V6 is 35mm or greater
260
Nestiride is contraindicated in \_\_\_\_\_\_shock because of its \_\_\_\_\_\_\_and that shock is associated with low
cardiogenic; vasodilatory; heart rate.
261
The first stage of compensation in HF is stimulation of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_nervous system which causes _______ and ______ These effects increase myocardial \_\_\_\_\_\_\_consumption and diminish time for \_\_\_\_\_\_filling.
sympathetic; vasoconstriction ; tachycardia; oxygen, diastolic.
262
The 2:1 block can be type I or type II because with 2;1 block there is not \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
progressive lengthening of the PR interval.;
263
Type I block is a block at the \_\_\_\_\_node
AV
264
Type I block is a block at the \_\_\_\_\_node; And because the \_\_\_usually is supplied by the ______ \_\_\_\_-artery Type I is seen is \_\_\_\_MI
AV; AV node; Right coronary; inferior
265
Type II block is a block at the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_And because the \_\_\_usually is supplied by the ______ \_\_\_\_-artery Type II is seen is \_\_\_\_MI
Bundle of His; bundle of His; Left anterior descending ; anterior
266
2:1 AV block is more likely to be type ____ if the \_\_\_\_\_is wider than \_\_\_\_\_\_
II; 0.11 seconds
267
The SA noted is supplied by _____ or ______ \_\_\_\_\_ _______ artery
right or left.
268
Type I block is also called
Wenckebach
269
Fever and new murmur indicates\_\_\_\_\_\_
Bacterial Pericarditis
270
Chest pain and pericardial friction rub are seen in \_\_\_\_\_\_
Pericarditis
271
Chest pain and syncope seen in ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_and\_\_\_\_\_ ____ \_\_\_\_\_
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ; severe aortic stenosis
272
Sotalol (beta pace ) has both Class _____ and class \_\_\_properties
II (beta blockers) III (potassium blockade)
273
The difference between the PAd (Pulmonary artery diameter) and the Pulmonary Artery Occlusive Pressure (PAOP) also called\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ should be _______ or \_\_\_\_\_if more than \_\_\_\_\_\_mmHg, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_is present
right to left gradient ; 5mmHg or less; 5, pulmonary HTN
274
IABP is used to ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_and increase _______________ \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_, when discontinued, watch for signs of
decrease afterload; myocardial oxygen supply ; increase afterload; and decrease myocardial oxygen supply
275
Deflation of the IABP should occur at what point in the cardiac cycle _______ because to have the balloon inflated at all during _______ would cause an increase in \_\_\_\_\_\_
Immediately before SYSTOLE ; systole; AFTERLOAD
276
Drugs contraindicated in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are ____ \_\_\_\_ and ______ \_\_\_\_
Nitrates; Diuretics; positive inotropes, they decrease venous return needed for adequate cardiac filling.
277
The most likely cause of cardiac arrest is ___________ so \_\_\_\_\_\_is the top priority
Vfib; defibrillation
278
Which muscle maintain normal ______ \_\_\_\_\_ function therefore ______ valve function? if damaged, what happens? ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_ regurgitation
left ventricle; mitral ; Papillary muscles. Acute mitral
279
Wolff Parkinson-White syndrome patients should not have which class of medications?
Verapamil.
280
Drugs not indicated for severe diastolic dysfunction are\_\_\_\_\_\_
INOTROPES.
281
Wellen's syndrome is characterized by ____ \_\_ ___ \_\_\_\_\_\_in lead ___ and ___ and it is associated with proximal ____ \_\_\_\_ _____ artery disease and a high risk of _____ \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_
deep T wave inversion ; V2; V3;left anterior descending; sudden cardiac death.
282
Contraindicated in dissecting thoracic Aortic dissection
Fibrinolytics
283
Ventricular noncompliance is associated with S---
4
284
What is the most common cause of Atrial tachycardias?\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_
re-entry and accessory pathways
285
What is the most common cause of ectopic beats? \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_usually seen with use of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
ENHANCED AUTOMATICITY ; catecholamines
286
most common cause of torsade de pointes
Triggered activity related to repolarization problems.
287
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_toxicity in patients receiving nitroprusside longer than _____ hours. That medication may also cause ________ by causing _______ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_shunt
Thiocyanate; 72; methemoglobinemia ; intrapulmonary
288
Nitric oxide, nitroprusside, nitroglycerin, local anesthetics; and hurricane spray and sulfa drugs can all lead to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Methemoglobinemia
289
In Methemoglobinemia, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_is converted to methemoglobin, a non-oxygen carrying form of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_resulting in decrease _______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Hemoglobin; hemoglobin; oxygen saturation
290
Treatment of Methemoglobinemia is to first _______ the medication and administer \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_the antidote
stop; methylene blue
291
The nitroprusside-induced intrapulmonary shunt results in _______ and ________ related to ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ mismatch and admixture of ______________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
hypoxia; hypoxemia; ventilation-perfusion; nonoxygenated blood to oxygenated blood.
292
If the ventricles are depolarized before the atria in a junctional rhythm, the p- wave will be __________ the QRS complex
after
293
The most common cause of death after vascular surgery
MI
294
Mnemonic for location of infarcts
LII-LI- ASS (backwards) ALL
295
Mnemonic for location of stenosis
(h) ARD- ASS- MRS- MSD
296
Mnemonic for sensory, motor or both CN
Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Bad Business Marry Money
297
Mnemonic for location for listening to heart sounds
All People Enjoy Time Magazine.
298
**ABI** is to measure
Peripheral artery occlusive disease
299
Any **ABI** less than **0.9** is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD)
300
Causes of pericardial effusion
1. uremia 2. cytology/malignancy 3. Anticoagulation
301
Causes of high AG Metabolic Acidosis CAT MUDPILES
**C**ongenital heart disease/ Carbon monoxide **A**minoglycosides
**T**heophylline
**M**ethanol
**U**remia
**D**KA,
**P**araldehyde Ion, isoniazid,
**I**nborn errors of metabolism
**L**actic acidosis
**E**thanol ( due to lactic acidosis)
**S**alicyclates/ASA
302
The most common conditions that results in effusion are:
Cardiac Failure Pneumonia Malignant Neoplasms
303
Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, and occasionally sharp, nonradiating, pleuritic chest pain.
Pleural effusions.
304
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_capnia, (acidosis/alkalosi)\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, (increased or decreased) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_blood levels of 2, 3-BPG, and (increased or decreased) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_body temperature all shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right and should therefore increase the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Hypercapnia; acidosis; increased; increased; P50
