Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CCRN > Cardio CCRN > Flashcards

Cardio CCRN Flashcards

1
Q

Morphine reduces _______and ________

A

LV preload and LV afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

For a right sided EKG, precordial leads are placed to mirror _____And

A

left side; V7, V8, and V9 can be placed for a posterior view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A systolic murmur is auscultated when regurgitant blood flows accross the _______and ________heart valves; It occurs when the ______and _________are closed and the _____ and ______valves are open

A

Mitral and tricuspid; Mitral and tricuspid; aortic; pulmonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In _______shock, the heart is unable pump enough blood to meet the oxygen and metabolic needs of the body

A

Cardiogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common cause of Cardiogenic shock

A

CAD (MI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In cardiogenic shock, stroke volume is _______and cardiac output is _________

A

decreased; Decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In cardiogenic Shock, the inadequate emptying of the ventricle leads to _______(inc/dec) left atrial pressure which inc/dec ________pulmonary venous pressure and this inc/dec pulmonary capillary pressure and ______edema

A

increase; increase; increase; pulmonary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In _________shock, there is inadequate volume in the _______space

A

hypovolemic; vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In -_____________shock there is abnormal placement of distribution of vascular volume

A

Distributive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Auscultation heart sounds sequence: All physicians Take money

A

Aortic –> pulmonic –Tricuspid–>Mitral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where are murmurs of the mitral valve are loudest heard at the

A

Apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mitral valve murmurs heard throughout systole is a______and indicates

A

Pansystolic murmur; Mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diastolic murmur of the mitral valve is because of

A

Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The sound produced by murmur can be caused by turbulence of_______ _____within the heart. The sound of turbulence are termed ________ when they travel from passage of blood flow across _________heart valves

A

blood flow; murmurs; diseased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

12 lead EKG changes strongly suggestive of high-risk unstable angina_______

A

ST segment depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

These 2 EKG changes are strongly suspicious for MI and suggestive of ST elevation MI : ______ and _______

A

New Left BBB; ST segment elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When auscultating a heart murmur, the nurse should auscultate by listening in the __________ of the blood flow through the _______

A

direction of blood flow through the valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Auscultate the Mitral valve at the ______ICS and R/L ______midclavicular line

A

5th; left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Auscultate the tricuspid valve at the ______ICS and R/L ______upper /lower________sternal borders

A

5th; left lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Auscultate the pulmonic valve at the ______ICS and R/L ______ sternal border

A

2nd; left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Auscultate the aortic valve at the ______ICS and R/L ______ sternal border

A

2nd; right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mitral Regurgitation can be a complication of

A

Myocardial ischemia ; inferior wall MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True of false : A rupture of an unstable plaque causes ACS

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False: Platelet adhesion leads to platelet aggregation and activation in a ruptured plaque

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

True of False: Inflammation in the sub endothelial layer of the coronary vessel predisposes an unstable plaque to rupture

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most important determinant of coronary artery blood flow to the myocardial Tissue?

A

Heart Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The amount of time in diastole affects coronary

A

perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Afterload is the initial ________that the ______have to overcome to push _______out to the ________ and _______circulatory system

A

resistance; ventricles; pulmonary and systemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Preload is the degree to which _________ or ______ are stretched by volume before _________

A

muscle fibers; myocytes; contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Both preload and after load affect the ______function and _________

A

LV; Cardiac output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Both ________and ______are cardiac markers found in cardiac muscles and are used to diagnosed MI

A

Trop I and Trop T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the degree to which Trop I is considered elevated

A

> 0.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When does Troponin I peaks? When does it begin to increase?

A

14-18 hours; 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long does Troponin I stays elevated for

A

5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When does troponin T begins to increase? how long does it stay elevated for?

A

3-5 hours: 14-21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When a segment of the chest wall is not connected to the thoracic cage?

A

Flail chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Flail chest is fixed to synchronize ________ movement and promote ____exchange

A

chest wall; air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What mode of ventilation is used for flail chest?

A

Positive pressure ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Fluid volume must be carefully controlled to prevent overhydration_______

A

For flail chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

EKG electrodes should be placed directly over

A

Soft tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The Intersociety Commission of Heart Disease (ICHD) for pacemaker: Letter I is ________, Letter II ________ and Letter III is ________ The response can be BOVA _____ _____ ____ ___

A

Chamber paced; Chamber sensed; Mode of response. Both–>None–> Ventricles –> Atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Sotalol, haloperidol, TCA, erythromycin, procainamide and quinidine, what ECG parameter should be monitored:

A

QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

____________decreases the immediate risk of death, MI, and stroke in patients with unstable angina

A

Low dose ASA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why should CCB avoided in CHF ?

A

because of their action of reduced cardiac o contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

First line drugs in the treatment of acute HF? NAB

And mechanism of action.

A

NAB
Nitrates: Reduces afterload and improve coronary artery blood flow
ACEI: anagonize the renin angiotensin-aldosterone system which reduces fluid volume overload and afterload.
Betablockers: Decreases myocardial O2 demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

5 Ps peripheral thromboembolism

A 
Pallor
Pain
Paralysis
Paresthesia
Pulselessness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A major complication associated with PEEP is terms of Cardiac output is that ____________

A

reduces CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When should fibrinolytics initiated for STEMI?

A

within 30 mns of arrival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

For STEMI, PCI should be done within _____minutes

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

2nd degree and 3rd degree AV Block are dysfunctions of the ______. the ______node fails to carry electrical impulses to the ________

A

AV node; AV noted; ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Early ______Shock associated with _____CO and low ______

A

Septic; High CO; low SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Low CO and High SVR seen in _______shock

A

Cardiogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In hypovolemic states, _________volumes is depleted. Therefore ______and contractility are reduced causes a drop in _____ and _______; Heart rate and _____increase in a compensatory measure to maintain CO, _____- and perfusion

A

circulating; preload; SV; CO; SVR; MAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Radiologic findings in acute left-sided SYSTOLIC HF includes

A 
Enlarged cardiac silhouette
Pleural effusion (bilateral)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

In acute HF, BNP is > ______pg/ml

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Below normal EF in systolic HF is because of impaired _____ ____ caused by loss of (right/left) ______ventricular contractility

A

forward output; left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pericardial Friction rub is seen in ______

A

Pericarditis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

3 Classic signs of cardiac tamponade is called ______triad and consist of :______, _____ and ______

A

BECK’s ; hypotension, muffled heart sounds; JVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Hypotension in Beck’s triad is due to ________ SV

A

Decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

JVD in Beck’s triad is due to impaired ____ _____ to the right heart

A

Venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Muffled Heart sounds in Beck’s triad is due to _______effusion

A

pericardial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cushing’s Triad is associated with which condition______

A

Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

3 Classic signs of Cushing’s Triad are

A

Elevated SBP, Bradycardia and a widened pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Signs associated with meningeal irritation are:

A

Kernig and Brudzinski’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which 2 IV fluids leave the most fluids in the intravascular space:

A

NS and LR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Since body cells have ______pump to keep salt out, LR and NS which has same concentration of ______ as human body, fluid distribute between the vascular space ______% and the interstitial space ______%

A

Sodium; sodium; 25% and 75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

D51/2NS; D5 1/4NS, D5W, D10W and D5 LR are mostly _____ and would distribute to the ______, ______ and _______spaces with most of the fluids going ________

A

Water; intracellular, intravascular, and interstitial. Intracellularly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Absolute contraindication for THROMBOLYTIC therapy includes

A

Head injury within 6 MONTHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Relative contraindication for thrombolytic therapy

A

GI bleed within 2 MONTHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Vasopressin given in the setting of cardiac arrest as an ______ to _____in the treatment of _____ ______

A

alternative; epinephrine; ventricular fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following THROMBOLYTIC agent can be given as a SINGLE BOLUS?________and half life is ____mns. Max dose is

A

Tenecteplase; 20-24; 50mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Alteplase (tpa) requires how many IV boluses? how many minutes apart

A

2; 30 minutes apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The sound produced by a heart murmur can be caused by

A

Turbulence of abnormal blood flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Abnormal p wave amplitude, or duration may indicated

A

Atrial hypertrophy or Enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

SVT is characterized by HR from ______ to ______, Regular rhythm, ______p waves and _______QRS complexes

A

140-250; hidden; normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Afib is characterized by HR from ____ to ____- with _____rhythm with _____p-waves

A

160-200; irregular; no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the goal management of acute pulmonary edema ?

A

Reduce preload and afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Morphine causes arterial ______ and veno______ which ______volume of blood returning to the _______ while reducing _______ ventricular resistance.

A

Vasodilation; venodilation; reduces; heart; left

79
Q

What medicaiton would a STABLE WIDE complex arrhythmias typically respond to: ___________dose is

A

Lidocaine; 0.5mg/kg; max dose 3mg /kg

80
Q

For patient with a pulse, amiodarone is initially pushed at _______mg over ___minutes followed by IV infusion of ____mg/min for _____hours then ____mg/min for ____hours

A

150; 10 minutes
1mg/min; 6 hours
0.5mg/min; 18 hours

81
Q

Closure of the AV valves (mitral is _____) (tricuspid is _____) produces which heart sound?

A

left; right; S1

82
Q

Closure of the ______ and _______valve produced the ______heart sound

A

pulmonic; aortic; S2

83
Q

When does the S3 sound occurs: __________aka________

A

during the EARLY ventricular filling phase ; ventricular gallop

84
Q

The S3 is often the first clinical sign of ________

A

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

85
Q

When dose the S4 sound occurs ______________during _________ also known as

A

During the LATE ventricular filling phase; atrial contraction; atrial gallop

86
Q

Three conditions with S4 heart sounds are

A

Heart failure, HTN, hyperthyroidism

87
Q

AEDs are designed to identify what 2 rhythms

A

Ventricular fibrillation

Pulseless Vtach

88
Q

Three things that SV depends on

A

preload, afterload, and contractility

89
Q

For hypertensive crisis, _______ infusion is the first drug of choice

A

Nitroprusside

90
Q

Nitroprusside metabolize to ____________which can lead to change in _______, ______ or death. Monitor______levels.

A

cyanide: mental status; lactic acidosis ; thiocyanate levels

91
Q

Cyanide toxicity is treated with

A

Hydroxocobalamin; sodium thiosulfate

92
Q

Half life of Amiodarone is ______and because of that, put patient at risk for _________ and

A

59 days; hepatotoxicity; pulmonary fibrosis

93
Q

What does the PCWP reflects________and used in the assessment of _____ valve disease

A

Left atrial pressure; mitral

94
Q

The atria are responsible for about _____% of cardiac output and the ventricles for about _______% of cardiac output

A

30; 70

95
Q

In which area of the heart would the pulmonary artery catheter most likely cause dysrhythmias?

A

Right ventricle;

96
Q

When right ventricular waveform is identified, the catheter must be promptly______

A

repositioned

97
Q

POOR indicators of adequate fluid volume resuscitation

A

BP and MAP

98
Q

Which class of medications is shown to reduce MORTALITY in patients following an MI:

A

Beta Blockers

99
Q

Which class of medications is shown to reduce SYMPTOMS in patients following an MI:

A

loop diuretics; nitrates; digoxin (cardiac glycosides)

100
Q

When is hyperlipidemia a concern? Triglycerides > _______and LDL > ______ HDL < _____

A

200; 130; 40

101
Q

In cardiac tamponate, other than JVD, hypotension and muffled heart sounds, you should know that there is _______CVP, _______PCWP pressures and _________

A

elevated CVP; elevated PCWP and Pulsus paradoxus.

102
Q

Aortic dissection is MOST COMMONLY associated with which valvular dysfunction?

A

Aortic Regurgitation

103
Q

Aortic regurgitation is associated with which other condition:

A

Chronic HTN, LUPUS, APPETITE SUPPRESSANTS

104
Q

AS a result of aortic regurgitation , the _____ ventricle would _____

A

left; dilate

105
Q

The MOST COMMON complication with FIBRINOLYTIC therapy is _______and the MOST DANGEROUS complication is _______

A

Bleeding; cerebral bleeding

106
Q

______are Indicators that reperfusion is occurring

A

CARDIAC DYSRHYTHMIAS

107
Q

The RCA supplies the _____node in ______percent of all hearts

A

SA node ; 55%

108
Q

What are the 3 physiological effects of cardiopulmonary bypass:

A
  • Hemodilution
  • clotting abnormalities
  • third-space fluid shifts
109
Q

What may occur as a side effect of Cardiopulmonary bypass?

A

Proteinuria

110
Q

What foster third-space fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces?

A

Decreased level of proteins

111
Q

Why does clotting abnormalities occur in cardiopulmonary bypass machine use? especially_____

A

Because machine is traumatic to the blood cells; platelets

112
Q

During cardiopulmonary bypass, platelets drop _______ to ____ of the perioperative level

A

40-50%

113
Q

DVI pacemakers are used to treat clinically significant AV block such as

A

Second degree AV Block type I

114
Q

EKG changes strongly suggestive of high-risk unstable angina?

A

ST-segment depression

115
Q

Systolic HF is caused by _______ _____and diastolic HF caused by _____ ______of _____ventricle to ____

A

impaired contractility; decreased compliance; left; relax

116
Q

BEST medication for a symptomatic bradycardia in a patient with HEART TRANSPLANT ? _______ because they have a ______ _____

A

ISOPROTERNOL; de-nerved vagus.

117
Q

Indicate of MI: list 4 labs and normal parameters:

A
  • Myoglobin > 225ng
  • Troponin I that increased to 0.9 – 4 hours after symptoms occur
  • Troponin T 0.5
  • CK >150
118
Q

A patient with accelerated idioventricular rhythm with HR in 70bpm needs immediate _________To allow for _____ ____

A

Immediate transcutaneous pacing. organ perfusion

119
Q

Drugs that can lead to idioventricular rhtym includes

A

CCB, Bblockers, TCA, electrolyte imbalances.

120
Q

Characteristic of plaque that is at risk for rupture

A

location, size of the lipid pool; infiltration of plaque with macrophages.

121
Q

What help differentiate MI from an acute MI

A

Absence of Q waves; presence of R waves in V leads and general distribution of ST -segment changes.

122
Q

MOST definitive test for dissecting aortic aneurysm____sensitivity and specificity of ____%

A

MRI; 98

123
Q

Most common finding in a dissecting aortic aneurysm

A

Leukocytosis and elevated LDH

124
Q

EKG findings in dissecting aortic aneurysm may show

A

LV enlargement

125
Q

New onset ________ would identify a patient as high risk for having had an ______

A

MI

126
Q

New onset of LBBB whether Left or right should be assumed to be from an _____until proven otherwise

A

AMI

127
Q

How do we recognized LBBB

A

Wide QS complex in V1
Wide R waves
No Q waves in V6, I, aVL

128
Q

ASA prevents _____ ______and inhibit the production of __________ ____ a substance that stimulates _____ ______

A

platelet aggregation; Thromboxane A2; Platelet aggregation

129
Q

Define pulxus pardoxus and when is it seen?

A

Drop in systolic BP of at least 10 mmHg with inspiration

130
Q

What are 2 things that causes cardiogenic pulmonary edema?__________ __________ which increases _______ ______pressure

A

Increased left atrial and left ventricular pressures

131
Q

The MOST common cause of cardiogenic pulmonary edema is

A

Left Ventricular Failure

132
Q

TOP 3 Major risk factors for NSTEMI

A
  1. High serum cholesterol level
  2. HTN
  3. DM
  4. Cigarette smoking
133
Q

First degree AV block is characterized by

A

prolonged PR interval

134
Q

Aortic dissection is associated with

A

HTN

135
Q

The highest incidence of Aortic dissection is seen in ______ ages — to – years

A

men; 50-70

136
Q

Connective tissue disorders associated with Aortic dissection:

A

Marfan’s syndrome
Turner syndrome
Vasculitis
Congenital Aortic valve disease

137
Q

What is the purpose of the IABP counter-pulsation?

A

Provide mechanical assistance to Left ventricle

138
Q

The IABP work on the principles of

A

Counter-pulsation

139
Q

In IABP, gas (______or _____) moves back and forth from the IABP console to the IABP ______ causing the balloon to _______and _______

A

helium; CO2; Catheter; inflate; deflate

140
Q

When does the IABP balloon inflates?__________-increasing ________ _____pressure and ______to the coronary arteries

A

Ventricular diastole; intra-aortic; blood flow

141
Q

When does the IABP balloon deflates?__________-decreasing ________ _____pressure . This pressure decrease help how?

A

just prior to ventricular systole; intra-aortic; it decreases the resistance to left ventricular ejection , or afterload.

142
Q

Where does the RCA supply blood to?

A

RA, RV, AV node in 90% of hearts, inferior and posterior wall of Left ventricle.

143
Q

The anterior wall of the left ventricle is supplied by the _________

A

LAD

144
Q

Which HF shows signs of hepatic congestion?

A

Right

145
Q

Signs of Right HF (JEDLA)

A

JVD: Edema Dependent , liver enlargement; Ascites (JEDLA)

146
Q

Signs of Left HF (REP-DC)

A

Rales; Edema Pulmonary; Dyspnea; Cough

147
Q

Intracellular leakage of potassium is due to

A

Hyperkalemia

148
Q

First degree HB caused by: RheuBetCalCAD

A

Rheumatic heart disease
BetaBlockers
Calcium Channel Blockers
Coronary Artery Disease

149
Q

In initial stage of shock; there are no visible____________; progressive stage of shock, patient is ______ and has inadequate ____ and _____ and ______. Refractory state is ______ _____due to _______damage

A

signs; patient is unconscious ; BP; pulse; Shallow respirations; imminent death; irreversible

150
Q

Name the 4 stages of shock

A

initial, progressive, refractory and compensatory

151
Q

Name all the indications for CABG:

A
  • 90% Left main occlusion
  • Significant LAD and Left circumflex blockage
  • Proximal LAD w/ >75% occlusion, plus another vessel
  • Survivors of sudden death with LAD and multi-vessel disease in DIABETICS
152
Q

All postoperative cardiac surgical patients are expected to develop_________because of the _____________- which causes inflammation

A

PERICARDITIS; pericardiotomy;

153
Q

Digitalis toxicity associated with

A

sinus arrhythmia

154
Q

Post immediate complications after CABG

A

Hypertension, dysrhythmias, and bleeding.

155
Q

In the postoperative patient, as hormone kicks in and diuresis occur, what happens to Na+, Mag and Ca2+

A

They all decrease.

156
Q

Why is BP tend to be elevated in post op CABG patient?

A

There is elevated SVR, which increases afterload.

157
Q

IABP counterpulsation alters what?

A

Systemic arterial BP

158
Q

What is the goal of treatment for IABP?

A

REDUCE assisted systolic pressure

AUGMENT diastolic pressure.

159
Q

Diastolic augmentation should be ___________because it

A

maximized; increases coronary artery perfusion

160
Q

Atrial hypertrophy is most commonly associated with which arrhythmia?

A

Atrial Fibrillation.

161
Q

List the 3 categories of Afib

A

Paroxysmal
Persistent
Permanent

162
Q

Paroxysmal afib last less than ______Days and often less than ______hours

A

7; 24

163
Q

Persistent afib last more than ______Days and often require what?

A

7 ; electrical or pharmacological cardioversion

164
Q

Permanent Afib is ________ AF and is usually present for more than ____year where_____ has failred

A

Longstanding; 1 year; cardioversion

165
Q

Post heart cath, patient hemorrhaging, name 3 top actions

A

Keep HOB <30 deg
Compression of artery above incision
Monitor for HYPOTENSION, TACHYCARDIA or arrhythmia
DC heparin.

166
Q

NOT indicated for primary management of acute heart failure is

A

Calcium Channel Blockers.

167
Q

__________not a symptom of hypovolemic shock

A

Neurological damage

168
Q

In cardiogenic Shock ( COMD) some causes

A

Cardiomyopathy
Other cardiac diseases
Myocardial Infaction
Decreased LV function

169
Q

In hypovolemic shock, some causes are

A

Decreased Intravascular volume
Bleeding
Fluid shifts
Dehydration

170
Q

In Distributive shock, some causes are (VANS)

A

Vadilation
Sepsis
Neurological damage
Anaphylaxis

171
Q

Set of labs indicative of HF

Cr is ________, RBC_______ , Albumin ______ , Sodium ________, Potassium ________

A

elevated, low, decrease, decrease, decrease.

172
Q

Ausculating a murmur at the apex might indicate

A

Mitral valve defect

173
Q

Murmurs of the Mitral valve are loudest at where? ______

A

Apex

174
Q

IABP should _______systolic BP and decrease _____ _______

A

decrease; End diastolic BP

175
Q

A goal of IABP counter pulsation is to maximize ______ ________ _______ pressure

A

Aortic diastolic augmentation

176
Q

In Neurological control of the heart, Norepinephrine has 2 effects: _____ and _______

A

Alpha and Beta adrenergic

177
Q

Beta adrenergic would ____________ _____ node discharge.

A

Increase

178
Q

Alpha adrenergic stimulation causes peripheral arteriol _______

A

vasoconstriction.

179
Q

A positive chronotropic effect would

A

increase cardiac myocardial contraction
Increase heart
Accelerate AV conduction time.

180
Q

Bipap delivers continuous ______ airway pressure with different levels for _____ and _______

A

positive; inspiration; expiration.

181
Q

Pansystolic murmur heard loudest at the apex

A

Mitral insufficiency or regurgitation

182
Q

When the tricuspid and mitral valves open, there is a rapid filling of blood from the atria into the ventrices. What percentage of blood flills the ventricles during this phase of diastole? __________

A

80%

183
Q

In fluids given, isotonic NS or LR, which percentage goes to the vascular? what percentage goes into the interstitium?

A

25% ; 75%

184
Q

What cardiac enzymes stay elevated for 14-21 DAYS?

A

Troponin T

185
Q

Nitroglycerin should not be used within 24 hours after having used which medication ? Because it is _________

A

VIAGRA; potent vasodilator.

186
Q

So lactic acidosis is present at the cellular level when the SVO2 drop below how much?

A

60%

187
Q

normal SVO2 is

A

60-80%

188
Q

The drop is SVO2 below 60% with a normal arterial saturation indicate

A

increased tissue extraction

189
Q

The increase in oxygen extraction causes the SVO2 to fall below _______ and then what happens?

A

60% ; lactic acidosis become present at the cellular level.

190
Q

3 immediate treatment for Ventricular asystole:

A

CPR
IV epi
Vasopressin

191
Q

Seven days after infarction, acute onset of MR is most likely due to _________ _____ ______, as ventricular dysfunction due to myocardial stunning should be improving rather than becoming acutely worse.

A

Papillary muscle rupture

192
Q

__________ most commonly occurs in the early post-MI period within 24 to 48 h.

A

VSR

193
Q

____________ is the recommended treatment for three-vessel coronary disease and cardiogenic shock in the setting of acute myocardial infarction

A

CABG

CCRN (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions