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CTB SBA Flashcards

1
Q

Which genetic factor is associated with tooth type?

A

Msx1 - associated with incisors
Barx1/Dlx1and 2 - associated with molars
Odontogenic potential

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2
Q

What feature in enamel is part of the tooth self repair mechanism?

A

Its ability to undergo remineralisation e.g. white spot lesions. Unfortunately it cannot repair itself through cellular processes as all ameloblasts have died

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3
Q

What layer has a role in cementogenesis:

A

HERS disintegration allows for newly formed dentine to come into contact with the dental follicle cells which then differentiate into cementoblasts

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4
Q

Which fibres resist tooth extraction?

A

Alveolar crest
Apical
Interradicular

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5
Q

What components of the mandible are derived from sensory capsule and pharyngeal arch?

A

Mandible - pharyngeal arch I (intramembranous)

Lingula, mental ossicles, sphenomandibular ligament - meckel’s cartilage

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6
Q

Which cell from the list attaches by tight junctions distally

A

Ruffle-ended: (80%)

-tight junctions at distal (enamel) end

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7
Q

What is embryological origin of interparietal occipital bone

A

intramembranous; the other parts are all endochondral

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8
Q

Long period lines in enamel and dentine -

Daily period lines in enamel and dentine -

A

Long period lines in enamel and dentine - striae of Retzius/Andreson lines

Daily period lines in enamel and dentine - cross striations/von ebner

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9
Q

How does the maxilla grow in height:

A

Bone deposition at the zygomatic and frontal sutures

Bone remodelling at alveolar processes

Bone remodelling of the hard palate - deposition on the inferior palatal surface and resorption a the superior surface (floor of the nose and maxillary sinus)

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10
Q

How does the maxilla grow in width:

A

Growth at the mid palatal suture

Some external bone remodelling

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11
Q

How does the maxilla grow in length

A

Growth at the posterior surface of maxillary tuberosities (backward growth resulting in forward displacement of the maxilla)

Bone remodelling in area above the maxillary incisors

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12
Q

When does the hard palate fuse

A

the palatal shelves fuse around 9 months; they do not fully ossify until 12 weeks when they fuse with the primary palate/maxilla

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13
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle fuse

A

18 months. Metopic suture is 7 months and posterior fontanelle is 2 months

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14
Q

Periodontal cysts

A

formed as dental lamina does not break down

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15
Q

Deep bite correction (posterior open bite):

A

Mandibular compensation - development of a wider ramus

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16
Q

open bite correction (backward rotation of the mandible) - anterior open bite:

A

Caused by excess growth in the anterior face height

Mandibular incisors drift upwards and maxillary incisors downwards to compensate for malocclusion

i.e. dentoalveolar compensation

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17
Q

What produces chelating agents -

A

osteoclasts

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18
Q

phasic activity

A

osteoblasts

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19
Q

What determines shape of cusps?

A

Enamel knots

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20
Q

Which structure is derived from both nasal capsules and pharyngeal arches?

A

Temporal

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21
Q

Where does the occipital bone come from?

A

endochondral ossification

also Tongue muscles are derived from occipital somites

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22
Q

What closes both an anterior and posterior open bite?

A

Dentoalveolar compensation

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23
Q

What are tufts?

A

Hypomineralised voids which follow the direction of decussation, located in inner third of enamel

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24
Q

When do bones start growing into palatal shelves?

A

10-15 weeks

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25
A deficiency in what causes enamel hypoplasia?
Protein – protein energy malnutrition (PEM) Calcium - hypocalcaemia Vitamin D – deficiency Vitamin A – deficiency calcium Is the one on the cheat sheet for hypo mineralisation vitD and floruride are the ones in the notes
26
A deficiency in what increases risk of caries?
Vitamin D potentially
27
Which fibres resists extraction?
Alveolar crest group
28
What is the most common collagen in PDL?
Type 1
29
Which type of nerve ending is found at the apex and senses pressure?
Ruffini’s corpuscles
30
Why are blood vessels near the PDL fenestrated?
Generated increased diffusion capacity consistent with the high metabolic rate in PDL
31
What bone is made in response to a fracture in alveolar bone?
Wove bone maybe
32
What stage of bone is shown by osteoclast disappearance?
Bone remodelling – reversal
33
Which movement is low orthodontic force needed?
Intrusion
34
What would you expect to see minutes after a 25-50g force?
Blood flow altered, this allows release of cytokine
35
Given an example of a masticatory mucosa?
Gingiva – attached gingiva
36
What is the function of OEE in bell stage?
Contact with the dental follicle and maintains tooth shape
37
What area is cellular cementum found in?
Apical and interradicular
38
What cells form Raschkow?
Myelinated afferent nerve fibres 25% unmyelinated C nerve fibres 75%
39
What is the function of HERS during root development?
• HERS extends around (and encloses) the pulp and defines the shape of the future root
40
What type of cell is not wanted in periodontal wound during tissue regeneration?
inflammatory cells? no idea tbh
41
What type of tongue is red and shows signs of filiform atrophy?
Geographical tongue
42
What happens when the lowest amount of force is applied on a tooth?
<1 second PDL incompressible alveolar bone bends- piezolelectric signal or heavy forces 3-5s PDL is compressed on the pressure side
43
What part of sphenoid bone is intermembranous?
Medial pterygoid
44
Which pharyngeal arch is the mandible formed from?
1
45
What causes backward rotation of the mandible?
A pronounced open angle of the cranial base Excessive growth in anterior face height
46
Person with carious lesions – suffers from poorly localised pain that persists after a few hours?
Irreversible pulpitis
47
Dark zone of white spot lesion is
Remineralisation
48
1)Which feature in enamel is part of the tooth repair mechanism?
Tufts and its ability to remineralise = WSL
49
1)What layer has a role in cementogenesis?
HERS
50
What role does the epithelial layer play in tooth determination?
Determines tooth type, ectodermal/epithelial layer dictates tooth
51
what components of the mandible are derived from sensory capsule and pharyngeal arch?
Mandibular process and trigeminal nerve from PA1. Meckel’s cartilage for malleus and incus
52
1)Which cell from list is long period phasic?
Striae of ritzeus
53
1)Which cell from list attaches by tight junctions distally?
rough ended id say or Odontoblasts
54
Which cell from list secrete chelating agents?
Osteoclasts
55
What is embryological orign of interparital?
Intermembranous
56
What mechanism closes a posterior open bite?
Backward mandibular rotation results in anterior open bite. (cant bite sandwich) not sure about posterior- cs says Dentoalveolar drift or ventricle drift
57
Which genetic factor is associated with tooth type?
``` Msx1 = associated with incisors Barc1/Dlc1-2 = associated with molars ```
58
Long period lines in enamel and dentine?
Striae of ritzius/Anderson lines
59
How does maxilla grow in height?
Bone deposition at the zygomatic and frontal sutures, bone remodelling at alveolar process
60
How does maxilla grow in width?
Growth at the mid palatal suture
61
How does maxilla grow in length?
Growth at the posterior surface of maxillary tuberosities
62
When does the hard palate fuse?
The palatal shelves fuse around 9 month; they do not fully ossify until 12 weeks until they fuse with the primary palate
63
When does the primary fontanelle fuse?
Cranial vault:6 fontanelles closed by 18 months
64
2019 cs starts here What is the name for teeth which have enamel ridges going side to side?
Enamel hypoplasia
65
37. What process/processes form the medial upper lip?
· Medial nasal processes
66
38. What type of bone do the fibres of PDL attach to?
Bundle Bone
67
39. What gene mutation is responsible for hypodontia?
Msx1 gene mutations
68
40. What type of dentine is formed due to the natural ageing process?
Secondary dentine
69
41. What type of dentine forms first beneath the crown?
Mantle dentine
70
42. What are the daily incremental growth lines found in dentine called?
Von Ebner
71
43. What swelling derived from the 4th pharyngeal arch is most responsible for the development of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Cant find the answer, most similar stuff: Posterior tongue (34% of tongue mass) forms from hypobranchial eminence (PA3, PA4) two lateral lingual swellings (LLS) quickly enlarge and merge with each other and the TI to form the anterior tongue Epiglottis is formed from posterior part of PA4.
72
44. What stage process of dentine is characterised by the differentiation and migration of odontoblasts?
Cant find answer, relavent stuff: Dentine formation begins at the late bell stage at the cusp tip Formed by odontoblasts: -Mesenchymal cells derived from dental papilla (form dental pulp) - Differentiate when receiving molecular signals from pre-ameloblasts (derived from inner enamel epithelium)
73
45. What type of collagen fibres make up the majority of PDL?
Type I (80%)
74
46. What is the function of the stellate reticulum?
intercellular spaces are filled with hydrophilic glycosaminoglycans and collagens I, II, III (extracellular matrix). These proteins support tooth development Protects and maintains tooth shape.
75
47. What is the function of HERS?
extends around (and encloses) the pulp and defines the shape of the future root.
76
48. What is the most common type of cell found in the pulp?
Fibroblasts
77
49. Question relating to bell stage, I think?
Early bell stage: (14 weeks in utero)- The following is formed Outer enamel epithelium (cuboidal), stellate reticulum, IEE (columnar) Late bell stage: (18 weeks in utero)- - The following occurs- Odontoblasts secrete dentine matrix and Ameloblasts secrete enamel matrix (preenamel). The Stellate reticulum moves downwards The cervical loop is the growing end of the enamel organ. Breakdown of dental lamina
78
50. What is the cause of Eagle syndrome?
· Elongated Stylohyoid process (>3 cm) or calcified stylohyoid ligament

Extra Stage 2 (14 decks)

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