Crossover Flashcards

1
Q

Risk is a product of the following except:

A. Safety
B. Toxicity
C. Exposure

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Important potential stages in the development of toxicity include the following except:

A. Delivery
B. Interaction with the target molecule
C. Cellular dysfunction and injury
D. Dysrepair

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The destruction of cell maintenances involves:

A. Destruction of ATP synthesis
B. Dysregulation of gene expression
C. Direct Injury
D. Dysregulation of ongoing cellular activity

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Oxidative stress is an example of which mechanism of toxic action:

A. Impairment of internal maintenance
B. Impairment of external maintenance
C. Toxication
D. Alteration of regulatory or maintenance function of the cell

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Actions of endocrine-disrupting substances are classified as:

A. Impaired internal maintenance
B. Impaired external maintenance
C. Dysregulation of gene expression
D. Dysregulation of ongoing cellular activity

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The stage of disrepair includes the following except:

A. Apoptosis
B. Necrosis
C. Fibrosis
D. Cancer

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The kind of exposure that is the most effective for the toxicant to enter the body is:

A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Inhalational
D. Ingestional

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The most common form of dermatological manifestation of allergic drug reactions:

A. Melasma
B. Angioedema
C. Morbiliform rash
D. Papular rash

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A delayed adverse drug reaction to fertility drugs.

A. Ovarian cancer
B. Uterine benign tumor
C. Both

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gives rise to drug fever

A. Rifampicin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Cefaclor
D. Allopurinol
E. A and B. 
F. A and D
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Serum sickness is more likely to occur in:

A. Rifampicin and Carbamazepine
B. Rabies vaccine and IV Immunoglobin
C. Allopurinol and Cefaclor
D. None of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pharmacogenetic variations that may appear as unusual response to a drug:

A. Warfarin resistance
B. Hemolytic anemia after taking acetanilide
C. Malignant hyperthermia following use of halothane
D. All of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The prodrug used in pharmacogenetic study of CYP 2D6:

A. Deprisoprine
B. Parathion
C. Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase
D. Nortiptyline

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A fatal result of drug-drug interaction of imidazoles and antihistamines causes:

A

Torsades de pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Genetic abnormality noted with Fish odor syndrome.

A

N-oxidation trimethylamine is genetically controlled. A problem in this mechanism leads to the accumulation of TMA. This leads to the fish odor syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Important levels in the development of toxicity EXCEPT

A. Delivery
B. Interaction with the target molecule
C. Cellular dysfunction/injury
D. Dysrepair

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which is part of cell dysregulation?

A. Oxidative stress
B. Disruption of gene expression
C. Disruption of ATP synthesis
C. All of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Enzyme that inhibits/stimulates is an example of this mechanism of action:

A. Impairment of intracellular maintenance
B. Impairment of extracellular maintenance
C. Dysregulation of gene expression
D. Dysregulation of ongoing cellular management

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Spectrum of toxic effects include:

A. Delayed reaction after initial exposure
B. Idiosyncratic reactions, immunologically modulated
C. Allergies, genetically-determined
D. AOTA

A

D

20
Q

True of pharmacokinetic drug interactions:

A. Affect the site of action
B. Affect the activity of metabolic enzyme systems
C. IV incompatibility
D. AOTA

A

D

21
Q

The following statements are true of the concept of toxicology, except

A. It is the study that involves adverse effects of drugs in their therapeutic dose
B. The toxicity of chemicals are inherent in nature
C. The risk to development of poisoning varies with the degree of exposure
D. Safety is the probability that harm will not occur under specified conditions

A

A

22
Q

Example(s) of toxic actions affecting cellular dysregulation include(s) the ff:

a. Inhibit ATP synthesis
b. Inhibit gene expression
c. Inhibit membrane function
d. A and B only
e. AOTA

A

B

23
Q

The following are important potential stages in development of toxicity except:

a. Delivery
b. Cell dysfunction/injury
c. Interaction with target molecule
d. A and B only
e. AOTA

A

C

24
Q

The factors that affects response to toxic agents

a. Duration of exposure
b. Chemical properties of substance
c. Health status of individuals
d. A and B only
e. AOTA

A

E

25
Q

On the last stage of potential toxicity the ff. processes are involved:

a. Fibrosis
b. Necrosis
c. Apoptosis
d. A and B only
e. AOTA

A

D

26
Q

True about the nature of toxic action

a. The toxic action of a drug is not necessarily an exaggeration of its therapeutic effect
b. The intensity of a toxic effect depends on its concentration at the target organ
c. The toxic action of a drug may be brought about by its metabolites
d. A and B only
e. AOTA

A

E

27
Q

True regarding toxic effects produced by chemicals:

a. Chemical allergy is a genetically induced adverse reaction
b. Delayed reaction is an extension of the immediate effects
c. Substances can have both local and systemic effects
d. A and B only
e. AOTA

A

D

28
Q

Mechanisms involving distribution that the body uses to protect itself from toxic effects of chemicals include:

a. First pass effect
b. Presence of specialized barriers
c. Detoxification
d. A and B only
e. AOTA

A

E

29
Q

Risk is a product of the ff:

a. Toxicity
b. Exposure
c. Safety
d. A and B only
e. AOTA

A

D

30
Q

Which of the following is/are true of drug interactions.

a. These are interactions between a drug and another substance.
b. These interactions usually occur in vivo.
c. These are not beneficial.
d. A & B are true.
e. All of the above.

A

D

31
Q

True of adverse drug reactions:

a. It can be assumed that interactions observed in some patients will occur in all patients; interactions observed in vitro in animals will also occur in man.
b. Most important interactions involve drugs of low therapeutic margin
c. Interactions demonstrated with certain drugs can be extrapolated to closely related drugs.
d. All of the above
e. A and B only

A

B

32
Q

Slow acetylators of isoniazid are predisposed to:

A. cardiopathy
B. peripheral neuropathy
C. renal failure
D. liver failure

A

B

33
Q

Beta lactam such as amoxicillin causes this kind of immunologic drug reaction:

A. drug-IgE complex binding to mast cells
B. specific IgG and IgG antibodies directed at drug hapten cells
C. MHC presentation of drug molecules to T-cell
D. complement activation

A

A

34
Q

Among the immunologically related adverse drug reactions, which among these takes 1-3 weeks to manifest?

A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
A

C

35
Q

Which among the following causes drug-induced vasculitis?

A. allopurinol
B. clarythromycin
C. carbamazepine
D. all of the above
A

D

36
Q

A dermal manifestation of ADR to thiol drugs such as enalapril.

A. pemphigus
B. urticaria
C. morbilliform rash
D. angioedema
A

A

37
Q

Tinnitus is an unpredictable intolerance to small doses of:

A. aspirin
B. carbamazepine
C. xylocaine
D. primaquine
A

A

38
Q

All of the following can be desensitized except:

A. peripheral neuropathy from rifampicin
B. rash from isoniazid
C. Steven-Johnson syndrome
D. morbilliform rash
A

C

39
Q

Genetic polymorphism may arise because of the following:

A. Pharmacodynamic variation as in the case of G6PD resulting in xenobiotic induced hemolysis.
B. Polymorphism in the mitochondrial DNa as in the case of aminoglycoside induced deafness.
C. Pharmacokinetic variation requiring increased dosage of warfarin due to warfarin resistance.
D. A and B only
E. All of the above

A

D

40
Q

Variability in drug response may be due to the following intrinsic factors except:

a. genetic differences
b. developmental stage
c. drug interaction
d. sex
e. none of the above

A

C

41
Q

The following statements is/are true regarding phase 1. Pharmacokinetic variations

a. ALDH deficiency may be responsible for flushing seen after small doses of alcohol due to the accumulation of aldehyde
b. an ultra-rapid metabolizer of isoniazid due to CYP2D6 may lead to toxicity
c. TPMT deficiency requires significant dose reduction in the use of thiopurines for cancer chemotherapy
d. only a and b are correct
e. all of the above

A

C

42
Q

The following condition/s is/are associated with polymorphisms resulting from pharmacodynamic variations

a. slow acetylator phenotype
b. aminoglycoside induced deafness
c. warfarin resistance
d. warfarin sensitivity

A

C

43
Q

Pharmacokinetic variations may involve any of the following

a. transporters
b. metabolizing enzymes
c. receptors
d. only a and b are correct
e. all of the above

A

D

44
Q

Hemolysis associated with the anti-malarial primaquine

A. N-acetyl transferase
B. G6PD deficiency
C. pseudocholinesterase deficiency
D. methemoglobin reductase deficiency

A

B

45
Q

Prolonged apnea from the use of succinylcholine

A. N-acetyl transferase
B. G6PD deficiency
C. pseudocholinesterase deficiency
D. methemoglobin reductase deficiency

A

C