Cross Country Flight Planning and Procedures Flashcards
What is an RMI?
Radio magnetic indicator.
Nav Instrument coupled with gyro or compass that
indicates the direction of a selected NAVAID and the bearing to it with respect to the heading of the aircraft.
What is an HSI?
Horizontal situation indicator.
Combines the heading indicator with a CDI to provide better situational awareness of location with respect to the course line.
What is RNAV?
Area Navigation. Provides enhanced navigation capability by computing the aircraft position, actual track and ground speed. RNAV systems include INS, LORAN, VOR/DME, and GPS systems.
What is DME?
measues the slant distance of an aircraft from the DME navigation aid.
What is the effective range distance for DME?
What is the effect error for DME?
Up to 199 nm at line of sight altitude.
1/2 mile or 3% of distance error (whichever is greater)
Give a brief description of GPS.
How many satellites are in GPS constellation?
How many satellites are always visible?
How many satellites to establish 3-dimensional position
uses the signals from multiple satellites in order to triangulate aircrafts position on earth.
24 satellites in constellation
5 satellites visible at all times/locations
4 satellites to establish 3D position
Within which frequency band does the VOR equipment operate?
VHF 108.00 - 117.95 MHz`
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?
a. VOT check; +- 4 degrees b. Ground checkpoint; +- 4 degrees c. Airborne checkpoint; +- 6 degrees d. Dual VOR check; 4 degrees between each other e. Select radial over a know ground point; +- 6 degrees f. A certified technician can use a calibrated signal
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?
each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place, and bearing error and sign the aircraft log or other reliable record.
Where can a pilot find the location of the nearest VOT testing station?
a. in the A/FD b. NOS IFR area chart c. and IFR enroute low altitude chart
How may the course sensitivity be checked on a VOR receiver?
recording the number of degrees of change in the course selected a you rotate the OBS to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side. This should be between 10 and 12 degrees
How can a pilot determine if a VOR or VORTAC has been taken out of service for maintenance?
the coded (morse or voice) identifier is removed during maintenance
How do you find an ADF relative bearing?
relative bearing is the angular relationship between the aircraft heading and the station measured clockwise from the nose. Read the bearing directly from the ADF measured clockwise from zero.
How do you find the ADF magnetic bearing?
MH + RB = MB If the sum is more than 360, subtract 360 to get the magnetic bearing.
If a diversion to an alternate airport becomes necessary due to an emergency, what procedure should be used?
1 consider relative distance to all suitable alternates
2 select the one most appropriate for the emergency
3 determine magnetic course to alternate and divert immediately
4 wind correction, actual distance and estimated time/fuel can be computed while enroute to alternate
How can the course to an alternate be computed quickly?
courses can be quickly measured by using a straight edge and the compass roses shown at VOR stations. VOR radials and airway courses are oriented to magnetic direction. Distances can be measured using the edge of a piece of paper and the scale on the chart.
What recommended entry procedure should be used at airports without an operating control tower?
Recommended departure procedure
Entry - abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude. Maintain pattern altitude until abeam the approach end of the landing runway on the downwind leg. Complete the turn to final at least 1/4 mile from the runway.
Departure - continue straight out, or exit with a 45 degree turn to the left (when in a left-hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.
What are the recommended traffic advisory practices at airports without an operating control tower?
Inbound traffic - should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Departing aircraft - should monitor and communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi and until 10 miles from the airport unless regulations or procedures require otherwise.
A large or turbine-powered aircraft is required to enter Class D airspace at what altitude?
unless otherwise required by distance from cloud criteria, large or turbine powered aircraft shall….
enter the traffic pattern at least 1,500 ft. above the elevation of the airport and maintain 1,500 ft. AGL until further descent is required for a safe landing.
When conducting flight operations into an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be established?
about 15 miles from entering the airspace.
When departing controlled airspace, what communication procedures are recommended?
it is a good idea to remain on the tower frequency while operating within the Class B, C or D surface area for the purpose of receiving traffic information. It is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, C and D surface areas.
You discover that both the transmitter and receiver in your aircraft have become inoperative. What procedures should be used when attempting to enter a traffic pattern and land at a tower controlled airport?
a. remain outside or above the surface area b. determine direction and flow of traffic c. join the traffic pattern and wait for light gun signal d. daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.
When a control tower located at an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?
Class E rules take effect. Check the A/FD for specific details for the airport.
If the rotating beacon is on at an airport during daylight hours, what significance does this have?
ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet, meaning the airport is under IFR conditions. ATC clearance is required for takeoff and landing.
Runway markings
a. displaced threshold
b. threshold markings
c. designation (magnetic heading of runway)
d. centerline marking
e. touchdown zone markings (500 feet apart)
f. aiming point marking (1000 feet from threshold)
Where can Available Landing Distance (ALD) data be found?
in the special notices section of the A/FD (airport facilities directory) and in the terminal procedures publications. Controllers can also provide this information upon request.
Where are runway incursions most likely to occur?
at complex, high volume airports where there are parallel/intersecting runways, multiple taxiway/runway intersections, complex taxi patterns, and/or the need for traffic to cross active runways. A disproportionatley large number of runway incursions involve general aviation pilots and often result from misunderstood controller instructions, confusion, disorientation, and/or inattention.
Describe a displaced threshold.
An area at the end of a runway which is not the “designated” beginning of the runway. Displacement of the threshold reduces the length of the runway availalble for landing.
Describe a tri-color light VASI system.
A three colored visual approach path indicating system which uses the following indications:
- Red - Below glidepath
- Green - On glidepath
- Amber - Above glidepath
What is a PAPI?
Precision Approach Path Indicator. Uses a single row of either two or four lights. Has an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day. Uses the following indications:
All white - High
Two Red, Two White - On Path
All red - Low
Can a commercial pilot allow a passenger to carry alcohol on board an aircraft for the purpose of consumption?
No, a person who is intoxicated (or becomes intoxicated) must not be allowed on board an aircraft.
No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with a blood alcohol level of what value?
0.04% BAC by weight
When are the operation of portable electronic devices not allowed on board an aircraft?
- On any U.S. registered aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operator certificate, or
- Any aircraft while it is operated under IFR
Are the any exceptions allowed concerning portable electronic equipment on board aircraft?
- portable voice recorders
- hearing aids
- heart pacemakers
- electric shavers
- any other portable electronic device the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference.
Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information?
- Weather reports and forecasts
- Fuel requirements
- Alternatives available if the planned flight cannont be completed
- Any known traffic delays of which the PIC has been advised by ATC
- Runway lengths of intended use
- Takeoff and landing distance data
When are flight crewmembers required to wear their seatbelts?
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. Shoulder harness must be worn during takeoff and landing only.
Is the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses required when operating an aircraft on the ground?
Yes. Each person on board a U.S. registered aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing
What is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 feet and within a Class D surface area?
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.
No person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL, at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kts.
What regulations pertain to altimeter setting procedures?
Below 18,000 feet MSL:
- The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nm of the aircraft
- If there is no station within the area described above, the current reported altimeter of an appropriate available station.
- In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure.
At or above 18,000 feet MSL set to 29.92” Hg
What are the regulatory fuel requirements for both VFR and IFR flight (day and night)?
VFR
fly to the first point of intended landing plus
- 30 minutes (day)
- 45 minutes (night)
IFR
fly to the first airport of intended landing, to the alternate airport plus 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
What mimimum flight visiblity and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in Class C, D, or E airspace (controlled)?
Less the 10,000 feet MSL:
- Visibility: 3 sm
- Clound Clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
At or above 10,000 feet MSL:
- Visibility: 5 sm
- Clound Clearance: 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 sm horizontal
What mimimum flight visiblity and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in Class G airspace (uncontrolled)?
1,200 feet or less above the surface (reguardless of MSL altitude):
- Day
- Visibility: 1 sm
- Cloud clearance: clear of clouds
- Night
- Visibility: 3 sm
- Clound clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL:
- Day
- Visibility: 1 sm
- Cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
- Night
- Visibility: 3 sm
- Clound clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL:
- Visibility: 5 sm
- Cloud clearance: 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 sm horizontal
When conducting IFR flight operations, what minimum altitudes are required over surrounding terrain?
If no applicable minimum altitudes apply:
- Mountainous area
- 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nm of the course to be flown
- Any other case
- 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4nm of the course to be flown
Where is altitude encoding transponder (Mode C) equipment required?
- at or above 10,000 ft MSL
- Within 30 nm of a Class B airspace primary airport
- Within and above all Class C airspace
- flying into, within, or across the contiguous U.S. ADIZ.
Where are aerobatic flight maneuvers not permitted?
- over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement
- over an open air assembly of persons
- within the lateral boundries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D or E airspace designated for an airport.
- within 4 nm of the center line of any federal airway
- below an altitude of 1,500 feet AGL
- when visibility is less than 3 sm
When must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
During maneuvers which involve
- a bank of more than 60 degrees
- a nose up or nose down attitude of more than 30 degrees
This does not apply to:
- flight tests for pilot certifications or ratings
- training with a certified flight instructor
What is primary radar?
Secondary radar?
- Primary radar - a radio pulse is transmitted from a site and some of that signal is reflected by an object and then received back at that site for processing.
- Secondary radar - detected object have transponder and sends more information than primary radar (altitude, squack code)
What is airport surveillance radar?
approach control radar used to detect and display an aircrafts position in the terminal area.
Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft?
- Basic radar service - safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring
- TRSA service - sequencing and separation service for participating VFR aircraft in a TRSA area.
- Class B, C service - provides basic radar service plus approved separation between IFR, and VFR aircraft
What is the “guard” frequency?
121.5
If operations are not being conducted in airspace requiring a transponder, can an aircraft equipped with a transponder leave it off.
if the aircraft is equiped with a transponder it should be operating at all times unless otherwise requested by ATC.
At what altitude would a pilot expect to encounter military aircraft when navigating throught a military training route designated “VR1207”?
Less than 1,500 feet AGL. Military training routes with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by four-digit characters; e.g. IR1206, VR1207. MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by three-digit characters; e.g. IR206, VR207
What is a composite flight plan?
flight plans which specify VFR operations for one portion of the flight and IFR for another portion.
- the pilot should report the departue time to the FSS with which he filed his VFR/IFR flight plan
- at the point of change over, close the VFR portion
- request ATC clearance from the FSS nearest the change over point.
- Remain in VFR weather conditions until operating in accoradance with the IFR clearance.
What is an “abbreviated” IFR flight plane?
Usually used in what 2 situations?
an IFR flight plan which requires only that information needed for the purpose of ATC.
It is usually used by aircraft which are airborne and desire an instrument approach or by aircraft on the ground which desire to climb to VFR-On-Top conditions.
How long will a flight plan remain on file after the proposed departure time has passed?
a mimimum of 1 hour after the proposed departure time
most Centers delete flight plans 2 hours after proposed departure time
If you fail to report a change in arrival time or forget to close your flight plan, when will search and rescure procedures begin?
within 30 mins after your ETA
What consititutes a change in flight plan?
- altitude change
- destination and/or route change
- change of true airspeed by +- 5 percent or 10 kts which ever is greater
What is a DVFR flight plan?
Defense VFR; VFR flights into a coastal or domestic ADIZ/DEWIZ are required to flile DVFR flight plans for security purposes. Flight plan must be on file before departure.
What is an ADIZ?
Air Defense Identification Zones. They are the boarder of the U.S. airspace. All aircraft entering the U.S. must be identified prior to entry.
Displaced threshold
reduced length of runway for landing
(is available for takeoff)
