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Commercial Pilot Oral Exam > Cross Country Flight Planning and Procedures > Flashcards

Cross Country Flight Planning and Procedures Flashcards

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1
Q

What is an RMI?

A

Radio magnetic indicator. Indicates the direction of a selected NAVAID and the bearing to it with respect to the heading of the aircraft.

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2
Q

What is an HSI?

A

Horizontal situation indicator. Combines the heading indicator with a CDI to provide better situational awareness of location with respect to the course line.

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3
Q

What is RNAV?

A

Area Navigation. Provides enhanced navigation capability by computing the aircraft position, actual track and ground speed. RNAV systems include INS, LORAN, VOR/DME, and GPS systems.

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4
Q

What is DME?

A

measues the slant distance of an aircraft from the DME navigation aid.

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5
Q

What is the effective range distance for DME?

A

Up to 199 nm at line of sight altitude.

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6
Q

Give a brief description of GPS.

A

uses the signals from multiple satellites in order to triangulate aircrafts position on earth.

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7
Q

Can handheld GPS receivers and GPS systems certified for VFR operations be used for IFR operations?

A

No, for the following reasons: a. VFR GPSs’ do not have RAIM alerting capability b. Database currency - there is no requirement to maintain the database currency in a VFR only GPS c. Antenna location - VFR GPS antennas installation is usually decided by convenience rather than functionality. In IFR rated systems, the antennas are installed to provide an adequate view of the satellites.

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8
Q

Within which frequency band does the VOR equipment operate?

A

VHF 108.00 - 117.95 MHz`

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9
Q

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?

A

a. VOT check; +- 4 degrees b. Ground checkpoint; +- 4 degrees c. Airborne checkpoint; +- 6 degrees d. Dual VOR check; 4 degrees between each other e. Select radial over a know ground point; +- 6 degrees f. A certified technician can use a calibrated signal

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10
Q

What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?

A

each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place, and bearing error and sign the aircraft log or other reliable record.

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11
Q

Where can a pilot find the location of the nearest VOT testing station?

A

a. in the A/FD b. NOS IFR area chart c. and IFR enroute low altitude chart

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12
Q

How may the course sensitivity be checked on a VOR receiver?

A

recording the number of degrees of change in the course selected a you rotate the OBS to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side. This should be between 10 and 12 degrees

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13
Q

How can a pilot determine if a VOR or VORTAC has been taken out of service for maintenance?

A

the mores code identifier is removed during maintenance

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14
Q

How do you find an ADF relative bearing?

A

relative bearing is the angular relationship between the aircraft heading and the station measured clockwise from the nose. Read the bearing directly from the ADF measured clockwise from zero.

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15
Q

How do you find the ADF magnetic bearing?

A

MH + RB = MB If the sum is more than 360, subtract 360 to get the magnetic bearing.

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16
Q

If a diversion to an alternate airport becomes necessary due to an emergency, what procedure should be used?

A

a. consider relative distance to all suitable alternates b. select the one most appropriate for the emergency c. determine magnetic course to alternate and divert immediately d. wind correction, actual distance and estimated time/fuel can be computed while enroute to alternate

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17
Q

How can the course to an alternate be computed quickly?

A

courses can be quickly measured by using a straight edge and the compass roses shown at VOR stations. VOR radials and airway courses are oriented to magnetic direction. Distances can be measured using the edge of a piece of paper and the scale on the chart.

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18
Q

What recommended entry and departure procedures should be used at airports without an operating control tower?

A

Entry - abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude. Maintain pattern altitude until abeam the approach end of the landing runway on the downwind leg. Complete the turn to final at least 1/4 mile from the runway. Departure - continue straight out, or exit with a 45 degree turn to the left (when in a left-hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.

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19
Q

What are the recommended traffic advisory practices at airports without an operating control tower?

A

Inbound traffic - should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Departing aircraft - should monitor and communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi and until 10 miles from the airport unless regulations or procedures require otherwise.

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20
Q

A large or turbine-powered aircraft is required to enter Class D airspace at what altitude?

A

unless otherwise required by distance from cloud criteria, large or turbine powered aircraft shall enter the traffic pattern at least 1,500 ft. above the elevation of the airport and maintain 1,500 ft. AGL until further descent is required for a safe landing.

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21
Q

When conducting flight operations into an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be established?

A

about 15 miles from entering the airspace.

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22
Q

When departing controlled airspace, what communication procedures are recommended?

A

it is a good idea to remain on the tower frequency while operating within the Class B, C or D surface area for the purpose of receiving traffic information. It is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, C and D surface areas.

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23
Q

You discover that both the transmitter and receiver in your aircraft have become inoperative. What procedures should be used when attempting to enter a traffic pattern and land at a tower controlled airport?

A

a. remain outside or above the surface area b. determine direction and flow of traffic c. join the traffic pattern and wait for light gun signal d. daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.

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24
Q

When a control tower located at an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?

A

Class E rules take effect. Check the A/FD for specific details for the airport.

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25
Q

If the rotating beacon is on at an airport during daylight hours, what significance does this have?

A

ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet, meaning the airport is under IFR conditions. ATC clearance is required for takeoff and landing.

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26
Q

Runway markings

A

a. displaced threshold
b. threshold markings
c. designation (magnetic heading of runway)
d. centerline marking
e. touchdown zone markings (500 feet apart)
f. aiming point marking (1000 feet from threshold)

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27
Q

The acronym LAHSO refers to what specific air traffic control procedure?

A

Land and Hold Short Operations. This means a pilot may be cleared to land but must agree to hold short of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

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28
Q

Where can Available Landing Distance (ALD) data be found?

A

in the special notices section of the A/FD (airport facilities directory) and in the terminal procedures publications. Controllers can also provide this information upon request.

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29
Q

Where are runway incursions most likely to occur?

A

at complex, high volume airports where there are parallel/intersecting runways, multiple taxiway/runway intersections, complex taxi patterns, and/or the need for traffic to cross active runways. A disproportionatley large number of runway incursions involve general aviation pilots and often result from misunderstood controller instructions, confusion, disorientation, and/or inattention.

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30
Q

Describe a displaced threshold.

A

An area at the end of a runway which is not the “designated” beginning of the runway. Displacement of the threshold reduces the length of the runway availalble for landing.

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31
Q

Describe a tri-color light VASI system.

A

A three colored visual approach path indicating system which uses the following indications:

  • Red - Below glidepath
  • Green - On glidepath
  • Amber - Above glidepath
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32
Q

What is a PAPI?

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator. Uses a single row of either two or four lights. Has an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day. Uses the following indications:

All white - High

Two Red, Two White - On Path

All red - Low

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33
Q

Can a commercial pilot allow a passenger to carry alcohol on board an aircraft for the purpose of consumption?

A

No, a person who is intoxicated (or becomes intoxicated) must not be allowed on board an aircraft.

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34
Q

No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with a blood alcohol level of what value?

A

0.04% BAC by weight

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35
Q

When are the operation of portable electronic devices not allowed on board an aircraft?

A
  • On any U.S. registered aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operator certificate, or
  • Any aircraft while it is operated under IFR
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36
Q

Are the any exceptions allowed concerning portable electronic equipment on board aircraft?

A
  1. portable voice recorders
  2. hearing aids
  3. heart pacemakers
  4. electric shavers
  5. any other portable electronic device the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference.
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37
Q

Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information?

A
  1. Weather reports and forecasts
  2. Fuel requirements
  3. Alternatives available if the planned flight cannont be completed
  4. Any known traffic delays of which the PIC has been advised by ATC
  5. Runway lengths of intended use
  6. Takeoff and landing distance data
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38
Q

When are flight crewmembers required to wear their seatbelts?

A

During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. Shoulder harness must be worn during takeoff and landing only.

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39
Q

Is the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses required when operating an aircraft on the ground?

A

Yes. Each person on board a U.S. registered aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing

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40
Q

Can passengers be carried for hire in formation flight?

A

No.

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41
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 feet and within a Class D surface area?

A

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.

No person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL, at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kts.

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42
Q

What regulations pertain to altimeter setting procedures?

A

Below 18,000 feet MSL:

  • The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nm of the aircraft
  • If there is no station within the area described above, the current reported altimeter of an appropriate available station.
  • In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure.

At or above 18,000 feet MSL set to 29.92” Hg

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43
Q

What are the regulatory fuel requirements for both VFR and IFR flight (day and night)?

A

VFR

fly to the first point of intended landing plus

  • 30 minutes (day)
  • 45 minutes (night)

IFR

fly to the first airport of intended landing, to the alternate airport plus 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

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44
Q

What mimimum flight visiblity and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in Class C, D, or E airspace (controlled)?

A

Less the 10,000 feet MSL:

  • Visibility: 3 sm
  • Clound Clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal

At or above 10,000 feet MSL:

  • Visibility: 5 sm
  • Clound Clearance: 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 sm horizontal
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45
Q

What mimimum flight visiblity and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in Class G airspace (uncontrolled)?

A

1,200 feet or less above the surface (reguardless of MSL altitude):

  • Day
    • Visibility: 1 sm
    • Cloud clearance: clear of clouds
  • Night
    • Visibility: 3 sm
    • Clound clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal

More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL:

  • Day
    • Visibility: 1 sm
    • Cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
  • Night
    • Visibility: 3 sm
    • Clound clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal

More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL:

  • Visibility: 5 sm
  • Cloud clearance: 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 sm horizontal
46
Q

When conducting IFR flight operations, what minimum altitudes are required over surrounding terrain?

A

If no applicable minimum altitudes apply:

  1. Mountainous area
    1. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nm of the course to be flown
  2. Any other case
    1. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4nm of the course to be flown
47
Q

What are several examples of situations in which an ELT is not required equipment on board the aircraft?

A
  1. ferrying aircraft for installation or repair of an ELT
  2. training flights within a 50nm radius of an airport
48
Q

Where is altitude encoding transponder (Mode C) equipment required?

A
  1. at or above 10,000 ft MSL
  2. Within 30 nm of a Class B airspace primary airport
  3. Within and above all Class C airspace
  4. flying into, within, or across the contiguous U.S. ADIZ.
49
Q

Where are aerobatic flight maneuvers not permitted?

A
  1. over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement
  2. over an open air assembly of persons
  3. within the lateral boundries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D or E airspace designated for an airport.
  4. within 4 nm of the center line of any federal airway
  5. below an altitude of 1,500 feet AGL
  6. when visibility is less than 3 sm
50
Q

When must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

A

During maneuvers which involve

  1. a bank of more than 60 degrees
  2. a nose up or nose down attitude of more than 30 degrees

This does not apply to:

  1. flight tests for pilot certifications or ratings
  2. training with a certified flight instructor
51
Q

What is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner?

A

must have a certificate waiver issued by the FAA

52
Q

What categories of aircraft cannot be used in the carriage of persons or property for hire?

A
  1. restricted
  2. limited
  3. experimental
53
Q

What is primary radar and secondary radar?

A
  • Primary radar - a radio pulse is transmitted from a site and some of that signal is reflected by an object and then received back at that site for processing.
  • Secondary radar - a system in which the object to be detected is fitted with a transponder. When the transponder is “interrogated” by a radar signal, it sends back a reply with more detailed information that what would be received with primary radar i.e. altitude, squack code
54
Q

What is airport surveillance radar?

A

approach control radar used to detect and display an aircrafts position in the terminal area.

55
Q

Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft?

A
  1. Basic radar service - safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring
  2. TRSA service - sequencing and separation service for participating VFR aircraft in a TRSA area.
  3. Class B, C service - provides basic radar service plus approved separation between IFR, and VFR aircraft
56
Q

What is the “guard” frequency?

A

121.5

57
Q

If operations are not being conducted in airspace requiring a transponder, can an aircraft equipped with a transponder leave it off.

A

if the aircraft is equiped with a transponder it should be operating at all times unless otherwise requested by ATC.

58
Q

At what altitude would a pilot expect to encounter military aircraft when navigating throught a military training route designated “VR1207”?

A

Less than 1,500 feet AGL. Military training routes with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by four-digit characters; e.g. IR1206, VR1207. MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by three-digit characters; e.g. IR206, VR207

59
Q

What is a composite flight plan?

A

flight plans which specify VFR operations for one portion of the flight and IFR for another portion.

  1. the pilot should report the departue time to the FSS with which he filed his VFR/IFR flight plan
  2. at the point of change over, close the VFR portion
  3. request ATC clearance from the FSS nearest the change over point.
  4. Remain in VFR weather conditions until operating in accoradance with the IFR clearance.
60
Q

What is an “abbreviated” IFR flight plane?

A

an IFR flight plan which requires only that information needed for the purpose of ATC. It is usually used by aircraft which are airborne and desire an instrument approach or by aircraft on the ground which desire to climb to VFR-On-Top conditions.

61
Q

How long will a flight plan remain on file after the propsed departure time has passed?

A

a mimimum of 1 hour after the proposed departure time

62
Q

If you fail to report a change in arrival time or forget to close your flight plan, when will search and rescure procedures begin?

A

within 30 mins after your ETA

63
Q

What consititutes a change in flight plan?

A
  1. altitude change
  2. destination and/or route change
  3. change of true airspeed by +- 5 percent or 10 kts which ever is greater
64
Q

What is a DVFR flight plan?

A

Defense VFR; VFR flights into a coastal or domestic ADIZ/DEWIZ are required to flile DVFR flight plans for security purposes. Flight plan must be on file before departure.

65
Q

What is an ADIZ?

A

Air Defense Identification Zones. They are the boarder of the U.S. airspace. All aircraft entering the U.S. must be identified prior to entry.

66
Q

Where are Air Defense Identification Zones normally located?

A
  • Domestic ADIZ - located along an international boundary of the U.S.
  • Coastal ADIZ - located over the coastal waters of the U.S.
  • Distant Early Warning Identification Zone (DEWIZ) - located over the coastal waters of Alaska
  • Land based ADIZ - located over U.S. metropolitan areas, which is activated and deactivated as needed. Disseminated via NOTAM.
67
Q

What requirements must be satisfied prior to operations into, within or across an ADIZ?

A
  1. Flight plan - IFR or DVFR
  2. Two-way radio
  3. Transponder - Mode C
  4. Position reports - for DVFR flights estimated time of ADIZ entry at least 15 minutes prior.
  5. Aircraft position tolerances
    1. Land - +- 5 minutes to reporting points and within 10 nm from the centerline of track
    2. Water - +- 5 minutes to reporting points and within 20 nm from the centerline of track
68
Q

Briefly described the six classes of U.S. airspace.

A
  • Class A - from 18,000 ft. MSL to FL600. Includes airspace overlying the waters within 12 nm of the coast of the U.S.
  • Class B - from surface to 10,000 ft. MSL surrounding the nations busiest airports. The configuration of each class B airspace is tailored to the instrument procedures of each airport. Clearance is required for entry. Clould clearence for VFR operations is “clear of clouds”.
  • Class C - Usually has a 5 nm center ring from the surface to 4,000 ft. AGL, and an 10 nm ring from 1,200 ft. to 4,000 ft. AGL.
  • Class D - from the surface to 2,500 ft. AGL surrounding an airport with a control tower.
  • Class E - controlled airspace which is not designated Class A, B, C, or D. Extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlaying or adjacent controlled airspace. Examples include: Surface areas designated for an airport, enroute domensions to a surface area, airspace used for transition, enroute domestic areas, federal airways, offshore airspace areas.
  • Class G - uncontrolled airspace. Airspace not designated A, B, C, D or E airspace.
69
Q

What is a Prohibited Area?

A

For security or other reasons, aircraft flight is prohibited.

70
Q

What are Restricted Areas?

A

Contains unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft. Must have permission to enter from ATC.

71
Q

What are Military Operations Areas (MOA)?

A

Designed to separate military training from IFR traffic. Permission is not required, but VFR flight should excercise caution.

72
Q

What is a Warning Area?

A

Has the same hazards as a restriced area. Established beyond the 3 mile limit of International Airspace. Permission is not required, but a flight plan is advised.

73
Q

What is an Alert Area?

A

Airspace containing a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity. No permission is required, but VFR flights should excercise caution.

74
Q

What is a Controlled Firing Area?

A

contain activities which could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The activities in a CFA will be suspended when an aircraft is thought to be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted.

75
Q

What are National Security Areas?

A

airspace of defined vertial and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through NSAs. NSAs may be temporarily prohibited if needed.

76
Q

What is a temporary flight restrictions (TFR) area and how would you know it exists?

A

A temporary prohibited flight area. The FAA will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) to notify pilots of the TFR. Usually issued for airshows, major sporting events or other situations to protect persons or property on the surface.

77
Q

What is a TRSA?

A

Terminal Radar Service Area. Airspace surrounding designated airports where ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separtation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. Pilot participation is not mandatory.

78
Q

What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulance when landing behing a larger aircraft, on the same runway?

A

Stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it.

79
Q

What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulance when landing behing a larger aircraft, on a parallel runway closer then 2,500 feet?

A

Stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path and note its touchdown point and land beyond it.

80
Q

What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulance when landing behing a larger aircraft, on a crossing runway?

A

Cross above the larger aircraft’s flight path

81
Q

What procedure should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway?

A

Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, and land well before it.

82
Q

What procedure should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when landing behind a departing larger aircraft on a crossing runway?

A

If the rotation point is past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection. If the rotation point was prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft’s flight path. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersecton.

83
Q

What procedure should be used in avoiding wake turbulance when departing behind a larger aircraft?

A

Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, rotate prior to the larger aircrafts rotation point. Continue to climb above the larger aircrafts wake until turning clear of it.

84
Q

Who is responsible for wake turbulence avoidance, the pilot or the air traffic controller?

A

The pilot has accepted responsibility once he has accepted instructions from ATC about traffic information, visual approach clearance etc.

85
Q

What is hydroplaning?

A

when the tires are lifted off of a runway surface by the combination of aircraft speed and a thin film of water present on the runway.

86
Q

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?

A
  • Follow recommendations by the manufacturer
  • If none are given:
    • Lower the nose as soon as possible
    • Carefully retract the flaps, if able
87
Q

What is runway width illusion?

A

A narrower then usual runway creates the illusion that the aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach.

88
Q

What is runway and terrain slope illusion?

A

upsloping runway/terrain creates the illusion that the aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal.

89
Q

What is the most effective method of scanning for other air traffic?

A

with a series of short, regurlarly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central vision field. Each area should be oberved for at least 1 second.

90
Q

Explain the arrangement and interpretation of the position lights on an aircraft.

A
  • Red light - left wing tip
  • Green light - right wing tip
  • White light - on the tail
91
Q

Position lights are required to be on during what period of time?

A

From sunset to sunrise.

92
Q

What are the different types of rotating beacons used to identify airports?

A
  1. white and green - lighted land airport
  2. white and yellow - lighted water airport
  3. green, yellow and white - lighted heliport
  4. white, white and green - military airport
93
Q

What color are runway edge lights?

A

White.

94
Q

What are REIL lights?

A

Runway end identifier lights. They are a pair of synchronized flashing lights which help with rapid identification of the approach end of a runway.

95
Q

What color are taxiway edge lights?

A

Blue.

96
Q

What color are taxiway center line lights?

A

Steady-burning, green lights

97
Q

How does a pilot determine the status of a light system at a particular airport?

A

Check the A/FD and NOTAMs.

98
Q

How does a pilot activate a radio-controlled runway light system while airborne?

A

On the proper frequency key the microphone:

  • 7 times for high intensity
  • 5 times for medium intensity
  • 3 times for low intensity

must be keyed within 5 seconds

99
Q

What are some basic operational advantages when conducting high-altitude operations?

A
  1. ture airspeed increases with altitude
  2. winds aloft are stronger providing tailwind opportunities
  3. better ability to see and avoid thunderstorms
  4. better visibility
  5. less turbulance
  6. above most weather
  7. reduced chance for icing
  8. less air traffic to conflict with
100
Q

What are the regulations concerning the use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft?

A

At cabin pressure altitudes:

  1. above 12,500 ft. MSL - the required minimum flight crew must use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes above 12,500 ft.
  2. above 14,000 ft. MSL - the required minimum flight crew must use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time above 14,000 ft.
  3. above 15,000 ft. MSL - each occupant of the aircraft must be provided with supplemental oxygen.
101
Q

What are the regulations pertaining to the use of supplemental oxygen on board a “pressurized” aircraft?

A
  1. Above Flight Level 250 - at least a 10 minute supply of supplemental oxygen is available for each occupant.
  2. Above Flight Level 350 - at least on pilot at the controls must wear and use an oxygen mask. There is an exception to this rule if the aircraft is below Flight Level 410 and each pilot has a quick donning mask which can be put on within 5 seconds.
102
Q

What are the requirements to operate within Class A airspace?

A
  1. IFR clearance
  2. equipped with instruments required for IFR
  3. instrument rated pilot
  4. two-way radio and mode C transponder
103
Q

What additional equipment is required when operating above Flight Level 240?

A
  • DME or
  • RNAV
104
Q

What type of navigational charts are used when operating at altitudes above 18,000 feet?

A

Enroute high altitude charts. Includes:

  • jet routes
  • NAVAIDs with frequencies
  • geographic coordinates
  • selected airports
  • reporting points

revised every 56 days

105
Q

When is immediate notification to the NTSB required?

A
  1. Flight control system malfunction
  2. Crewmember unable to perform normal duties
  3. Turbine enginge failure of structural components
  4. In fight fire
  5. Aircraft collision in flight
  6. Property damage, other than aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000
  7. Overdue aircraft (believed to be in an accident)
106
Q

After an accident or incident has occurred, how soon must a report be filed with the NTSB?

A
  1. Within 10 days after an accident;
  2. When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing.
107
Q

Define aircraft accident

A

An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight an all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

108
Q

Define aircraft incident.

A

An occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

109
Q

Define the term serious injury.

A

Any injury which:

  1. Requires hospitalization for moure than 48 hours, commencing with 7 days from the date the injury was recieved.
  2. A fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose);
  3. Severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage
  4. Involves any internal organ
  5. Second or third degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body.
110
Q

Define the term substantial damage.

A

Damage or failure which adversely affects structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which normally requires major repair or replacement of the affected component.

111
Q

Will notification to the NTSB be necessary in any aircraft “accident” even if there were no injuries?

A

If there was substantial damage to the aircraft.

112
Q

Where are accident or incident reports filed?

A

With the NTSB field office nearest the accident or incident.

Commercial Pilot Oral Exam (10 decks)

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