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Commercial Pilot Oral Exam > Airplane Systems > Flashcards

Airplane Systems Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

How are the flight controls operated?

A

Manually actuated through rods and cables. Control wheel actuates the ailerons and elevator, rudder pedals accurate the rudder.

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2
Q

What type of trim systems are in the airplane?

A

Both rudder and elevator trim are equipped in the airplane, both manually actuated.

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3
Q

What are flaps, and what is their function?

A

Movable panels on the inboard trailing edges of the wings which extend downward into the flow of air beneath the wings to increase both lift and drag. Their purpose is to permit a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of decent during landing.

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4
Q

Describe the Piper’s wing flap system.

A

The flaps are extended with a pull handle with three possible settings, 10, 25 or 40 degrees.

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5
Q

What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?

A

Altimeter, Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI), and Airspeed Indicator

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6
Q

How does the altimeter work?

A

Aneroid wafers inside the altimeter expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes.

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7
Q

A pressure altimeter is subject to what limitations?

A

Non-standard pressure and temperature variations.

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8
Q

How do you determine indicated altitude?

A

Read it directly from the altimeter (set with current altimeter setting)

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9
Q

How do you determine pressure altitude?

A

Read from the altimeter with a pressure setting of 29.92”.

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10
Q

What is “true altitude”?

A

The aircrafts height above sea level (MSL).

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11
Q

What is “density altitude”?

A

Pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature variation. Related to the aircrafts takeoff, climb and landing performance.

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12
Q

What is “absolute altitude”?

A

Aircrafts vertical distance above the terrain.

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13
Q

How does the airspeed indicator work?

A

It measures the difference between the impact pressure at the pitot head and the atmospheric pressure at the static source.

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14
Q

What are the limitations of the airspeed indicator?

A

It needs proper flow of air into the pitot static system.

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15
Q

The airspeed indicator is subject to what errors?

A

Position error - the slipstream causing disturbances at the static port preventing the atmospheric pressure from being read.

Density error - Changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated for in the instrument.

Compressibility error - caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high speeds, resulting in higher than normal indications.

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16
Q

What is “true airspeed”?

A

Speed of the airplane in relation to the air mass in which it is flying.

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17
Q

What is “indicated airspeed”?

A

Speed of the airplane read directly from the airspeed gauge.

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18
Q

What is “calibrated airspeed”?

A

Airspeed reading corrected for position and instrument errors.

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19
Q

What is “equivalent airspeed”?

A

Calibrated airspeed corrected for the adiabatic compressible flow for the particular altitude.

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20
Q

What is the white arc on the airspeed gauge?

A

Flap operating range

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21
Q

What is the green arc on the airspeed gauge?

A

Normal operating range

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22
Q

What is the yellow arc on the airspeed gauge?

A

Caution range (smooth air only)

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23
Q

What is the red line on the airspeed gauge?

A

Vne , Maximum operating speed.

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24
Q

What is V A speed?

A

Maneuvering speed (131 mph)

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25
Q

What is V LE?

A

Maximum gear extension speed (150 mph)

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26
Q

What is V X?

A

Best angle of climb speed (96 mph *gear up)

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27
Q

What is V Y?

A

Best rate of climb speed (100 mph *gear up)

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28
Q

How does the Vertical Speed Indicator work?

A

Pressure differential with a calibrated leak.

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29
Q

How does the Vertical Speed Indicator work?

A

Pressure differential with a calibrated leak.

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30
Q

What are the limitations of the VSI?

A

It is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Sudden or abrupt changes in altitude will cause erroneous readings.

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31
Q

Which instruments contain gyroscopes?

A

Turn coordinator, heading indicator, and the attitude indicator.

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32
Q

What are the two fundamental properties of a gyroscope?

A

Rigidity in space and precession

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33
Q

What sources power the gyroscopic instruments in the airplane?

A

Attitude indicator - vacuum
Heading indicator - vacuum
Turn coordinator - electrical

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34
Q

How does the vacuum system operate?

A

Air is sucked through a filter, then through the vacuum instruments (attitude and heading indicator), through the pump and then overboard. A relief valve regulates the pressure.

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35
Q

How does the attitude indicator work?

A

The gyro is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends on rigidity in space for operation. The fixed gyro remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched and banked about its axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the horizon.

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36
Q

What are the limits of an attitude indicator?

A

Pitch and bank limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument. Banking limits are usually around 100 degrees, pitch limits are usually around 60 - 70 degrees. If either limit is exceeded the instrument will tumble or spill giving incorrect indications until reset.

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37
Q

The attitude indicator is subject to what errors?

A

Slight nose up indication during rapid acceleration, slight nose down indication during rapid deceleration. May get a slight pitch and bank angle error after a 180 degree turn, which should correct itself within a minute or so.

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38
Q

How does the heading indicator operate?

A

Using the principle of rigidity in space the rotor turns in a vertical plane. The airplane revolves around the vertical axis and the compass card shows heading information.

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39
Q

What are the limitations of the heading indicator?

A

The instrument may tumble after reaching more than 55 degrees of pitch or bank rendering it unusable until it is reset.

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40
Q

What error is the heading indicator subject to?

A

Because of precession, caused by friction, the heading indicator will drift from a heading to which it is set. The indicator may indicate as much a 15 degrees of error per hour.

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41
Q

How does the turn coordinator operate?

A

It uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. The slip/skid indicator is a liquid filled tube with a ball that reacts to centrifugal force and gravity.

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42
Q

What information does the turn coordinator provide?

A

It shows the yaw and roll of the aircraft around the vertical and longitudinal axis. The miniature airplane indicates direction of turn as well as rate of turn. When aligned with the turn index, it represents a standard rate turn of 3 degrees per second. The inclinometer of the coordination of aileron and rudder. The ball indicates whether the airplane is in coordinated flight or is in a slip or skid.

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43
Q

What will the turn indicator indicate when the aircraft is in a skidding or a slipping turn?

A

Skid - the ball will be to the outside of the turn; too much rate of turn to the amount of bank.

Slip - the ball will be on the inside of the turn; not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank.

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44
Q

How does the magnetic compass card work?

A

Magnetized needles are attached to a float assembly around which is mounted a compass card. The needles align themselves parallel to the earths magnetic field. The float assembly is housed in a bowl filled with kerosene.

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45
Q

What limitations does the magnetic compass have?

A

The float in the compass can rotate and tilt up to approximately 18 degrees of bank. At steeper angles the compass indications are erratic and unpredictable.

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46
Q

What are the various compass errors?

A

Oscillation -erratic movement caused by turbulance or rough control input

Deviation - caused by electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft.

Variation - angular difference between true and magnetic north; reference isogonic lines of variation.

Dip Errors - caused by:
a. Acceleration - on east/west headings, when accelerating the compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating a turn to the south
Accelerate 
North
Decellerate
South

b. Northerly turning error - the compass leads in the south half of the turn, and lags in the north half.

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47
Q

What equipment would be considered hydraulic on this aircraft?

A

a. Retractable landing gear system
b. Wheel braking system
c. Nose gear shock strut

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48
Q

What provides hydraulic power to the landing gear system?

A

An electrically driven hydraulic pump provides hydraulic power to the landing gear system. The pump is located behind the passenger seats, on the right side of the aircraft.

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49
Q

Describe the landing system on the Piper.

A

The landing gear system is a tricycle-type system using two main wheels and a steerable nose wheel. All three wheels have shock absorption provided by an air/oil shock strut.

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50
Q

How is the landing gear extended and retracted?

A

An electrically driven hydraulic pump provides pressure to a hydraulic actuator which enables landing gear extension and retraction. A pressure switch starts and stops the pump and the direction of flow is controlled by the landing gear lever.

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51
Q

How is the gear locked in the down position?

A

Mechanically.

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52
Q

How is the hear locked in the up position?

A

Using positive “up” pressure which is constantly maintained by the pump and pressure switch.

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53
Q

How is accidental gear retraction prevented on the ground?

A

Through a weight on wheels switch. Whenever the gear is compressed by the weight of the airplane the retraction of the gear is electrically disabled.

54
Q

How is landing gear position indicated in the cockpit?

A

Gear down = three green lights
Gear in Transit = yellow light at the top of the panel
Gear Up = all light out

55
Q

What type of landing gear warning system is used?

A

A warning horn and a red “Warning Gear Up” light will activate if one of the following is true:

  1. Gear is up and power is reduced below 14 in. of manifold pressure.
  2. If the gear has been extended using the emergency gear extension and the gear handle is UP.
  3. Gear handle is UP while on the ground.
56
Q

What is the normal length of time necessary for landing gear retraction or extension?

A

5 to 7 seconds

57
Q

Can the landing gear be retracted in emergency?

A

No, emergency operation is only provided for extension.

58
Q

Describe the braking system on the Piper.

A

Hydraulically actuated disc type brakes are used on each main gear wheel. There are two ways to actuate the brakes, the toe brakes on the pilot or co-pilot rudder pedals or the hand brake. Both methods have individual brake cylinders. The parking brake is provided through the hand brake.

59
Q

How is steering on the ground accomplished?

A

Mechanical linkage between the rudder pedals and the nose wheel.

60
Q

What are the landing gear tire pressures?

A

27 psi on the main tires, 30 psi on the nose wheel.

61
Q

What type of engine does this aircraft have? (Piper)

A

Lycoming 200 HP @ 2700 RPM

a. Normally aspirated
b. Direct drive
c. Air cooled
d. Horizontally opposed
e. Fuel Injected
f. Four cylinder
g. 361 cubic inch

62
Q

How does the oil temperature gauge work?

A

Electrically powered from the aircraft electrical system. A sensor on the engine sends the reading to the gauge.

63
Q

How does the oil pressure gauge work?

A

Direct pressure oil line from the engine to the gauge.

64
Q

How does the cylinder head temperature gauge work?

A

Electrically. A sensor on the engine sends the reading to the gauge.

65
Q

How does the engine tachometer work?

A

Through an engine drive mechanical connection.

66
Q

How does the manifold pressure gauge work?

A

Direct reading of air pressure on the induction side of the air manifold, show in inchs of mercury.

67
Q

How does the fuel pressure gauge work?

A

Electrically. A sensor sends the fuel pressure signal to the gauge. Indicates pressure to the carburetor.

68
Q

What does the carburetor do?

A

It vaporized liquid fuel and mixes it with air. It also measures the airflow and meters fuel accordingly.

69
Q

How does the carburetor heat system work?

A

A carburetor heat valve, controlled by the pilot, allows unfiltered, heated air from a shroud located around an exhaust riser or muffler to be directed to the induction air manifold prior to the carburetor. Carb heat should be used anytime suspected or know carburetor icing conditions exist.

70
Q

What is fuel injection?

A

Fuel injection replaces a carburetor by injecting the fuel directly into the cylinders or just ahead of the intake valves.

71
Q

What are some advantages of fuel injection?

A

a. Reduction in evaporative icing
b. Better fuel flow
c. Faster throttle response
d. Precise control of mixture
e. Better fuel distribution
f. Easier cold weather starts

72
Q

What does the throttle do?

A

Manually controls the amount of fuel/air charge entering the cylinders, which controls the engine manifold pressure.

73
Q

What does the mixture control do?

A

It regulates the fuel to air ratio. It purpose is to prevent the mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes due to decreasing air density. Leaning the mixture during cross country flights conserves fuel and provides optimum power.

74
Q

What are turbochargers?

A

An exhaust driven compressor used to provide pressurized air to the engine for better performance at higher altitude.

75
Q

What are cowl flaps?

A

Cowl flaps are located on the engine cowling and allow the pilot to control the operating temperature of the engine by regulating the amount of air circulating within the engine compartment.

76
Q

When are cowl flaps used?

A

Open when:

a. starting engine
b. taxiing
c. take off
d. high power climb

Closed when:

a. during extended descent
b. anytime excessive cooling is possible

77
Q

Define the term service ceiling.

A

The height above sea level beyond which the aircraft’s maximum rate of climb would be no more than 100 feet per minute. Service ceiling may be found in the POH.

78
Q

What type of propeller does the Piper have?

A

a. all metal
b. three bladed
c. constant speed
d. controllable pitch

79
Q

Discuss fixed pitch propellers.

A

Climb propeller - has lower pitch, and therefore less drag. Which results in higher rpm and more horsepower being made by the engine. Increases performance for takeoffs and climbs.

Cruise propeller - has a higher pitch, therefore more drag. Results in lower rpm and less horsepower. Increases efficiency for cruise flight.

80
Q

Discuss variable pitch propellers (constant speed)

A

A constant speed propeller is capable of adjusting its blade angle to maintain a constant engine speed. For example, if engine rpm increases as a result of a decreased load on the engine (descent), the system automatically increases the propeller blade angle until rpm and returned to the selected speed.

81
Q

What does the prop control do?

A

It regulates the propeller pitch and engine rpm for a given flight condition. The prop control adjusts a propeller governor which establishes and maintains the prop speed, which in turn maintains the engine speed.

82
Q

What would the desired propeller setting be for maximum performance situations such as takeoff?

A

A low pitch, high rpm setting produces maximum power and thrust. The low blade angle allows the highest rpm and produce the maximum amount of fuel into energy.

83
Q

What is a propeller governor?

A

The prop governor, with the assistance of a governor pump, controls the flow of engine oil to or from a piston in the propeller hub. When the engine oil, under high pressure from the governor pump, pushes the piston forward, the propeller blades are twisted toward a high pitch/low rpm condition. When the engine oil is released from the cylinder, centrifugal force, with the help of a spring, twists the blades towards a low pitch/high rpm condition.

84
Q

When operating an airplane with a constant speed propeller, which condition induces the most stress on the engine?

A

A combination of high manifold pressure and low rpm can induce damaging detonation.

85
Q

What type fuel system does the Piper have?

A

a. two 25 gallon wing tanks (48 gallons useable)
b. three position selector valve
c. manual primer
d. engine driven fuel pump
e. electric auxiliary pump
f. a carburetor

Using gravity, fuel flows from the tanks through the fuel selector, through a gascolator (strainer), through the pumps, to the flow distributor and into the engine.

86
Q

When is the auxiliary fuel boost pump used?

A

When recommended by the POH. In general, during takeoff, landing, when switching tanks, and if the fuel pressure falls below a minimum value (out of the green).

87
Q

Why is it necessary to include a left and right position on the fuel selector valve?

A

To have the ability to equally balance the amount of fuel in each wing, thus having equal weight on both sides.

88
Q

Where are the fuel vents located for each tank?

A

Below the bottom of each wing.

89
Q

What is the purpose of the fuel tank vents?

A

The vents provide a way for air to replace the fuel as it is consumed.

90
Q

What type of fuel does this aircraft require?

A

100LL, blue in color

91
Q

Can other types of fuel be used if the specified grade is not available?

A

May be possible to use a higher grade of fuel (need to consult the manufactures documentation), however you should never use a lower grade.

92
Q

What are some examples of different fuel grades available?

A

80 - red
100 - Green
100LL - Blue
Turbine - Clear

93
Q

What is the purpose of the manual primer?

A

To assist with starting the engine. It draws fuel directly from the fuel strainer and injects it directly into the cylinder intake ports.

94
Q

Where are the drain valves located?

A

One under each wing, and one from the strainer on the left front corner of the firewall.

95
Q

How is the fuel quantity measure?

A

With a float type transmitter and one electric fuel quantity indicator for each tank.

96
Q

Are the fuel quantity indicator accurate?

A

Certification only requires the gauges to be accurate when the tanks are empty. Any reading other than empty should be verified.

97
Q

Briefly describe the engine oil system.

A

Aircraft engine lubrication and oil for propeller governor operation is supplied from a sump on the bottom of the engine. Oil sump capacity is 8 quarts.

98
Q

What are the minimum and maximum oil capacities?

A

Min. oil capacity = 2 quarts

Max. oil capacity = 8 quarts

99
Q

What are the minimum and maximum oil temperatures and pressures?

A

Oil temperature - 100 - 245 degrees F (green zone)

Oil pressure - 25 psi (idling), 60-90 psi (green zone)

100
Q

What two types of oil are available for use in the Piper?

A

Mineral oil - non detergent oil. Used for new or overhauled engines for break in purposes.

Ashless dispersant - Mineral oil with additives, has high anti wear properties. Picks up contamination and carbon particles.

101
Q

What type of oil is recommended for this engine? Summer / Winter operations?

A

Ashless dispersant oil,
20W-50 for winter
SAE 40 or 50 for summer

102
Q

Describe the electrical system on the Piper.

A

Primary electrical power source is a 14-volt, 60-amp engine driven alternator which is protected by a voltage regulator and an overvoltage relay.
Secondary power is provided by a 12-volt, 25-amp hour battery.

103
Q

Where is the battery located?

A

Through the baggage compartment, just aft of the baggage compartment.

104
Q

How are the circuits for the various electrical accessories with in the aircraft protected?

A

Most of the electrical circuits are protected from an amperage overload by either a circuit breaker or fuse.

105
Q

What is a bus bar?

A

A bus bar interfaces the electrical system with the various electrical systems such as the radios, lights, instruments, etc. They make the electrical wiring less complex.

106
Q

The electrical system provides power for what equipment in the airplane?

A

a. radios
b. turn coordinator
c. fuel gauges
d. pitot heat
e. landing light
f. exterior lights
g. interior lights
h. oil temperature gauge
I. accessory power

107
Q

What does the ammeter indicate?

A

It shows the electrical load placed on the system. With only the master switch on the ammeter will indicate the charging rate of the battery. As equipment is turned on the ammeter will indicate the total amp draw of all loads on the electrical system, including the battery.

108
Q

What function does the voltage regulator have?

A

It controls the rate of charge to the battery by stabilizing the alternator output. The voltage output is usually slightly higher than the battery voltage. For example, a 12 volt battery is fed by an alternator regulated at 14 volts.

109
Q

Does the aircraft have an external power source receptacle, and if so where is it located?

A

[RESEARCH]

110
Q

What type of ignition system does the Piper have?

A

a. two engine driven magnetos
b. two spark plugs per cylinder

Once the engine is started the magnetos provide power to the spark plugs independently of the battery.

111
Q

What are two main advantages of a dual ignition system?

A

a. increased safety - if one magneto system fails the engine may be operated on the other until landing.
b. better engine performance due to more complete and even combustion of the mixture.

112
Q

How does the aircraft cabin heat work?

A

Fresh air, heated by an exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin through ducting.

113
Q

How does the pilot control temperature in the cabin?

A

by mixing outside air with heated air in a manifold near the firewall. The temp control is located on the right side of the instrument panel.

114
Q

What are several types of oxygen systems in use?

A

a. Diluter-demand
b. pressure-demand
c. continuous flow

115
Q

Can any kind of oxygen be used for aviator’s breathing oxygen?

A

No. standard medical purpose oxygen should not be used because it may contain too much water. The water could condense and freeze in the oxygen lines when flying at high altitude.

116
Q

How does a continuous-flow oxygen system operate?

A

these systems are usually provided for passengers. The mask has a bag which collects oxygen from the continuous flow system when the user is exhaling. Ambient air is added to the supplied oxygen during inhalation after the reservoir bag oxygen supply is depleted. Exhaled air is released into the cabin.

117
Q

How does a pressure demand oxygen system operate?

A

the regulators create an airtight seal on the user and provide a positive pressure application of oxygen to the mask which allows the user’s lungs to be pressurized with oxygen; this makes them safe at altitudes above 40,000 feet.

118
Q

What is a “pressurized” aircraft?

A

In a “pressurized” aircraft, the cabin, flight compartment, and baggage compartments are a sealed unit which is capable of containing air under a pressure higher than outside atmospheric pressure.

119
Q

How does aircraft pressurization work?

A

Air is pumped into the cabin continuously which produces a higher air pressure inside of the cabin than the ambient pressure outside. Air is released from the fuselage by an outflow valve which regulates the cabin pressure.

120
Q

What operational advantages are there in flying pressurized aircraft?

A

a. allows aircraft to fly higher which results in better fuel economy, higher speeds, and better weather avoidance.
b. it prevents rapid changes of cabin altitude which may be uncomfortable or injurious to passengers and crew.
c. it permits a reasonably fast exchange of air from inside to outside of the cabin, which helps eliminate odors and to remove stale air.

121
Q

Describe a typical cabin pressure control system.

A

the cabin pressure control system provides cabin pressure regulation, pressure relief, vacuum relief, and the ability to select the desired cabin altitude. It also allows for dumping of the cabin pressure.

122
Q

What are the components of a cabin pressure control system?

A

a. cabin pressure regulator - controls cabin pressure to a selected value and limits the pressure to a preset differential value.
b. cabin air pressure safety valve - a combination pressure relief, vacuum relief, and dump valve
The pressure relief valve prevents cabin pressure from exceeding a predetermined differential pressure above ambient pressure. The vacuum relief valve prevents ambient pressure from exceeding cabin pressure by allowing external air to enter the cabin when the ambient pressure exceeds cabin pressure. The dump valve is actuated by a cockpit control which will equalize cabin and outside pressure.
c. instrumentation - cabin pressure differential gauge, cabin altimeter, cabin rate of climb.

123
Q

What is the difference between a deice system and an anti-ice system?

A

deice system is used to eliminate ice that has already formed. Anti-ice system is used to prevent the formation of ice.

124
Q

What type of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of airframe ice?

A

a. pneumatic - a deice system. Consists of inflatable boots on the leading edges of the wings and tail to breakup the ice.
b. hot air - an anti-ice system. Hot air is directed from the engine (compressor) to the leading edges of the wing.

125
Q

What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of propeller ice?

A

a. electrically heated boots - uses heating elements bonded to the prop to melt the ice, then it is thrown off by centrifugal force.
b. fluid system - used a electrically driven pump which, when activated, supplies a fluid, such as alcohol, to the propeller spinner which distributes the fluid by centrifugal force.

126
Q

What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of windshield ice?

A

a. fluid - pump sprays alcohol onto the windshield to prevent the formation of ice.
b. electrical - heating elements embedded in the windshield heat it preventing the formation of ice.

127
Q

What function does the avionics power switch have?

A

it controls power from the primary bus to the avionics bus. Allows the ability to isolate the avionics from the power. Also, if a overload occurs, the switch will act like a circuit breaker.

128
Q

What are static discharger?

A

wire wicks mounted on the trailing edges of the control surfaces to reduce radio receiver interference caused by corona discharge.

129
Q

Within what frequency band does the VOR receiver operate?

A

108.0 - 117.95 MHz

130
Q

Within what frequency band does the Comm transceivers operate?

A

118.0 - 136.975 MHz

Commercial Pilot Oral Exam (10 decks)

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