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CRJ-200 IAI and limitations > CRJ-200 Systems and Limitations > Flashcards

CRJ-200 Systems and Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

What is the APU exhaust danger area?

A

15 ft

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2
Q

What is the hazard area in front of the engine at IDLE thrust?

A

12 ft

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3
Q

What is the hazard area in front of the engine at FULL thrust?

A

25 ft (Leading edge of the wings)

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4
Q

What is the maximum weight and number of passengers allowed on the passenger door stairs?

A

4 passengers or 1000 lbs

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5
Q

Which areas of the CRJ-200 are pressurized?

A

The flight deck, passenger cabin, cargo area and avionics bay are all pressurized. The aft equipment bay and the forward nose compartment are NOT.

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6
Q

What is the difference between the APU starting on the ground vs in the air?

A

In the air you need to press the APU PWR/FUEL and START/STOP buttons quickly, one after the other.

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7
Q

What is the minimum voltage required to start the APU and where could you check this?

A

22 volts. You can check this on the DC Electric synoptic page.

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8
Q

How many batteries are required to start the APU?

A

Both the MAIN battery and the APU battery are required for APU start.

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9
Q

How could you start the APU if the MAIN or APU batteries were at less than 22 volts?

A

External AC or DC power.

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10
Q

What occurs when the APU PWR/FUEL Switchlight is selected?

A
  • The APU performs a Bite Test
  • RPM and EGT gauges appear on status page
  • APU intake door opens
  • APU shut-off valve opens
  • APU/XFLOW fuel pump turns on
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11
Q

What happens when you press the START/STOP switchlight during an APU start?

A
  • Energizes the starter motor
  • Fuel and ignition introduced at 4% RPM
  • ECU de-energizes the starter motor at 50% RPM
  • Ignition is de-energized at 99% + 4 seconds
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12
Q

What happens when you select the START/STOP switchlight during an APU shut down?

A
  • Fuel shut-off valve closes
  • APU shuts down
  • Intake door closes
  • ECU initiates a 60 second Bite Test
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13
Q

How long should you wait after shutting down the APU before attempting a re-start? How would you know the waiting period is over?

A

You should wait 2 minutes. You know 2 minutes has passed when the EGT and RPM gauges disappear.

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14
Q

From where does the APU get its fuel?

A

From the left and right wing tanks

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15
Q

Which pump provides pressurized fuel to the APU?

A

The APU/XFLOW fuel pump

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16
Q

If the APU/XFLOW fuel pump failed, how would the APU be able to continue running?

A

APU Negative Gravity Release Valve.

It delivers fuel from the right main fuel manifold any time the pressure is greater than that of the pressure in the APU fuel manifold.

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17
Q

What does the green AVAIL light indicate on the APU START/STOP push button?

A

Bleed air is available for loading

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18
Q

After starting the APU, how long should you wait before applying bleed air loading?

A

To prolong APU life, you should wait 2 minutes prior to using the bleed air.

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19
Q

From where does the APU receive intake air, and where is it located?

A

From the APU Intake Door.
It’s located on top of the fuselage, forward of the tail.

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20
Q

How is the APU’s titanium compartment cooled?

A

It is ventilated by discharged air from the oil cooler which is then discharged into the atmosphere through an exhaust eductor.

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21
Q

Name four times the APU will shut down in the air?

A

1.) Fire Detected

2.) Overspeed (RPM >107%)

3.) ECU Failure

4.) DC Power loss

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22
Q

Which APU indication is ALWAYS shown on the Status page?

A

Intake door position

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23
Q

Which factors influence APU door position in flight?

A
  • True Airspeed
  • Altitude
  • Weight on Wheels
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24
Q

What is the difference between how the APU fire detection system reacts in the AIR vs on the GROUND?

A

In the AIR the APU will shut down automatically, but the crew must manually deploy the fire bottle.

On the GROUND the APU will shut down and blow the fire bottle automatically after 5 seconds.

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25
Q

Name all of the ways that the APU can be shut down from outside the aircraft.

A

There are two external shut-off switches.

  • One on the AC External Services Panel
  • One in the Aft Equipment Bay
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26
Q

Why is there a WARNING message for when the passenger door is open or unsafe, and a CAUTION message for all other doors?

A

Because the passenger door is the only non-plug type door on the airplane.

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27
Q

Which two doors can you NOT find on the Doors synoptic page?

A
  • Crew Escape Hatch
  • Aft Equipment Bay
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28
Q

What has been built into the Flight Deck door to protect against a rapid decompression?

A

A Decompression Panel

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29
Q

What should not be operated during power system switching?

A

The Door Assist Mechanism on the passenger door.

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30
Q

Which Lights come on when selecting the L or R Landing lights?

A

The Left Landing Light switch controls the left landing light AND the left taxi/recognition light.

The Right Landing Light switch controls the right landing light AND the right taxi/recognition light.

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31
Q

When does the Flight Data Recorder start recording?

A
  • Beacon on
  • Strobes on
  • Weight-Off-Wheels
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32
Q

Which lights does the DC SERVICE switch operate?

A
  • Nav lights
  • Some cabin lights
  • Lavatory lights
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33
Q

How would you initiate a successful TCAS test?

A

On the Display Control Panel - Press TFC Button

Select TCAS on RTU - Select TEST

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34
Q

How would you initiate a successful EGPWS test?

A

Select the EGPWS test switchlight on the glareshield

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35
Q

What would be the aircraft’s warnings and indication during a TCAS advisory?

A

“Traffic” aural alert and vertical escape guidance on the VSI

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36
Q

What is the difference between a WINDSHEAR warning and a WINDSHEAR caution message?

A

During a WINDSHEAR warning, the Autopilot will disengage and escape guidance will be given by the Flight Director.

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37
Q

Why would you see the message RADAR NOT AT THIS RANGE on your MFD?

A

When the aircraft only has one radar control panel, or one of the two panels is turned off in a dual-panel configuration.

The pilot without control of the radar will see this message unless they match the range of the pilot with control.

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38
Q

Where would you look to make sure your navigation and SCID number were correct?

A

On the STATUS page

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39
Q

Which steps would be included in FMS initialization?

A

Start with the STATUS page, then work your way from bottom to top. FMS, GPS, VOR, IRS, POS INIT.

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40
Q

Which FMS pages would be included in performing an FMS ‘J’ pattern?

A

FPLN, DEP/ARR, LEGS, PERF, MFD MENU, RADIO

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41
Q

How would you enter a hold into the FMS?

A

The HOLD page

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42
Q

What is the necessary PF/PM configuration that should be set on the MFD MENU page?

A

Select-
- ALTITUDE
- SPEED
- RANGE ALT SEL

Set the PF’s window to VNAV
Set the PM’s window to ON

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43
Q

Where are the fire extinguishers located in the plane?

A

Configurations vary

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44
Q

Where are the PBEs located in the plane?

A

Configurations vary

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45
Q

How long will the PBE supply an adequate air supply?

A

Approximately 15 minutes

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46
Q

How do you know if the crew oxygen has over-pressurized?

A

The green disk on the right side of the aircraft will be MISSING.

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47
Q

How can the passenger oxygen masks be dropped manually / automatically?

A

Manually: By pressing the PASS OXY switchlight

Automatically: If the cabin altitude reaches 14,000’

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48
Q

What will be lost following an ADC failure?

A
  • IAS
  • Altitude
  • Vertical Speed
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49
Q

What reversion is possible following an ADC failure?

A

Both pilots can receive information from the functioning ADC using the Source Select Panel

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50
Q

What would be lost following an IRS / AHRS failure?

A

Attitude and Heading information

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51
Q

What reversion is possible following an IRS / AHRS failure?

A

Using the QRH

Both pilots can receive information from the functioning IRS / AHRS using the Source Select Panel.

The Autopilot is no longer available.

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52
Q

How do you set the V-Speeds

A

Using the Air Data Reference Panel

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53
Q

What does an EFIS COMP MON caution message represent?

A

Each PFD performs its own software monitoring and continuously compares its information with the data presented on the other PFD.

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54
Q

At what altitude is the Radio Altitude no longer displayed?

A

2500’ RA

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55
Q

Name four aircraft systems that receive inputs from the Pitot / Static System

A
  • ADC 1 & 2
  • Stall protection system
  • Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module (CPAM)
  • Standby Air Data System (ADS)
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56
Q

What reversion is possible following a PFD failure?

A

Using the QRH - The PFD can be transferred manually onto the MFD

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57
Q

How long will your standby instruments function following a complete loss of all AC and DC power?

A

Old Style - 9 minutes

New Version (ISIS) - 30 minutes

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58
Q

Which approaches can be flown using the Standby Gauges or Integrated Standby Instrument System (ISIS)

A

ILS or Localizer

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59
Q

What would cause the PFD to declutter?

A

Pitch angle exceeds +30 or -20 degrees

Roll angle exceeds 65 degrees

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60
Q

What color needles would you need to fly a GPS approach?

A

White

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61
Q

What color needles would you need to fly an ILS approach?

A

Green

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62
Q

What color needles would you need to fly an approach using cross-sided data?

A

Yellow

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63
Q

Which flight controls are activated through mechanical linkage?

A
  • Ailerons
  • Rudder
  • Elevators
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64
Q

Which flight controls are actuated through fly-by-wire commands?

A
  • Flaps
  • Spoilers
  • Ground Lift Dumping
  • All Trims
  • Nose-Wheel Steering
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65
Q

If all hydraulics aboard the aircraft were lost, which flight controls would you be left with?

A

Only the Stab Trim and Flaps

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66
Q

What is a PCU and what does it do?

A

Power Control Unit

It takes and receives mechanical or fly-by wire input and actuates the flight control using hydraulic power.

If there is no hydraulic power, they will not work.

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67
Q

Why is there not a PCU runaway procedure for the Elevator or Rudder?

A

Because they have 3 PCUs each. A failed PCU will be held in check by the remaining 2 PCUs.

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68
Q

What would be the pilot’s indication of a runaway aileron PCU?

A

A runaway PCU would roll the aircraft.

The ‘Roll” switchlight will illuminate on the side that is functioning properly.

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69
Q

What would be the pilot’s indication of an aileron jam?

A

A jam will not have any flight deck indications.

No roll will be detected.

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70
Q

How can you isolate a jammed aileron?

A

By pulling the ROLL disconnect handle, the jammed aileron is isolated.

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71
Q

How can you isolate a jammed elevator?

A

By pulling the PITCH disconnect handle, the jammed elevator is isolated.

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72
Q

What will occur about 20 seconds after pulling the ROLL DISC handle?

A

The SPOILERON ROLL caution message will appear.

The ROLL CMD amber switch-light will illuminate on both sides of the glare-shield.

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73
Q

What occurs after pressing the ROLL CMD switch-light?

A

The pilot gains respective on-side spoileron control.

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74
Q

Does moving the control column move the horizontal stabilizer?

A

No, it only moves the elevator.

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75
Q

When will the airplane automatically apply Stab Trim?

A
  • Auto-pilot trim
  • Auto-trim
  • Mach trim
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76
Q

How many PDUs operate the flaps and how are they powered?

A

2 PDUs

Powered by electric motors

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77
Q

What does the status message FLAPS HALFSPEED mean?

A
  • Failure of one PDU
    or
  • Failure of one flap channel of the FECU

Flaps will now move at half speed

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78
Q

What would result from an asymmetrical flap deployment / retraction?

A
  • The flap brakes would be permanently applied.
  • Power will be removed from the PDUs

This would result in a FLAPS FAIL message.
The flaps could not be actuated further.

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79
Q

What are all of the stall warnings and indications you would receive?

A
  • Continuous Ignition
  • Stall Shaker
  • Stall Pusher
  • Stall Warbler
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80
Q

If the Stick Pusher malfunctions or inadvertently pushes, what could you do?

A
  • Pressing and holding the AP DISC switch
  • Then disable them by selecting either of the STALL PTCT PUSHER switch to off.
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81
Q

Name all of the 10th Stage bleed air sources

A
  • Engine’s 10th stage
  • APU
  • External Air
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82
Q

Name the aircraft functions that use 10th Stage bleed air

A
  • Air Conditioning
  • Pressurization
  • Engine Starting
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83
Q

Name all of the 14th Stage bleed air sources

A

Engine’s 14th Stage

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84
Q

Name the aircraft functions that use 14th Stage bleed air

A
  • Anti-Ice
  • Thrust Reversers
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85
Q

Which pneumatic valves automatically open and close during engine start?

A
  • L & R 10th Stage valves
  • Isolation valve
  • The respective engine’s ATS

All happens automatically

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86
Q

What does a BLEED MISCONFIG caution mean? When does it appear?

A

The engine bleeds are being used to supply both ECS and anti-ice at the same time, with the gear down or flaps not at 0.

Doing this dramatically reduces the engine’s thrust, so this is prohibited in critical phases of flight.

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87
Q

During which phases of flight can you use the engines to supply both 10th stage and 14th stage bleed air?

A

During Cruise Flight

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88
Q

What protection does the APU have to prevent backflow of bleed air from the engines?

A

A check valve in the APU bleed air duct prevents air from entering the APU compressor.

The APU LCV interlock provides a second level of protection by interlocking the APU LVC with the 10th stage bleed switch-lights.

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89
Q

How many loops provide leak detection for the 10th and 14th stage pneumatic ducting?

A
  • 10th Stage: 2 loops
  • 14th Stage: 1 loop
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90
Q

Which pneumatic valves will close following the selection of either ENG FIR PUSH switch-light?

A

Both the 10th and 14th stage SOVs will close initially.

The 10th Stage SOVs will remain closed

The 14th Stage SOVs will re-open because these bleed valves “fail-safe” open.

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91
Q

Which indications would you receive following an engine fire?

A
  • Master Warning
  • L/R ENGINE FIRE PUSH switch-light illuminates
  • L/R ENGINE FIRE displayed on EICAS
  • Fire Bell
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92
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles exist on the aircraft?

A

6

  • 2 for the Engines
  • 2 in the Cargo Area
  • 1 for the APU
  • 1 for the Lavatory
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93
Q

What are the benefits of a 2-loop system?

A
  • Greater reliability
  • Reduces the number of false indications
  • Dispatch ability
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94
Q

What occurs when you press either ENG FIRE PUSH switch-light?

A
  • Fuel SOV closes
  • Bleed Air SOV closes
  • Hydraulic SOV closes
  • Engine’s Generator shuts off
  • Squibs are ARMED
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95
Q

Why is it important to check for an APU FIRE FAIL caution message prior to conducting the fire test?

A

So you don’t inadvertently fire the APU’s bottle.

This could happen due to the APU’s automatic fire protection while on the ground.

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96
Q

An engine fire occurs after you have terminated the aircraft. Do you have to reconnect AC power in order to actuate the ENG FIR PUSH switch-lights?

A

No, all of the aircraft’s FIRE SOV’s and bottles are connected to the DC EMER BUS which is a hot bus (always powered)

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97
Q

Would you still be able to detect a fire after receiving an APU, L (R) ENG FIRE FAIL caution message?

A

It depends on whether the L (R) ENG / APU FIRE FAIL has been caused by a single-false fire or a double fault.

If you are receiving the FIRE FAIL message because of a single-false fire, you would still receive an indication.

It caused by a double fault, you would not receive the message.

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98
Q

What occurs automatically when either cargo smoke detector detects smoke?

A
  • Intake SOV closes
  • Exhaust SOV closes
  • Heater shuts down

This is all done automatically

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99
Q

Describe how the cargo bottles function.

A

Dual bottles

One discharges quickly, the other discharges slowly

Both bottles are armed when either Normal or Standby CARGO SMOKE PUSH switch-lights are selected.

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100
Q

How do you verify that the autopilot has engaged?

A

Green AP on the FMA with the arrow pointing towards the coupled side.

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101
Q

What is the difference between IAS and CLB/DES Speed sub-modes?

A

In IAS mode, climb or descent is not protected, the aircraft will pitch however it needs to in order to maintain speed.

In CLB/DES mode, the aircraft will guarantee a minimum climb / descent rate of 50 ft per minute until the desired IAS is obtained.

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102
Q

If you select a new altitude after the FMA is flashing ‘ALTS CAP’, which altitude will be captured?

A

The original altitude will be captured

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103
Q

What happens when you select TOGA on the ground?

A
  • TO/TO Modes appear in the FMA
  • Runway position is updated
  • Generates a 12 degree pitch-up command
  • Turns on both Flight Directors
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104
Q

What happens when you select TOGA in the air?

A
  • GA/GA Modes appear in the FMA
  • A/P disengages
  • Sequences the FMS to Missed Approach
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105
Q

After takeoff, you command “Gear Up, Speed Mode”, which vertical mode is displayed on the FMA.

A

CLB

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106
Q

What happens if you accidentally push the HDG button twice?

A

You will introduce ROLL mode (You have de-selected the active horizontal mode)

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107
Q

What does the XFR switch on the FCP do?

A

Allows pilots to select active Flight Director

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108
Q

What overspeed protections are provided in either Pitch or VS mode?

A

When the aircraft exceeds the over-speed tape by 5 knots, the over-speed clacker will sound and the vertical mode will revert to IAS mode and pitch for VMO/MMO -5 knots.

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109
Q

What over-speed protections are provided in ALTS or ALT mode?

A

None

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110
Q

What does TURB mode do? How can you tell if it has engaged?

A

Dampens the autopilot’s response to displacement.

The two lights beside TURB button illuminate

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111
Q

What does Half-Bank mode do?

A

Reduces the aircraft’s bank from 30 to 15 degrees of bank.

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112
Q

When must Half-Bank be manually selected on?

A

When the airspeed is less than V2 + 10

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113
Q

When will Half-Bank be automatically selected?

A

31,600 feet ASL

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114
Q

What are the four steps used to climb or descend in speed mode?

A

ALT - Pre-select altitude
SPEED - Select Speed Mode
THRUST - Add / Reduce Thrust as necessary
ADJUST - Adjust the speed bug to desired speed

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115
Q

What is the proper sequence for switching between FMS (White Needles) and Approach Navigation (Green Needles)?

A

White Needles - HDG Mode - Green Needles

Always make sure HDG mode is the active mode when changing the NAV SOURCE

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116
Q

When would you select APPR?

A

When cleared for an ILS approach with a functioning glide slope

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117
Q

Which approaches require NAV to be in the active mode?

A

LOC, RNAV and VOR approaches

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118
Q

Why should you never trust the lights on the FCP as an indication of active / standby modes?

A

They do not indicate active modes, they only communicate that BOTH FCC’s are serviceable.

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119
Q

Name all of the ways the COMM and NAV radios may be tuned

A

FMS
RTU
BTU

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120
Q

When you first tune a frequency with the RTU, you observe a PRE indication. Following tuning you receive a RECALL indication. What do these two indications mean?

A

PRE - Frequency was changed with the tuning knobs

RECALL- Frequency was swapped with the active

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121
Q

What is the result of selecting EMER/NORM on the ACP?

A

The ACP will be hard-wired to the onside COM / NAV

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122
Q

What is DME hold, and how would you use it?

A

Allows you to hold DME from a station. Tune in the station, press ‘DME hold’, then select approach frequency.

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123
Q

Following an RTU failure, what will the pressing of the RTU 1(2) INHIB accomplish?

A

This enables cross-side tuning after an RTU has failed

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124
Q

Which switches should be selected when making a PA announcement?

A

1.) Select PA on the ACP
2.) Select PA on the Intercom Control Panel
3.) Press any Push-to-Talk

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125
Q

Which switches should be selected when calling the Flight Attendant?

A

1.) Select PA on the ACP
2.) Select Call or EMER on the Intercom Control Panel
3.) Enable hot mic

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126
Q

Name the indications associated with pressing the EMER switch-light on the Intercom Control Panel

A
  • EMER switch-light flashes amber and a high-low chime sounds
  • Red light flashes on the mid cabin overhead exit sign
  • Amber light flashes on the Flight Attendant handset cradle
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127
Q

Which radios would remain operative on battery power only? How would you tune them?

A

Com 1 / Nav 1

Tuned with the BTU

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128
Q

When does the Cockpit Voice Recorder begin recording?

A

Battery Master ON

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129
Q

List all of the potential AC Power sources

A
  • Left and Right main generators
  • Auxiliary Power Unit
  • Air Driven Generator
  • Ground Power Unit
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130
Q

What would cause the Integrated Drive Generators (IDG) to disconnect?

A
  • Oil temperature exceeds 179° Celsius in the Constant Speed Drive (CSD)
  • Over-torque condition exists, shearing the IDG drive shaft.
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131
Q

Following disconnect, can an Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) be reconnected in flight?

A

No, the IDG can only be reconnected on the ground with the engine shut down.

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132
Q

Which situations would cause the Generator Control Unit (GCU) to perform a protective shutdown of the generator?

A

The engine or APU generator output is tripped off and removed from the bus system for any of the following conditions:
- Over/Under Voltage
- Over/Under Frequency
- Generator or Bus Undercurrent

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133
Q

What does the AVAIL indication on the AC EXT power switch-light indicate?

A

External AC power is connected to the external power receptacle and the power is acceptable.

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134
Q

What is the power source priority for AC BUS 1(2)?

A

AC Bus 1 Priority:
GEN1 / APU / GEN2 / External

AC Bus 2 Priority:
Gen2 / APU / Gen1 / External

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135
Q

What does the AUTO XFER FAIL light indicate?

A

AC Bus 1 or AC Bus 2 has failed

AUTO XFER prevents the failed bus from transferring to the APU and cross-side generator.

If the Generator Control Unit (GCU) also detects an overload situation (>37 kVA) then the generator is tripped off line.

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136
Q

The AC ESS XFER switch-light has illuminated, what does this mean?

A

AC ESS Bus is NOT being powered by the AC BUS 1

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137
Q

When will the AC Utility buses shed on the GROUND?

A

Doors closed, single generator, flaps not at zero

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138
Q

When will the AC Utility buses shed in the AIR?

A

Single Generator

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139
Q

What will cause the ADG to automatically deploy?

A

Weight-Off-Wheels
and
Loss of all AC Power (Both AC Bus 1 and 2 are un-powered and all three generators are inoperative)

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140
Q

Which buses will be powered following ADG deployment?

A
  • AC ESS Bus
  • ESS TRU 1
  • DC ESS Bus
  • Battery Bus
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141
Q

Why does the EMER PWR ONLY checklist ask you if the engines are running?

A

The symptoms of an AC Electrical Failure look similar to those of a dual engine failure.

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142
Q

What does the ADG PWR TXFR OVERRIDE switch do?

A

Pressing the ADG PWR TXFR returns the aircraft’s electrical and hydraulic logic back to normal.

(AC Essential Bus returns to AC Bus 1, HYD 3B returns to switch-position logic)

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143
Q

List all of the potential DC power sources

A
  • 24 Volt Batteries
  • DC External Power
  • 5 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU)
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144
Q

When will the DC EMER Bus appear on the DC Electrical page?

A

DC EMER Bus has failed or when one or both of it’s sources has failed or is not powered.

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145
Q

What does the DC SERVICE switch on the Electrical Power Services Panel do>

A

Connects the DC SERV BUS to the APU BATT DIR BUS to power Nav and some cabin lights

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146
Q

What would you lose following a DC EMER Bus failure?

A

Fire Protection

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147
Q

Which hydraulic system provides pressure for normal extension / retraction of the main landing gear?

A

Hydraulic System 3

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148
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the nose gear door?

A

Hydraulic System 3

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149
Q

How is the landing gear held in the up and locked position?

A

They are held in the up position through mechanical up-locks.

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150
Q

How is the landing gear held in the down and locked position?

A

They are held in position through mechanical down locks.

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151
Q

If you were to lose Hydraulic System 3, describe how you would lower the gear.

A

Refer to QRH

Using the Landing Gear Manual Release Handle

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152
Q

Why is it necessary to pull MANUAL RELEASE handle to the full up position during manual extension?

A

If not pulled to the full-up position, the camlock on the Nose-Wheel Door, Nose-Gear and MLG up-locks will not all release.

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153
Q

What does the main landing gear auxiliary actuator do?

A

Assist the main landing gear to the down and locked position

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154
Q

Will the Main Landing Gear (MLG) be fully enclosed following retraction?

A

No, there are no MLG doors that fully enclose the Main Landing Gear.

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155
Q

What is the purpose of the Main Landing Gear brush seals?

A

Provides and aerodynamic seal around the gear.

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156
Q

When can the landing gear horn be muted?

A

Essentially, the LDG Horn may only be muted during single engine takeoff and go-around.

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157
Q

What must you ensure prior to the anti-skid test?

A

Parking Brake needs to be off prior to doing the test

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158
Q

When is the anti-skid active on the ground?

A

Active once a 35-knot wheel spin-up signal is present or Weight-On-Wheels is present after 5 second delay.

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159
Q

What elements should be included during a pre-flight inspection of the MLG?

A

-Tire Condition
- Strut Extension
- Brake Wear
- No Fluid Leaks

160
Q

What are the Green, White and Red ranges of the BTMS indicators?

A

Green 0-05
White 06-11
Red 12-20

161
Q

How many degrees Celsius per BTMS unit?

A

35° Celsius

162
Q

The BTMS units read 1, but they are red, why might that be?

A

There was an over-heat in the aircraft’s history and the BTMS indicators were not reset.

163
Q

What creates Motive Flow?

A

Motive Flow is created by the Engine Driven Fuel Pumps

164
Q

How is the fuel transferred from the Center Tank to the Main Wing Tanks?

A

Fuel moves from the Center tank to the Main Wing Tanks using the Transfer Ejectors and Transfer SOV.

This process begins when the Wing Tank falls below 93% and stops when the Wing Tanks are full.

165
Q

How does the fuel move from the Main Wing Tanks to the engines?

A

From the Wing Tanks, fuel moves to Collector Tanks via gravity and Scavenger Ejectors.

Fuel moves from the Collector Tanks to the engines via the Main Ejectors backed up by the Fuel Boost Pump.

166
Q

As part of the checklist, prior to starting the engines, you reach up and select the L Fuel Boost Pump. You then observe that “ON” indications have illuminated in both pump switches (without selecting R Fuel Boost Pump). What is going on? Why did this happen?

A

Selecting the Fuel Boost Pumps in “arms the fuel pumps to look for low pressure”, it does not turn them on.

Once armed, if either Fuel Boost Pump finds low pressure on its respective side, both fuel boost pumps turn on together.

167
Q

Why are the pressure refueling limits higher than the gravity refueling limits?

A

Because the gravity fuel caps are located below the highest part of the wing tank.

168
Q

Describe the automatic power crossflow process.

A

The crossflow process starts when one wing tank is below the other wing tank by 200 pounds.

It turns off when the originally low tank exceeds the other tank by 50 pounds.

169
Q

How would you manually crossflow fuel should the automatic crossflow fail?

A

By selecting XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE switch-light and then selecting the crossflow SOV on the low-fuel side.

Push the side to where you want the fuel to go!

170
Q

Why do you have to be especially careful during manual crossflow?

A

There is no automatic protection available.

This could create an imbalance through continuous use

171
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance limit?

Which message would you receive if that limitation were exceeded?

A

800 pounds maximum fuel imbalance

Fuel Imbalance Caution Message

172
Q

What indications would you receive if the Refuel / Defuel computer was left on after refueling?

A

AUTO XFLOW INHIB Status Message

173
Q

The fuel stored in the wing could be as cold as -30°C. Per limitation, fuel entering the engine can’t be lower than 5°C, how are we able to meet this limitation?

A

The Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger warms the fuel prior to entering the engine fuel metering unit.

174
Q

What is an MLI and why would we use them?

A

Magnetic Level Indicator

Serve as the manual method of checking the fuel using the two accelerometers located in the flight deck (to determine lateral and horizontal axis tilt when on the ground)

175
Q

What prevents fuel from flowing to the outside of the lower wing during turns?

A

One-way flow valves (flapper-valves).

176
Q

What creates positive pressure in the wing fuel tanks?

A

NACA vents

177
Q

It’s the first flight of the day, how would you conduct a Fuel Feed Check Valve test? What indications are you looking for?

A

De-Select both fuel pump switches.

Looking for R FUEL LO PRESS

178
Q

What is different about the first five stages of the N2 Compressor section?

A

The first five stages incorporate Variable Geometry Inlet Guide Vanes and Stator Vanes.

179
Q

Which components are located on the accessory gear box?

A
  • Engine Lubrication Pumps
  • Integral Oil Reservoir
  • Alternator (Powers N1 Control Amplifier)
  • Engine-Driven Hydraulic Pump (EDP)
  • Engine Fuel Pump Assembly and FCU
  • Integrated Drive Generator (IDG)
  • Mounted on the gearbox is the Air Turbine Starter (ATS)
180
Q

From which compressor stages do we receive bleed air?

A

10th:
- Pressurization
- Air Conditioning
- Engine Starting

14th:
- Thrust Reversers
- Anti-Ice

181
Q

How many igniters exist in the combustion section, and what are their power sources?

A

Two

Ignition A - AC Essential Bus

Ignition B - Battery Bus

182
Q

How can the Battery Bus be the power source for Ignition B when both igniters use AC Power?

A

It passes through a Static Inverter (Converts DC to AC)

183
Q

What happens when Continuous Ignition is selected?

A

Both ignition A and B are energized.

184
Q

When is Continuous Ignition required?

A
  • T/O & L on contaminated runways
  • T/O & L with high X-Wind component
  • Flight through mod+ rain
  • Flight through mod+ turbulence
  • Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms
185
Q

Where is the probe located that gives us Inter-Turbine Temperature (ITT) information?

A

The ITT probe is in between the hi pressure and low pressure turbine.

186
Q

What is meant when we say the N1 Control Amplifier “trims” the fuel above 79% N1?

A

Above 79% N1, the N1 Control Amplifier withholds whatever fuel is necessary in order to achieve the desired N1 set by the pilots.

187
Q

How does the N1 Control Amplifier trim the fuel?

A

This is done electronically through the Fuel Control Unit

188
Q

What would be lost if the Engine Speed switches were turned off?

A
  • APR
  • Engine Sync
  • Overspeed Protection
189
Q

What is APR and what does it do?

A

Automatic Performance Reserve (APR) provides 9220lbs of thrust when activated.

190
Q

What is required for the APR system to ARM?

A
  • APR ARM switch set to ARM
  • Both ENG SPEED switches set to ON
  • Weight on Wheels
  • Both N1 rpms are greater than 79%
  • Two DCUs must be serviceable
191
Q

When will the APR system activate? What are the indications?

A

APR Activates when the N1 on either engine decreases below 67.6%

A green APR icon in N1 gauge appears

192
Q

How long will the APR arm and operate if activated

A

5 minutes after being armed

193
Q

Is APR available during a go-around?

A

No, only within the first five minutes after T/O

194
Q

What makes up for APR not being available during a Go-Around?

A

Go-Around Thrust

195
Q

You receive a HOT indication on your ITT gauge during start, what does this mean?

A

The HOT icon indicates a Hot Start
>500°C and rising rapidly

196
Q

Is it possible to have a hot start and not receive a HOT indication?

A

Yes, if the temperature isn’t rising rapidly enough

197
Q

What needs to happen before we can deploy the thrust reversers? How do we deploy them?

A

Thrust reversers must be armed and the thrust levers at idle. Press on the triggers and pull up on the thrust reverser levers.

198
Q

What is the function of the Auto-Throttle Retard (ATR) system?

A

The ATR system pulls the thrust levers to idle in the event of an inadvertent deployment of a Thrust Reverser.

199
Q

What happens when you press the THRUST REVERSER EMER STOW push buttons?

A

Uses 14th stage bleed air to stow the unlocked reverser.

200
Q

List the EICAS message colors and order of priority

A

Warning - Red
Caution - Amber
Advisory - Green
Status - White

Most recent message on top

201
Q

Define Warning Message. Can they be boxed?

A

Require Immediate Action

Can NOT be boxed

202
Q

Define Caution Message. Can they be boxed?

A

Require prompt corrective action

Can be boxed ONLY when both engines are stabilized at idle

203
Q

Define Advisory message. Can they be boxed?

A
  • Advise of safe-aircraft condition
  • Successful system test
  • Confirmation of SOV closure
  • SELCAL

Can NOT be boxed

204
Q

Define Status message. Can they be boxed?

A
  • Status of system that has been manually or automatically activated.
  • Low-priority system failure

CAN be boxed

205
Q

How will a crew member respond to a Warning or Caution message?

A

PM will reset the Master Warning/Caution and call out the EICAS message.

PF will will then direct PM to the appropriate checklist, while selecting the applicable synoptic page.

PF takes control of the radios

206
Q

What happens if ED1 fails in flight?

A

The Primary Page will automatically transfer to ED2

207
Q

How can you display EICAS messages on the MFD?

A

Select EICAS using the Display Reversionary Selector

208
Q

If the MFD fails, can you display it on another screen?

A

No

209
Q

When will the FAN VIB gauges display?

A

When both engines are running and oil pressure is normal.

The oil pressure gauges are replaced by the N1 Vibration gauges.

210
Q

Which indications are not always displayed on the EICAS displays?

A
  • Landing gear
  • Flaps
  • BTMS
  • APU gauges
  • Manual pressurization readouts
  • Analog oil pressure indications
211
Q

Following an EICAS Control Panel (ECP) failure, which buttons remain operative?

A
  • PRI
  • STAT
  • CAS
  • STEP
212
Q

List everything that might give you a T/O Config warning

A
  • Flaps
  • Flight spoilers
  • Parking brake
  • Autopilot
  • All Trims
213
Q

Would you receive a GEN 1 OVLD caution message during the T/O roll?

A

No, a GEN 1 OVLD is inhibited during conditions 1, 2, and 3

214
Q

When would you receive a GEN 1 OVLD caution message after takeoff?

A

When the inhibited conditions no longer exist

215
Q

Would you receive a STALL FAIL caution message during the T/O roll?

A

Yes, STALL FAIL is not inhibited

216
Q

Would you receive a PASSENGER DOOR warning message while landing?

A

No, the PASSENGER DOOR warning is inhibited in conditions 2, 3.

217
Q

When would you receive a PASSENGER DOOR warning message after landing?

A

Condition 3 is removed 30 seconds after air to ground transition, or radio altitude is >400ft AGL for 3 seconds (go-around)

218
Q

What is the difference between automatic and manual temperature control?

A

Automatic - The dual bypass valves are controlled automatically by the temperature controllers.

Manual - The dual bypass valves are directly controlled by the manual toggle switches.

Extreme caution should be exercised when operating in manual mode as the protections of automatic mode are removed.

219
Q

Which malfunctions would cause the PACK FAULT switch-light to illuminate?

A

A FAULT indication shows an over-temperature or overpressure condition exists in the PACK.

As a result, the pack will shut down.

220
Q

How is the cargo compartment pressurized and air-conditioned?

A

Recirculated air from the passenger cabin enters the cargo bay.

Or

A mixture of air from the right pack AND recirculated air from the passenger cabin passes through a heater before entering the cargo bay.

221
Q

What occurs automatically following smoke detection in the cargo bay?

A

Intake and exhaust SOV closes automatically

Heater turns off

222
Q

What is the limitation regarding running the CRT displays on DC power only? Why?

A

5 minute time limit. Cooling fans require AC power

223
Q

Describe the process of cooling the ARINC rack?

A

Air enters the AIRINC rack from the passenger cabin exhaust (through a filter), and also from behind the EFIS and EICAS CRT displays.

One fan normally operates in flight, while the second fan operates on the ground.

224
Q

What is the significance of a DISPLAY COOL Caution Message?

A

Low flow sensor has detected a duct blockage or fan failure.

225
Q

When will the Overboard Exhaust Valve close and the Inboard Exhaust Valve open?

A

When the Passenger Door and Service Door are closed.

226
Q

What is the significance of an OVBD COOL Caution Message?

A

The overboard avionics SOV did not close when the passenger and service doors were closed and locked.

This is a NO-Dispatch item

Then Aircraft WILL NOT pressurized with the OVBD COOL message present.

227
Q

How many Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPCs) are there and are they both always active?

A

There are two, one of which is always active.

The other CPC continuously processes all pressurization data in the event of CPC failure.

228
Q

When will the Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPCs) change automatically?

A
  • Whenever one CPC fails

Or

  • Three minutes after landing
229
Q

How could you manually change the Cabin Pressure Controllers?

A

By pressing the PRESS CONT switch-light twice.

230
Q

List everything that would happen, including the indications, after pressing EMER DEPRESS at FL250.

A
  • Opens Outflow Valves

8,500’ CA
- CABIN ALT Caution Message

10,000’ CA
- CABIN ALT Warning Message
- “Cabin Pressure” aural alert
- Passenger signs illuminate (when in auto position)

14,000 CA
- Automatic drop down of the passenger O2 masks

14,250’ +/- 750 CA
- Cabin ALT HOLD

231
Q

If the CPAM should fail, which of the CPAM functions will be lost?

A

You would lose the automatic drop down function of the passenger oxygen masks as well as the illumination of the passenger signs (when in auto position).

232
Q

Following a CPAM failure, what component takes over the functions that have not been lost?

A

The Backup CPC takes over the EICAS messages.

233
Q

What is the maximum cabin altitude allowed by the outflow valves?

A

14,250’ +/- 750’ CA

234
Q

What are the automatic pressurization modes of the CPC?

A
  • Ground Mode
  • Pre-Pressure Mode
  • Takeoff Abort Mode
  • Climb Mode
  • Cruise Mode
  • Descent Mode
  • Landing Mode
235
Q

What is the “safety” function of the Outflow Safety Valves?

A

Should a differential pressure of 8.6 +/- 0.1 psid be sensed, the Outflow Valves will open to relieve the excessive pressure.

Should the pressure become -0.5 psid, the Outflow Valves will automatically open to equalize the pressure.

236
Q

How many hydraulic pumps exist on the CRJ-200?

A

6
- Two Engine Driven Pumps
- Four AC Motor Pumps’s

237
Q

What is the largest hydraulic system?

A

System 3

238
Q

Which components would you lose if you lost Hydraulic System 1?

A
  • Outboard Ground Spoilers
239
Q

Which components would you lose if you lost Hydraulic System 2?

A
  • Inboard Ground Spoilers
  • Main Landing Gear Auxiliary Actuators
  • Outboard Brakes
240
Q

Which components would you lose if you lost Hydraulic System 3?

A
  • Nose Wheel Steering
  • Nose Gear Door
  • Landing Gear (Normal Ex/Ret)
  • Inboard Brakes
241
Q

What effect on the braking system would there be if you were to lose Hydraulic System 3?

A

50% reduction in brake performance

242
Q

How many brake applications would be possible following a combined failure of systems 2 and 3?

A

Six even brake applications

243
Q

When will the Hydraulic Pumps 1B and 2B turn on in the AUTO position?

A

1B requires:
- Power from the AC BUS 2
- Flaps not at 0
- Generator 2 is online

2B requires:
- Power from AC BUS 1
- Flaps not at 0
- Generator 1 is online

244
Q

When will the Hydraulic Pumps 1B and 2B turn on in the ON position?

A

1B requires:
- Power from the AC BUS 2
- Generator 2 is online

2B requires:
- Power from AC BUS 1
- Generator 1 is online

245
Q

Does hydraulic Interlock allow ACMP 1B and 2B to operate on the ground regardless of whether the associated generator is online?

A

Yes, you must have:
- Weight on Wheels
- Switch set to ON

This allows you to test the system on the ground.

246
Q

When will Hydraulic Pump 3B operate in the AUTO position?

A

3B requires:
- Power from AC BUS 1
- Flaps not at 0
- Any Generator Online

247
Q

When will Hydraulic Pump 3B operate regardless of switch position?

A

When the ADG is operating

248
Q

Following a dual IDG Failure, which hydraulic pumps would remain operating?

A

Engine Driven Pumps and 3a and 3B (Assuming APU was brought online)

249
Q

Do Hydraulic B pumps turn on in response to a low pressure condition?

A

No, B pumps will never respond automatically to low pressure.

250
Q

After an engine failure, the checklist directs you to turn the associated B pump to the ON position, why?

A

Because you have lost the engine driven pump and the B pumps do not automatically respond to low pressure.

251
Q

What are the normal hydraulic system pressures and quantities?

A
  • 3000 PSI
  • 45-85%
  • Less than 96°C
252
Q

What is the definition of icing conditions in FLIGHT?

A

TAT of 10°C or below and visible moisture is present. EXCEPT when SAT is -40°C or below

253
Q

How do Ice Detectors detect ice?

A

Ice is detected by either Ice Detector through a change in vibration.

254
Q

What would cause you to get an ICE caution message and the ICE switch-light to illuminate?

A

With a cold wing and without cowl and wing anti-ice selected ON when ice is detected.

255
Q

After you receive the ICE caution message, you turn ON your wing and cowl ant-ice, how would you know if ice is still being detected by the ice detection system?

A

ICE advisory message on EICAS

256
Q

Describe the heating cycles of the Ice Detectors.

A

Heated for 5 seconds every 60 seconds in order to return the vibrating probe to its original frequency.

257
Q

After type IV fluid has been applied, when should wing anti-ice be applied?

A

Just prior to takeoff thrust (So you don’t burn it on the wing)

258
Q

What would cause a BLEED MISCONFIG caution message?

A

Ground: Engine bleeds are running the Packs AND Anti-Ice

Flight: Engine bleeds are running the Packs AND Anti-Ice AND the flaps are not at 0°.

259
Q

If one engine fails, can we still provide anti-ice to both wings?

A

Yes, through the 14th Stage ISOL valve

260
Q

Why do we check the 14th Stage ISOL valve with the wing anti-ice on?

A

Due to its fail-safe closed position, it will only open if the wing anti-ice valves are opened.

261
Q

What is the difference between a WING OVHT and ANTI-ICE DUCT warning message?

A

WING OVHT: Sensor in the wing is detecting higher than normal heat.

ANTI-ICE DUCT: Bleed air leak detected.

262
Q

Following a WING OVHT warning message, the procedure tells us to move the wing anti-ice switch from the NORM position to the STBY position. What is the difference?

A

Moving the switch to STBY bypasses the temperature controller. Wing thermal switches are used to cycle the anti-ice valves open and closed to maintain the wing at a lower temperature.

263
Q

You did not turn the PROBES to ON while on the ground, which probes will still be heated?

A
  • Three Pitot heads
  • Standby Static Ports
  • AOA Sensors
264
Q

You still did not turn ON the PROBES switch and went Weight-Off-Wheels, what would occur?

A

All probes are heated to full heat regardless of switch position. Energized by the Air Data Sensor Heater Controllers (ADSHCs).

265
Q

What happens if you actuate the Thrust Reversers with Anti-Ice on?

A

Anti-Ice will turn off until you stow the Thrust Reversers.

266
Q

What would occur if the cowl anti-ice duct was over-pressurized? What technique do we use to prevent this?

A

The over-pressure relief valve will pop. Always turn on the wings first.

267
Q

When would you use High vs Low windshield heat?

A

High - Anti-Ice

Low - De-Fog

268
Q

In the HIGH position, are all windshields heated the same?

A

No, only the front windshields are heated HIGH. The side windows remain on LOW.

269
Q

Following a loss of all normal AC generators, which windshields/windows would remain heated?

A

Only the left window

270
Q

Which speed would the windshield wipers operate if the Captain’s control panel was set to SLOW, and the FO’s panel was set to FAST?

A

Whichever switch is set FAST determines the speed of both wipers.

271
Q

Primary purpose of APU?

A

Provide electrical power.

Also provides pneumatics

272
Q

What controls all facets of APU operation automatically?

A

The Electronic Control Unit (ECU)

273
Q

Maximum APU operating altitude?

A

37,000’

274
Q

Maximum APU RPM?

A

107%

275
Q

Maximum APU EGT for normal operations?

A

743°C

276
Q

Maximum APU EGT never to be exceeded?

A

974°C

277
Q

APU Maximum starting altitude?

A

30,000’

278
Q

APU Bleed Air for Engine Starting maximum altitude

A

13,000’

279
Q

Max airspeed with APU failed open or unknown?

A

300KIAS or the APU must remain in operation

280
Q

RVSM required equipment?

A
  • 1 Functional Autopilot
  • 1 Functional Altitude Alerting System
  • 1 Functional Altitude Reporting Transponder
  • 2 Functional Air Data Computers
281
Q

What Engines do we have?

A

General Electric CF34-3B1 or 3A1 engines

282
Q

How many emergency exits do we have?

A

5 Emergency Exits

283
Q

What is the CRJ-200’s approximate range?

A

1,700 NM

284
Q

What is the CRJ-200’s model number?

A

CL600-2B19

285
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

47,000 lbs

286
Q

Fuel Tank Quantities and Total

A

Total: 14,518 lbs

Wing Tanks: 4,760 lbs each

Center Tank: 4,998 lbs

287
Q

Engine Thrust with/without APR

A

Normal Thrust: 8,729 lbs

APR: 9,220 lbs

288
Q

APU Start Cycles Using Battery

A

30 seconds per start

20 minute break after second start

40 minute break after 4th start

289
Q

APU Start Cycles Using DC Ground Power

A

15 seconds per start

20 minute break after 2nd start

40 minute break after 4th startE

290
Q

Engine Starter Cranking Limits

A

60 Seconds per start

10 seconds off after the first two attempts

5 minutes off after the third attempt and later

When moving thrust lever from SHUT OFF to IDLE:

  • ITT must be 120°C or less for ground starts
  • ITT must be 90°C or less for air starts

Starter MUST NOT be engaged if indicated N2 RPM exceeds 55%

291
Q

What are you looking for before starting an engine?

A

ITT below 120°C for ground starts (90°C in flight)

N2 below 55%

At least 22 volts on the batteries

292
Q

Dry Motoring Cycle Limits

A

90 seconds for first attempt

30 seconds after that

5 minutes off after every cycle

293
Q

What do you need to engage the AutoPilot?

A
  • At least 1 Yaw Damper
  • At least 1 ADC
  • Both FCCs
  • Both IRS/AHRS
  • No significant instability
294
Q

What does a Constant Speed Drive do? How is it depicted on the AC Electric Synoptic Page?

A

Constant Speed Drives allow the IDGs to always spin at a constant RPM.

CSDs are depicted as IDG1 and IDG2L

295
Q

Load limitation APU Generator below and above 37,000’

A

Below 37,000’ - 30 kVA

Above 37,000’ - 0 kVA

296
Q

Load limitation on MAIN Generator Below and above 35,000’.

A

Below 35,000’ - 30 kVA

Above 35,000’ - 25 kVA

297
Q

What are DCUs?

A

Data Concentrator Units

They are the heart of the EICAS. They collect data from various aircraft systems, process the information, and then relay that information to the proper display or component.

298
Q

Where does the Left and Right PACK air go?

A

Left Pack - Provides 70% of its air to the Flight Deck and 30% to the Passenger Cabin.

Right Pack - Provides 70% of its air to the Passenger Cabin and Cargo Area and30% to the Flight Deck.

299
Q

What happens if one PACK fails?

A

The other PACK will increase its output to make up for the additional demand.

300
Q

Maximum positive differential and negative pressure?

A

Positive: +8.7 psi

Negative: -0.5 psi

301
Q

Maximum differential pressure on the ground?

A

.1 psi

302
Q

Which areas use dual loop fire protection?

A
  • APU
  • Engine
  • Jet Pipe
  • Pylon
303
Q

Which areas use single loop fire protection?

A

Main Landing Gear Bays

304
Q

What kind of operations can the CRJ-200 conduct?


A

Transport Category - Day & Night

VFR & IFR - Flight into Icing Conditions

305
Q

Max Ramp/Taxi Weight

A

53,250 lbs

306
Q

Max T/O Weight

A

53,000 lbs

307
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight

A

44,000 lbs

308
Q

Max T/O and Landing Pressure Altitude

A

10,000 ft

309
Q

Max Operating Altitude

A

41,000 ft

310
Q

Max T/O & Landing Ambient Air Temp

A

ISA + 35°

311
Q

Min T/O & Landing Ambient Air Temp

A

-40°C (-40°F)

312
Q

When do we use Cowl Anti Ice?
(Ground)

A

With OAT 10°C (50°F) or below & visible moisture in any form is present, with visibility equal to 1 mile (1,500 meters) or less

With OAT 10°C or below when operating on contaminated surfaces

313
Q

When do we use Cowl Anti Ice?
(In Flight)

A

With TAT of 10°C (50° F) or below & visible moisture in any form is present, except when SAT is -40°C (-40° F) or below.

When in Icing Conditions

When ICE annunciator illuminates by the ice detection system.

314
Q

When do we use Wing Anti Ice?
(Ground)

A

When the OAT is 5°C (41°F) or below and:
- Visible moisture in any form is present (below 400’)
- The runway is wet or contaminated
- In the presence of any precipitation

The Wing Anti-Ice System must be ON during final taxi prior to T/O if the OAT is 5°C or below, UNLESS Type II, III, or IV fluids have been applied.

If Type II, Type III or Type IV anti-icing fluid has been applied - just prior to applying takeoff thrust

If the Wing Anti-Ice System is selected ON for takeoff, the COWL Anti-Ice System must also be selected ON.

315
Q

When do we use Wing Anti-Ice?
(In Flight)

A

Icing conditions exist in Flight when TAT is 10°C (50° F) or below and visible moisture in any form is present, except when the SAT is -40°C (-40° F) or below

Wing Anti-Ice must be selected ON:

  • When ICE annunciator illuminates by the ice detection system
  • When in icing conditions and airspeed is less than or equal to 230 KIAS
  • When in icing conditions during descent from cruising altitude
  • Prior to extending flaps for approach when TAT is 10°C (50°F) or below
316
Q

How would we identify Super-Cooled Large Droplet (SLD) Icing?

Could we operate?

A

Identified by side window icing

The WING and COWL Anti-Ice Systems should be ON

Continued flight operations prohibited

317
Q

T/O is permitted with frost adhering to which surfaces?

A

Upper surface of fuselage (if you can still identify surface features)

Underside of a cold soaked wing (1/8in max)

318
Q

Runway Slope Limit

A

+2% Uphill

-2% Downhill

319
Q

Maximum Tailwind Component

A

10 Knots

320
Q

Limitation on flying with cargo in the cargo compartment.

A

Flight must be within 60 minutes of a suitable airport if cargo is carried in the cargo compartment. <0053> or
<0074>

Flight must be within 40 minutes of a suitable airport if cargo is carried in the cargo compartment. <0013> or <0059>

Flight must be within 45 minutes of a suitable airport if cargo is carried in the cargo compartment. <0034> or <0043>

321
Q

What kind of engines does the CRJ-200 have?

A

General Electric CF34-3B1

322
Q

N1 % RPM Red Line

A

98.6

323
Q

N1 % RPM Green Arc

A

0 - 98.5

324
Q

N2 % RPM Red Line

A

99.3

325
Q

N2 % RPM Green Arc

A

0 - 99.2

326
Q

When is an airplane considered “Cold Soaked”?

A

If it has spent more than (8) hours at -30°C (-22°F) or below.

327
Q

What do we do before starting a Cold Soaked airplane?

A

Motor engines for 60 seconds and VERIFY fan rotation

Actuate Thrust Reversers until deploy and stow cycles are less than 5 seconds

328
Q

Minimum Go-Around Fuel

A

450 lbs per wing with a Maximum Nose Up Pitch if 10°

329
Q

Minimum Flight Weight

A

30,000 lbs

330
Q

Maximum Crosswind Component

A

Dry Runway - 27 kt

Contaminated Runway - 10 kt

331
Q

Engine Operating Limits

A

Engine-to-Engine N2 Split at Ground Idle Power should be no greater than 2% N2

If N2 is 57% or less with an OAT of -20°C or warmer, do not accelerate above idle.

If above 40,000 ft, one air-conditioning unit or cowl anti-ice must be selected ON for each engine.

332
Q

Minimum Starting Oil Temp

A

-40°C

333
Q

Maximum Continuous Oil Temp

A

155°C or AMBER Range

334
Q

Maximum Permissible Oil Temp

A

163°C or RED (15min MAX)

335
Q

Steady-State Idle Oil Pressure

A

25 psi Minimum

336
Q

Takeoff Thrust Oil Pressure

A

45 psi Minimum

337
Q

Maximum Continuous Oil Pressure

A

115 psi Maximum or GREEN

338
Q

Maximum Transient Oil Pressure After Cold Start

A

156 psi (130 psi at idle, 10 min Max) or AMBER

339
Q

Engine Relight (Windmilling)

A

Altitude from 21,000 ft to 15,000 ft:
-Speed from 300 KIAS to Vmo/Mmo
and
- from 12% to 55% N2

Altitude below 15,000 ft:
-Speed from 300 KIAS to Vmo/Mmo
and
- from 9% to 55% N2

340
Q

Engine Relight (Starter Assisted Crossbleed (> 60 psi))

A

Altitude from 21,000 ft to 15,000 ft:
-Speed from 180 KIAS up to Vmo
and
- from 0% to 55% N2

Altitude below 15,000 ft:
-Speed from VREF up to Vmo
and
- from 0% to 55% N2

341
Q

Maximum Permissible Fuel Imbalance

A

800 lb

342
Q

How much does JetA weight per gallon?

A

6.8 lb per gallon

343
Q

T/O with fuel load in excess of 500 lb in the Center Tank is not permitted, unless:

A
  • Each Main Wing Tank is above 4,400 pounds
    or
  • Each Main Wing Tank is above 2,000 pounds and the allowable ZFW of the fuel in the Center Tank in excess of 500 pounds and the CG in this configuration is verified to be within the CG Envelope.
344
Q

Minimum Engine Fuel Temperature for T/O

A

T/O with Engine Fuel Temperature below 5°C prohibited

345
Q

Powered Cross-Flow and Gravity Cross-Flow must be ____ for T/O

A

Must be OFF

346
Q

VMO

A

(Maximum Operating Velocity)

335 KIAS

347
Q

MMO

A

(Maximum Mach Number)

0.85

348
Q

VFE (Flaps 8)

A

Maximum Flap Extended Airspeed

230 KIAS

349
Q

VFE (Flaps 20)

A

Maximum Flaps Extended Airspeed

230 KIAS

350
Q

VFO Effectivity SB 601R-11-090
(Flaps 0-20)

A

200 KIAS

351
Q

VFE (Flaps 30)

A

Maximum Flap Extended Airspeed

185 KIAS

352
Q

VFE (Flaps 45)

A

Maximum Flaps Extended Airspeed

170

353
Q

VLE

A

Maximum Landing Gear Extended

250 KIAS

354
Q

VLO (Extension)

A

250 KIAS

355
Q

VLO (Retraction)

A

200 KIAS

356
Q

Tire Speed Limit

A

182 Knots Ground Speed

357
Q

Vt (Turbulence Penetration Speed)

A

280 KIAS or 0.75 Mach

Whichever is Lower

358
Q

Windshield Wiper Speed

A

220 KIAS

359
Q

Max G Loading (Flaps Retracted)

A

-1 to 2.5 Gs

360
Q

Maximum G Loading (Flaps Extended)

A

0.0 to 2.0 Gs

361
Q

Maximum Airspeed for ADG Operation
(Airplanes 7002-7304)

A

250 KIAS

362
Q

Max Oil Consumption per Engine

A

.05 gph

363
Q

Maximum duration between oil servicing

A

16 operating hours

364
Q

For airplane operations in excess of 16 operating hours (without engine oil tank servicing), the engine oil level must be checked from the flight compartment ENGINE OIL LEVEL panel:

A

Within 3 minutes to 2 hours after every engine shutdown. If use of the Oil Replenishment System is required, then the engine(s) should be replenished within 15 minutes to 2 hours after engine shutdown.

365
Q

APU Minimum Ambient Temp for Starting

A

-40°C

366
Q

APU Model Number

A

Garrett GTCP-36-150RJ

367
Q

Autopilot Minimum Use Heights

A

Takeoff - 600ft

Non-Precision Approaches - 400ft

Precision Approaches - 80ft

368
Q

(Air Conditioning)
Bleed air extraction from the APU is not permitted above what altitude?

A

15,000 ft

369
Q

(Engine Start During Ground Operations)
Which engine may be started using the APU as a bleed air source?

A

Each

370
Q

If both engines are to be started using the APU bleed air, what condition must be met?

A

The operating engine’s thrust must not exceed 70% N2

371
Q

When is APU bleed air extraction for an engine start not permitted?

A

During Single-Engine Operations

During DOUBLE engine failure, APU bleed air extraction for engine starts is permitted.

372
Q

What needs to happen prior to opening any of the airplane doors?

A

The airplane must be completely depressurized

373
Q

When in manual mode, the cabin pressurization system must not be operated to ________ ft.

A

-1,500 ft

374
Q

The bleed-air 10th stage valves must be in what position for takeoff and landing if the engine cowl and/or wing anti-ice systems have been selected ____?

A

They must be CLOSED if the anti-ice systems have been selected ON.

375
Q

Use of ____ submode (flight director or autopilot coupled) during approach is not permitted.

A

DES

376
Q

In RVSM airspace, the ADC source coupled to the active autopilot must be what?

A

The same as that coupled to the ATC transponder

377
Q

Max time for ground operations with DC power ONLY

A

5 minutes

378
Q

Maximum continuous load on each TRU

A

100 amps

379
Q

___________ use of flaps prohibited

A

En Route

380
Q

Flight with flaps extended at altitudes above ____________ ft is prohibited

A

15,000 ft

381
Q

Flight spoilers must not be extended below ________ ft AGL

A

300 ft AGL

382
Q

To ensure adequate maneuvering margins, flight spoilers must not be extended in flight at an airspeed below ______________ .

A

The Recommended Approach Speed +17 KIAS

383
Q

Thrust reverser are approved for ________ use ONLY.

A

Ground use only

384
Q

What should not be attempted after deployment of the thrust reversers?

A

A Go-Around

385
Q

Takeoff with any thrust reverser lights on, icons or EICAS messages displayed is ____________ .

A

Prohibited

386
Q

During preflight check of the thrust reversers, with the airplane stationary, reverse thrust must be limited to __________ ______.

A

Reverse Idle

387
Q

When must brake cooling times be observed?

A

Between a landing and T/O

Between a Rejected T/O and subsequent T/O

388
Q

Taxi lights be switched ____ whenever the airplane is stationary in excess of ____ minutes.

A

Switched OFF if stationary for more than 10 minutes

389
Q

Which approaches are prohibited using the FMS?

A

ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF, and MLS

390
Q

For which phases of flight is the FMS approved?

A

En Route, Terminal, and Non-Precision Approach phases

391
Q

Which FMS system does not compensate for temperature?

A

The VNAV system

392
Q

Maximum airspeed for ADG operation 

A

Effectivity: Airplanes 7002 thru 7304
250 KIAS

Effectivity: Airplanes 7305 and subsequent
VMO/MMO

393
Q

What size batteries does the CRJ-200 have?

A

APU Battery: 24 V 43 Amp/hrs

Main Battery: 24 V 17 Amp/hrs

394
Q

What is the minimum width required to make a 180 degree turn?

A

75 ft

395
Q

Part 135 Maximum Payload

A

7500lbs (pax and cargo)

396
Q

CRJ-200 Cargo Capacity

A

3305 lbs

CRJ-200 IAI and limitations (2 decks)

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