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CRJ-200 IAI and limitations > CAE Questions > Flashcards

CAE Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the winglets?

A
  • Provide forward lift
  • Reduce induced drag
  • 3% fuel consumption reduction
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2
Q

How much horizontal stab trim is provided?

A

15 units of moveable stab trim +2 nose down and -13 units of nose up trim.

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3
Q

How is aileron and rudder trim accomplished?

A

Electronically. Repositioning of the control cables through the trim system repositions the control surface

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4
Q

How is the landing gear controlled?

A

Electronically through the PSEU and moved hydraulically by System #3.

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5
Q

Nose Wheel Steering Turning Limits (Rudder vs. Tiller)

A
  • Rudder Pedal = 7 Degrees
  • Tiller = 70 Degrees either side of center
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6
Q

Describe the Engine

A
  • Single stage fan driven by the 4 stage low pressure turbine produces 80% of thrust.
  • 14 stage N2 core driven by the 2-stage hi pressure turbine.
  • Fan discharge can be reversed (reverse thrust)
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7
Q

What flight control surface does the autopilot control?

A
  • Right aileron
  • Left Elevator
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8
Q

What flap positions have mechanical stops?

A
  • Flap 8 retraction
  • Flap 20 extension
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9
Q

Which EICAS messages are inhibited if Weight-On-Wheels and N1 above 79%?

A

Caution Messages

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10
Q

What does pushing the AC ESS Transfer switch light do?

A

Controls source of power for AC ESS bus

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11
Q

How long will the flushing system electrical pump operate after being energized?

A

10 seconds

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12
Q

OVHT lights illuminate on the galley services panel to indicate that the respective water system temperature exceeds _______?

A

65º C

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13
Q

How many water tanks are installed and where are they located?

A

Two, the galley’s water tank is located under the galley floor. The lavatory’s water tank is situated in the upper fuselage area of the baggage compartment.

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14
Q

How many static wicks are on each wing & empennage?

A

8 on the wings
10 on the empennage

But it can vary

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15
Q

What should the engines be checked for?

A
  • Cowl anti-ice blow out plug
  • Leaks
  • Panels are secure
  • Jet pipe centered with no burn marks
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16
Q

How would a WINDSHEAR WARNING be presented on the PFD?

A
  • Red text on the Attitude Indicator
    -WINDSHEAR
  • Alpha Margin Indicator (AMI) or “eyebrows” on the PFD
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17
Q

Describe briefly the function of the source select panel?

A
  • Selectors control the information presented on EFIS
  • It’s used if on-side system fails
  • ‘Normal’ indicated on-side information is being used.
  • Positions 1 or 2 indicates a single source is used
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18
Q

What is the Display Reversionary Selector

A

The Display Reversionary Selector - Allows the pilot to replace a multifunction display (MFD) with a more important display, such as the primary flight display (PFD) or enhanced display (ED2)

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19
Q

How may the AP be disconnected manually?

A
  • AP/SP disc switch on the control wheel
  • AP ENG button on the FCP
  • AP DISC bar on the FCP
  • TOGA on thrust levers
  • Pitch trim
  • Yaw damper disconnect
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20
Q

What will cause the AP to disconnect automatically?

A
  • Yaw damper failure
  • Windshear after 2 second delay
  • FCC fault
  • Excessive attitude or roll
  • Stall Warning
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21
Q

When would the FD’s act independently, operating their respective side?

A
  • Takeoff
  • Go Around
  • Approach
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22
Q

What emergency oxygen is available to the passengers?

A

Chemical system capable of 13 minutes supply, each PSU has a generator with a 12 year shelf life.

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23
Q

Minimum Oxygen required for dispatch?

A

1410 PSI

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24
Q

What causes the EMER LTS to illuminate in the ARM position?

A

AC / DC ESS power loss with battery master selected to ON.

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25
Q

How long will the emergency lights remain powered?

A

15 Minutes

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26
Q

What fire protection is available to fight an onboard fire?

A
  • 2.5lb extinguisher in the cockpit
  • 5lb extinguisher in the cabin
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27
Q

If the halon extinguisher is used in the cockpit, what precaution must be observed ?

A

Pilots should wear oxygen masks

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28
Q

How many Ice Detectors are there?

A

Two

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29
Q

What is the difference between LOW and HIGH on the WSHLD selectors?

A

High - the front windshields ONLY are heated at a higher temperature.

30
Q

What does CMD mean on the anti-ice synoptic page?

A
  • Commanded position, EICAS displays switch position not actual valve position.
  • The displayed position may not be actual valve position.
31
Q

How is overpressure protection provided for the cowl anti-ice system?

A

A pressure relief valve, and visual indicator, protrudes from the left side of the engine cowl.

32
Q

What services are provided by the engine?

A
  • AC electrical power- 30 KVA GEN
  • Bleed air - 10th and 14th stage
  • Hydraulic power- EDP systems 1 and 2
33
Q

Where is the single point refuel panel located?

A

Right side wing root

34
Q

What is the minimum engine fuel temp for take-off?

A

5ºC

35
Q

Maximum Acceptable ITT (engines)

A

900ºC

36
Q

With the flight spoilers in use, what causes a FLT SPLR DPLY caution message?

A
  • RAD ALT below 300’
  • Thrust levers above 79% N1
36
Q

How many AC busses?

A

6

37
Q

How many AC generators are on the CRJ, and what rating are they?

A

4 (Engines, APU, ADG)
30 kVA (ADG is 15kVA)

38
Q

Is there a maximum kVA altitude restriction for the engine generators?

A

Engine generators are rated 30 kVA up to FL350 and 25 kVA up to FL410.

39
Q

What does pushing the AC ESS transfer push button do?

A

Transfers the AC ESS to BUS 2

40
Q

What is the purpose of the AUTO XFER switches?

A

Selected manually, it inhibits the normal generator priority system, not allowing the offside or APU generators to power the affected BUS.

41
Q

Can the AUTO XFER switch activate automatically?

A

Yes, as a result of an AC BUS short, the APU and offside generators are not allowed to power the affected bus.

42
Q

Where are the TRUs located?

A

In the unpressurized nose compartment

43
Q

When would DC tie 1 or 2 close automatically?

A

They will close if the associated TRU has failed, or if the AC bus feeding the TRU has failed.

44
Q

In flight, does the SERV TRU provide any other function?

A

Yes, the SERV TRU can provide redundant power to the DC Essential Bus through the manual ESS TIE if ESS TRU 2 fails

45
Q

What is the kVA rating and airspeed restriction on the ADG?

What does the ADG power?

A
  • 15 kVA
  • 250kts for indefinite use
  • The ADG provides power to the AC Essential Bus and power to the DC Essential Bus through ESS TRU 1 during a dual engine failure or loss of primary electrical power.
  • It also powers Hydraulic Pump 3B, which is critical for maintaining flight control functionality.
46
Q

What does the WARN position of the fire test switch do?

A

Simulates a fire and overheat condition on the engines and APU.

47
Q

What does the FAIL position of the fire test switch do?

A

Tests the system’s ability to distinguish between a false fire and real fire.

48
Q

When selecting a bottle test switch to test, what is being checked?

A

It tests the integrity of the squibs on the associated bottle.

49
Q

What is tested when LOOP A or LOOP B is selected?

A

10th stage loops are individually tested for a short

50
Q

What happens when the bleed air rotary test switch is selected to TEST? What are we looking for?

A
  • Simulates an overheat condition on the 10th and 14th stage bleed air systems
  • A successful test is indicated by 5 warning messages on the primary page, a DUCT TEST OK advisory message, and 5 overhead panel lights
51
Q

When would a 10th stage bleed overheat be indicated?

A

When both detection loops sense an overheat condition

52
Q

Approximately how much thrust increase can be expected with APR activated? What % N1 increase?

A
  • 500lbs of thrust
  • 2% N1 increase
53
Q

Before turning pump 3A to ON (on the ground), what caution should be observed?

A

Ensure the nose gear doors are clear of any personnel

54
Q

If GEN 1 fails in flight, which hydraulic pump is not available?

A

2B

55
Q

What hydraulic pumps are not controlled by the hydraulic panel?

A

Engine Driven Pumps 1 and 2

56
Q

What would happen if the APU EGT thermocouple fails in flight?

A
  • LCV remains closed, only AC power available
  • Amber dashes replace status page readout
57
Q

In which cooling position is unfiltered air being used to cool the cockpit display fans?

A

Standby

58
Q

How is ARINC cooling flow improved on the ground?

A

On the ground, opening of the service door or main door opens the OVBD SOV

59
Q

Which hydraulic systems provide power to the ailerons?

A
  • Left Aileron
    Hydraulic systems 1 and 3
  • Right Aileron
    Hydraulic systems 2 and 3
60
Q

What is the power source for the flight spoilers?

A

Hydraulic system 1 and 2 through the SECU

61
Q

When will the GLDs retract ?

A
  • WoW for 40sec
  • 1 thrust reverser at idle
  • Speed less than 45kts for 10sec
62
Q

What is required to deploy the GLD system (ground/flight spoilers & spoilerons)?

A
  • System armed
  • Thrust levers idle
  • Both main gear WOW:
  • Wheel spin up greater than 16 kts (either pair).
  • Rad alt indicating 5 feet or less
63
Q

When will the gear horn sound, and when can it be muted?

A
  • Flap up ………………185 KIAS
  • Flap 8 or 20 ………163 KIAS

Horn can only be muted if one thrust lever is at idle

64
Q

At what point may the gear horn NOT be muted?

A

Flaps greater than 30 degrees with the gear not down

65
Q

What is the maximum aircraft altitude if operating on a single pack?

A

25,000 feet, due to the pack being unable to supply the regulatory amount of airflow to the cabin to each passenger.

66
Q

What restriction is imposed due to CPAM failure?

A

Max alt FL250, due to loss of auto oxygen drop.

67
Q

What is our wingspan?

A

69’ 7”

68
Q

How long is the CRJ200?

A

87’ 10”

69
Q

How tall is the CRJ200?

A

20’ 8”

CRJ-200 IAI and limitations (5 decks)

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