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CRJ 200 Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Ways to Disconnect AP

SYS 4-20

A
  1. Red AP/SP DISC switch on control wheel
  2. Operating STAB trim
  3. AP ENG switch on FCP
  4. Lowering the AP DISC
    switch-bar on the FCP
  5. TOGA switch on thrust levers
  6. STAB TRIM DISC on yoke
  7. Yaw damper DISC pusbutton
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2
Q

Engine Intake

Danger Area

A

Idle thrust: 12 ft
Max thrust: 25 ft

(SYS 2-18)

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3
Q

Engine Exhaust

Danger Area

A

Idle thrust: 100 ft

Max thrust: 170 ft

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4
Q

APU Exhaust

Danger Area

A

15 ft

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5
Q

CRJ-200 Wingspan

A

69’ 6”

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6
Q

CRJ-200 Height

A

20’ 8”

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7
Q

CRJ-200 Length

A

87’ 10”

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8
Q

Minimum Pavement Width for 180 turn:

A

75 feet

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9
Q

DCU:

A

Data Concentrator Unit:

Provides information to EICAS. Generates visual and aural warnings.

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10
Q

Names of two middle CRTs?

A

ED1 and ED2.

Displays EICAS, in normal config.

Primary Page on ED1 and Status Page on ED2.

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11
Q

How to choose what is displayed on MFD CRT?

A

DRP
(Display Reversionary Panel)

PFD, NORM or EICAS.

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12
Q

How to choose where EICAS information is displayed?

A

Source Selector Panel on center pedestal.

ED1, STBY or ED2.

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13
Q

Warning Message:

A

Red, displayed on Primary Page (ED1).

Most urgent, requires immediate corrective action.

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14
Q

Caution Message:

A

Amber, displayed on Primary Page (ED1).

Less urgent than warnings, requires prompt corrective action.

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15
Q

Advisory Message:

A

Green, displayed on Status Page (ED2).

Shows a safe condition exists.

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16
Q

Status Message:

A

White, displayed on Status Page (ED2)

Shows an abnormal situation or low priority failure has occurred.

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17
Q

What happens if a CRT fails?

A

If ED1, primary page will automatically revert to ED2. If either fails, you must use Source Selector Panel set to operating display to regain control of ECP. All failures can be arranged using DCP to replace an MFD with more important info (PFD or ED2).

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18
Q

Pressing Master Warning does what?

A

Resets light for future warnings and silences aural warnings except:

  1. Stall Warbler
  2. GPWS/TCAS
  3. Overspeed/Flaps Clacker
  4. Stab Trim Clacker
  5. AP Disconnect
  6. Config Warnings/Gear Horn
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19
Q

Pressing Master Caution does what?

A

Resets light and silences aural warnings except:

  1. GPWS/TCAS
  2. Altitude Alerter
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20
Q

How are CAS messages ordered?

A
  1. Order of importance (type of message)

AND

  1. Order of occurrence.
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21
Q

What does CAS button do on ECP?

A

Cycles through multiple pages of messages and can “box” caution messages if both main generators are operating and online. If a new caution message comes up, it will not unbox.

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22
Q

What does STAT button do on ECP?

A

Cycles through multiple pages of messages and can “box” status messages at all times. If a new one appears, it will unbox.

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23
Q

What are CAS Inhibits?

A

During Initial Takeoff, Final Takeoff, and Landing, the DCUs inhibit certain warnings and cautions so to not distract pilots. As soon as phase ends, the warnings/cautions will appear.

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24
Q

What does MENU page do?

A

Used when FMS is INOP:

  1. Resets Fuel Used
  2. Set N1 carats
  3. Set flight number
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25
Q

Which buttons still work when ECP is INOP?

A

PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP.

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26
Q

What do DCU 1 and DCU 2 switch lights do?

A

Disables and silences aural warnings of faulty DCU.

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27
Q

What is PSEU?

A

Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit.

Senses positions of doors and displays them on DOORS synoptic page.

Senses weight on wheels and other conditions

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28
Q

Name all doors and

their type:

A

Passenger Door:
Non-plug type

Galley Service Door:
Semi-plug type

Avionics Bay Service Door:
Plug type

Cargo Bay Door:
Plug type

Over wing emergency exits:
Plug type

Not monitored by PSEU:

Cockpit escape hatch:
Plug type

Aft Equipment Bay Door:
Non-plug type

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29
Q

Door vent flap on passenger door:

A

Closes/opens with interior or exterior handle.

Dumps pressure when handle is moved.

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30
Q

Passenger door on Doors synoptic page:

A

Red: two or more sensors indicate door is open.

Amber (STOW/OUTER HNDL): outer or stow handle is not stowed.

Amber (LATCH): passenger door is unlatched.

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31
Q

DOORS synoptic page:

A

Red:
Pax door is open

Amber:
Door is unsafe

Green:
Door is safe

Half magenta:
Door position unknown

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32
Q

Aircraft/engine models:

A

CL600-2B19

GE CF34-3B1

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33
Q

How much engine thrust?

A

Normal thrust:
8729 LBS

APR thrust:
9220 LBS

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34
Q

What is checklist sequence in emergency?

A
  1. Immediate action items
  2. Emergency checklists
  3. Abnormal checklists
  4. Normal checklists
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35
Q

Takeoff config warning:

A
  1. Autopilot engaged
  2. Flaps not in
    takeoff position
  3. Spoilers not down
  4. Parking brake set
  5. Rudder, aileron, or stab trim
    out of green range

(SYS 13-40)

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36
Q

When is N1 VIB shown on EICAS?

A
  1. When both engines 55% N2 + 2 sec
  2. Single engine in flight

(SYS 22-32)

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37
Q

Which lights will turn on FDR?

A

Strobes or beacon

or weight off wheels

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38
Q

What is max flight deck oxygen pressure?

A

2800 PSI

Will blow out the green oxygen blowout plug
on right side of fuselage.

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39
Q

What is normal flight deck oxygen pressure and minimum on EICAS?

A

Normal:
1850 PSI

EICAS O2 turns amber:
1410 PSI

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40
Q

Passenger oxygen:

A

Deploys at 14,000’
cabin altitude.

O2 generators provide
13 minutes of oxygen

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41
Q

Portable oxygen bottles:

A

2 of them in:

first overhead bin on right side, or forward wardrobe

used by FA for first aid or emergencies.

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42
Q

Where is APU located?

A

Titanium enclosure in

aft equipment bay.

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43
Q

What is “brain” of APU?

A

ECU

Electronic Control Unit

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44
Q

How does APU get fuel?

A

FCU (Fuel Control Unit) gets fuel from APU/XFLOW pump from both left and right main tanks.

During negative g conditions or APU/XFLOW pump failure, right engine fuel manifold fuels APU.

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45
Q

What are APU door positions?

A

OPEN, MID, CLOSED.

Controlled by ECU.

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46
Q

How does the APU avoid overtemping?

A

ECU controls bleed air output by modulating the LCV (load control valve).

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47
Q

What happens when PWR/FUEL switch light is pressed?

A
  1. Pump on (XFLOW/APU)
  2. Door opens
  3. IN BITE
  4. Gauges appear on ED2
  5. SOV opens

(SYS 20-7)

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48
Q

APU Start sequence:

A

Start/Stop is pushed

At 50% RPM:
Starter cuts out

At 95% + 4 sec:
Green AVAIL light on

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49
Q

What does green “AVAIL” light on APU mean?

A

APU is ready to

supply bleed air

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50
Q

What is primary function of the APU?

A

AC Electrical Power.

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51
Q

How does APU shutdown?

A

The ECU sends a simulated 107% (Overspeed) signal,

which protectively shuts down APU.

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52
Q

How to shutdown APU?

A
  1. START/STOP Switch
  2. PWR/FUEL Switch
  3. APU FIRE PUSH switch
  4. APU SHUTOFF switch on
    external services panel
  5. APU EMER STOP switch in
    Aft Equipment Bay
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53
Q

What will emergency shutdown the APU in the air?

A
  1. Overspeed
  2. DC power loss
  3. ECU failure
  4. Loss of speed signal
  5. Emergency fire shutdown
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54
Q

When do APU gauges appear on status page?

A

From ECU power up (PWR/FUEL switch) to 60 seconds after shutdown and ECU power down.

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55
Q

What does red APU on fuel synoptic page mean?

A

APU Fire with SOV failed at open or mid.

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56
Q

Minimum battery voltage to start APU.

A

22 V DC.

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57
Q

How is APU cooled?

A

Mechanical cooling fan attached to gearbox draws air in.

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58
Q

How does system handle APU Fire in flight?

A

ECU:

  1. Closes fuel SOV
  2. Closes bleed air SOV
  3. APU shuts down

Fire bottle must be discharged manually

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59
Q

How does system handle APU fire on ground?

A

ECU:

  1. Closes fuel SOV
  2. Closes bleed air SOV
  3. APU shuts down
  4. 5 sec later, fire bottle discharges
  5. Horn sounds in Aft Equipment Bay
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60
Q

What is a GCU?

A

Generator Control Unit, monitors all generators.

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61
Q

What kind of power do generators provide?

A

115 VAC,400 Hz,3 phase

IDG:
30 KVA to FL350
25 KVA Above FL350-FL370

APU: 30 KVA to FL370

ADG: 15 KVA

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62
Q

What is IDG monitored for and what will happen?

A

HOTLOP (high oil temp, low oil pressure)…will get fault light on overhead.

Severe oil overtemp or overtorque automatically disconnects IDG

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63
Q

How can ADG be deployed?

A
  1. Automatically when complete AC power loss
  2. Manually by pulling
    ADG manual release handle
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64
Q

How can you override ADG?

A

If a generator comes back online, ADG can be overridden by PWR TXFR OVERRIDE switch.

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65
Q

What does green AVAIL light on external AC switch light mean?

A

Power is connected and is of proper phase, voltage, and frequency.

3 phase, 115VAC, 400 Hz

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66
Q

AC Bus priority logic:

A
  1. On-side
  2. Inside (APU)
  3. Cross-side
  4. Outside (External AC)
67
Q

What is AC Service configuration?

A

AC UTILITY 1 and 2,
AC SERVICE, and
DC SERVICE buses
are powered

1. EXT AC switchlight on
external services panel OR
2. APU SERV BUS on
FA panel (APU AC PWR)
68
Q

AC Utility Bus 1 and
AC Utility Bus 2 Shed:

(SYS 6-22)

A

Air:
Single generator ops

Ground:
Single generator ops,
Pax and service doors closed
Flaps out of 0

69
Q

What buses will be powered by ADG?

A

ADG BUS
AC ESS BUS
DC ESS BUS
DC BATT BUS

and Hydraulic 3B pump

70
Q

Details on TRUs:

A

There are five, converts 115 VAC to 28 VDC. Rated at 100 Amps.

TRU 1 , TRU 2
SERV TRU
ESS TRU 1 , ESS TRU 2

71
Q

Two batteries:

A

Main Batt:
17 amp hour, 24 VDC

APU Batt:
43 amp hour, 24 VDC

72
Q

Green AVAIL light on external DC?

A

Proper:

voltage and polarity

73
Q

How are batteries charged?

A

Main battery:
AC UTIL BUS 1

APU battery:
AC UTIL BUS 2

74
Q

Which buses are hot buses?

A
  1. MAIN BATT DIR BUS
  2. APU BATT DIR BUS
  3. DC EMER BUS.
75
Q

What does DC EMER BUS power?

A

Fire suppression systems

  • All engine fire bottles, fuel and hydraulic SOVs

(SYS 6-33)

76
Q

What happens if

TRU 1 fails?

A

DC TIE 1 automatically closes and the SERV TRU powers DC BUS 1.

UTIL BUS 1 is shed.

77
Q

When will DC EMER BUS appear?

A
  1. When failed
  2. Not powered
  3. One of its sources is failed or not powered

(SYS 6-53)

78
Q

Should you pull ADG handle if it automatically deploys?

A

Yes, so that the

BATT BUS will power DC ESS BUS.

79
Q

When will IDG automatically disconnect?

A

Severe oil overtemp

OR

Overtorque

(SYS 6-4)

80
Q

What happens if

ESS TRU 1 fails?

A

DC ESS BUS and
DC BATT BUS
remain powered from
ESS TRU 2

81
Q

What to do if both

ESS TRU 1 and 2 fail?

A

Manually press ESS TIE switchlight to power both DC ESS BUS and
DC BATT BUS

***Note:
Service TRU can power EITHER:
1. DC ESS BUS and DC BATT BUS
2. DC BUS 1/2

(SYS 6-26)

82
Q

What are the limitations if APU door fails open?

A
  1. APU operating

OR

  1. Max speed 300 KIAS
83
Q

What happens when

AC BUS 2 switches power?

A

Flight Control
Computer #2 (FCC 2)
will briefly lose power.

As a result:

  1. Autopilot disconnects
  2. Auto tune #2 resets
  3. Yaw Damper 2 trips off
84
Q

What is on accessory gearbox?

A

3 Fluids:

  1. Fuel Pump
  2. Hydraulic Pump
  3. Oil pump

2 Electrics:

  1. IDG
  2. Alternator (FCU)

1 Air:
1. Air turbine starter

85
Q

What does pressing the TOGA buttons do?

A

Ground:
1. Sets FD to 12.5 NU
and TO TO mode

  1. Updates aircraft position at rwy

Air:
1. Sets FD to 10 NU
and GA GA mode

  1. Sequences missed approach
  2. Disconnects AP
86
Q

When does the starter cutout?

A

APU: 50% RPM
Engine: 55% N2

87
Q

How are the ignition systems powered?

A

Ignition A: AC ESS BUS

Ignition B: DC BATT BUS through static inverter

88
Q

When is CONT ignition automatically activated?

A

When stall protection computer detects an impending stall.

89
Q

How is oil cooled?

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

90
Q

What is the FCU?

A

Fuel Control Unit. Supplies fuel to engine. Below 79% N1, hydro mechanically controls N2 to thrust lever position.

Above 79% N1, FCU trims fuel to set N1 to thrust lever angle.

91
Q

What do ENG SPEED switches do?

A
  1. Arm FCU fuel trimming above 79% N1.

2. Arm APR.

92
Q

What happens to fuel not used for combustion?

A

Returned to fuel system to provide motive flow for main and scavenge ejectors.

93
Q

What does

N2 overspeed governor do?

A

Trims fuel if

N2 exceeds 103%

94
Q

What is N1

overspeed RPM?

A

98.6%, pointer will turn red and flash for 4 sec.

SYS 22-13

95
Q

What is APR?

A

Provides 2.3% N1 increase during engine failure. DCUs send signal to both engines to increase 2.3% when either engine falls below 67.6%.

5-minute “timer” after weight off wheels.

96
Q

What is required to

arm APR?

A
  1. APR ARM switch - ARM
  2. Both ENG SPEED switches - ON
  3. Weight on wheels
  4. Both engines N1 greater than 79%
  5. Two serviceable DCUs

(SYS 22-15)

97
Q

What is

auto throttle-retard?

A

If a reverser unlocks in flight, automatically brings thrust lever to idle.

98
Q

Thrust reverser limitations?

A

Cannot be below 60 knots.

Also will shutoff anti-ice until 5 seconds after stowage.

99
Q

What is the main way of transferring fuel from wing tank to collector tank?

A

Gravity flow.

Backup is scavenge ejector (from low places that gravity can’t get).

100
Q

How does fuel get from center tank to collector tanks?

A
  1. Transfer ejectors to main tank
  2. Gravity or scavenge ejectors to collector tank
  3. Main ejectors or boost pump to fuel/oil heat exchanger
  4. To engine
101
Q

Capacity of

collector tanks?

A

10 GAL.

102
Q

What do NACA scoops do?

A

Ground:
Vent wing tanks

Air:
Slightly pressurize
wing tanks

103
Q

Boost pumps:

A
  1. Used for engine start
  2. Backup for the
    main ejectors

(Capable of providing fuel to both engines)

104
Q

When does center tank automatically transfer to wing tanks?

A

Starts:
Wing tank is 93% full

Stops:
Wing tank is 97% full

Process continues until
center tank is empty

105
Q

Fuel imbalance caution?

A

800 lbs.

106
Q

What is the FSC?

A

Fuel System Compute

Controls fuel system.

107
Q

When does auto cross flow happen?

A

200 LB. imbalance:

FSC opens XFLOW SOV until low tank is 50 lbs higher.

108
Q

What is gravity cross flow?

A

It’s like opening a pipe between the two wing tanks…side slip to transfer fuel.

109
Q

What does BOOST PUMP switch do?

A

Arms low pressure sensor in that manifold, will turn on BOTH boost pumps if a low pressure occurs.

110
Q

What would you see with XFLOW/APU pump fail?

A
  1. XFLOW/APU PUMP caution message
  2. PUMP FAIL on
    APU PWR/FUEL switchlight
111
Q

Fire Zone A:

A

Engine core:

Fire detection and extinguishing

112
Q

Fire Zone B:

A

Engine jet pipe and pylon: only detection.

113
Q

What will cause a fire fail message?

A

A false fire (only one loop sensing) or a short.

114
Q

Engine fire detection:

A

Engine core: dual loop with two bottles (two squibs each)

Engine jet pipe and pylon: dual loop, no extinguishing

115
Q

APU fire detection:

A

Dual loop, one fire bottle.

116
Q

Cargo fire detection:

A

Two smoke detectors, Normal and standby.

Two bottles, one rapid discharge and one slow discharge (30 minutes).

117
Q

Lavatory fire detection:

A

A smoke detector. Automatic fire extinguisher in waste bin.

118
Q

MLG Bay detection:

A

One overheat sensor loop. No extinguishing. (Put the gear down)

119
Q

What does pushing the L/R ENG FIRE PUSH do?

A
  1. Disconnects IDG
  2. Closes fuel SOV
  3. Closes hydraulics SOV
  4. Closes bleed SOV
  5. Arms squibs
120
Q

What does pushing the APU FIRE PUSH do?

A
  1. Closes fuel SOV
  2. Closes bleed air LCV
  3. Arms squibs
  4. Energizes fire shutoff relay
    to shutdown APU
122
Q

How is N1 amplifier powered?

A

The alternator on accessory gear box.

123
Q

What message if fueler leaves refuel/Defuel panel powered?

A

AUTO XFLOW INHIB

124
Q

How is the APU protected from bleed air backflow?

A
  1. Check valve

2. Interlock protection.

125
Q

What is APU Interlock Protection?

A

The 10th stage bleed switches are interlocked to prevent a switch position being selected that would backflow the APU.

126
Q

How many loops is the 10th and 14th stage bleed air leak protection?

A

10th - dual loop

14th - single loop.

127
Q

How is wing anti-ice overheat detected?

A

Thermal overheat switches.

128
Q

What are the packs protected from?

A

Overtemp - can be reset below 85 C

Over pressure - can be reset below 60 psi

129
Q

What is the PRSOV and its function?

A

Pack - Pressure Regulating Shutoff Valve.

Controls pressure to 30 psi for dual pack and 41 psi for single pack operation.

130
Q

What are the display cooling fans?

A

Fan 1:
FLT NORM/GND ALTN

Fan 2:
GND NORM/FLT ALTN

Standby: STBY (Unfiltered air)

131
Q

Where is avionics cooling air exhausted?

A

When passenger or service door open: outboard valve which exhausts near wing root area.

When both closed: inboard valve which exhausts through outflow valves

132
Q

What is the difference between Cargo Fan FAN and COND AIR?

A

FAN: recirc and exhaust SOVs are open, and recirc fan recirculates air to keep temp above freezing.

COND AIR: heater is enabled and recirc fan blows heated air. Heater cycles to keep 21-27 C.

133
Q

When will you get CARGO OVHT caution?

A

Cargo bay temperature exceeds 35 C

OR

When heater exhaust duct temp exceeds 49 C (Heater shut downs)

134
Q

What happens when cargo smoke detected?

A
  1. SMOKE aural warn.
  2. SMOKE CARGO warning message
  3. Both CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlights illuminate
  4. Cargo heater shuts down
  5. All 3 SOVs close

(SYS 8-10)

135
Q

What is maximum diff p?

A

Positive 8.7 psid

Negative 0.5 psid

136
Q

What is a CPC and its purpose?

A 
Cabin Pressure Controller
- Active CPC uses ADC 1
(ADC 2 is a backup)
- CPC sends output to outflow valves to maintain 8.33 psid
- Active CPC changes
automatically when:
1. On ground for 3 minutes OR
2. Active CPC fails in flight

(SYS 3-14)

137
Q

Where are outflow valves and how are they controlled?

A

Rear pressure bulkhead below floor level.

Electrically controlled, pneumatically actuated.

138
Q

What is the purpose of altitude limiters within each outflow valve?

A

Closes each outflow valve to maintain a
cabin altitude of
14,250 +/- 750 ft

(SYS 3-15)

139
Q

What is CPAM and its purpose?

A

Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module.

Generates info for EICAS:

  1. CABIN ALT
  2. Rate of change
  3. Diff pressure
CABIN ALT caution msg
at cabin alt. > 8,500 ft
CABIN ALT warning msg
at cabin alt. > 10,000 ft
SEAT BELT and NO SMKG
at cabin alt. 10,000 ft
Auto deploy PAX O2 masks
at cabin alt. 14,000 ft
140
Q

What happens if CPAM fails?

A

Auto oxygen and sign functions are lost.

EICAS indications given by standby CPC.

141
Q

When will outflow valves automatically open?

A

Positive 8.6 psid

AND

negative 0.5 psid

(SYS 3-14)

142
Q

What is the ice detectors heating cycle?

A

They deice for 5 sec every 60 sec in order to continuously detect ice

143
Q

How does wing anti-ice system maintain temp?

A

A temperature controller in aft equipment bay modulates the wing anti-ice valve to maintain 107 +/- 8 C

If INOP, STBY opens and closes the wing anti-ice valve to maintain 49 +/- 4 C

144
Q

What are ADSHCs and their purpose?

A

Air data sensor
heater controllers.

They electronically control heating elements to prevent ice formation and false readings.

145
Q

Which probes are automatically heated?

PROBES switches - OFF

A

Ground:
All Pitot Tips = 1/2 PWR

Flight:
All full

(SYS 12-8)

146
Q

Windshield heat operation:

A

Low: all low
High: windshields high, side windows low

147
Q

Normal hydraulic pressure?

A

3000 psi.

Normal operating pressure per (SYS 11-11) is 2800 to 3200 psi.

148
Q

HYD PUMP 1B/2B Logic

A

In AUTO, pumps ON:
cross-side bus powered,
cross-side IDG operating
flaps out of 0

(Does NOT matter if ground vs. air)

Air:
- In ON, pumps ON:
cross-side bus powered
cross-side IDG operating

Ground:
- In ON, pumps on:
ONLY cross-side bus powered

149
Q

What hydraulic accumulators are there?

A

System 1 has an accumulator to
“shock absorb”

Each brake system has one to provide 6 brake applications after a total system 2/3 failure.

150
Q

Which hydraulic systems have heat exchangers?

A

Systems 1/2 have air/heat exchangers from ram air.

151
Q

EICAS normal hydraulic pressure

A

1800-3200 psi. (Green)

152
Q

When on EICAS will HYD quantity show white?

A

Less than 45% or more than 85%

153
Q

What is a PCU and its function?

A

Power control unit.

Converts mechanical “yoke” power to hydraulic power to actuate flight controls.

154
Q

What are flutter dampers?

A

Used to prevent flutter of control surfaces in air and provide gust lock protection on ground.

One per aileron, two per each elevator.

155
Q

After ROLL DISC, what will happen?

A

After 20 sec, SPOILERON ROLL caution will appear until PLT ROLL or CPLT ROLL is selected.

That will give the “operating” pilot control of the onside SPOILERON.

156
Q

What is SECU and its purpose?

A

Spoiler Electronic Control Unit.

Inputs SPOILERON actuators.

157
Q

How is aileron and rudder trim powered?

A

Electrically controlled, hydraulically operated.

158
Q

What color are trims on EICAS?

A

On ground: white when out of takeoff range.

In air: white regardless.

159
Q

How many channels does STAB TRIM have?

What is HSTCU?

A

2.

Horizontal Stab Trim Unit.

160
Q

What is MACH TRIM?

A

Trims during hand flying only to counteract shifting center of pressure above Mach 0.4.

161
Q

Stab Trim priority:

A
  1. Captain
  2. FO
  3. Autopilot
  4. AUTO (flap changes)
  5. Mach trim
162
Q

What is FECU and purpose?

A

Flap electronic control unit. Controls flaps.

163
Q

What is SDU and purpose?

A

Skew Detection Unit.

Detects uneven extension of flaps and disables flap motors if found. FLAPS FAIL caution will be given.

164
Q

What do spoiler colors on EICAS mean?

A

Green - both SECUs and PCUs are operating.

White - one SECU and/or PCU is INOP

Amber - both SECUs or PCUs are INOP.

Endeavor (9 decks)

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