Critical Care Flashcards

1
Q

Q: What is critical care nursing?

A

A: Critical care nursing involves the specialized care of patients with life-threatening conditions, requiring comprehensive and continuous monitoring and treatment.

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2
Q

Q: What are the three components of circulation?

A

A: Blood vessels, the heart, and blood.

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3
Q

Q: What was one of the first specialized critical care units developed?

A

A: The first specialized ICU was the respiratory ICU.

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4
Q

Q: How did World War II impact the development of critical care units?

A

A: WWII led to the creation of shock wards for critically injured patients, which later evolved into ICUs.

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5
Q

Q: What is a key element of critical care nursing regarding patient monitoring?

A

A: Monitoring the physiological functions of critically ill patients and ensuring safety and quality of care.

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6
Q

Q: What is the primary goal of holistic critical care nursing?

A

A: To provide care that considers the patient’s body, mind, and spirit as interconnected and inseparable.

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6
Q

Q: What is beneficence in critical care nursing?

A

A: The ethical principle of doing good and preventing harm to patients.

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6
Q

Q: How do critical care nurses manage crisis situations?

A

A: They use their clinical judgment, problem identification skills, and crisis management techniques to stabilize and support patients.

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6
Q

Q: How is hypovolemic shock treated in critical care?

A

A: Treatment involves fluid resuscitation, controlling bleeding, and restoring blood volume.

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6
Q

Q: What are common conditions managed in critical care settings?

A

A: Respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, shock (neurogenic, cardiogenic, septic), and severe trauma.

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6
Q

Q: What is the protocol for managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in critical care?

A

A: Treatment includes insulin administration, fluid resuscitation, electrolyte monitoring, and addressing the underlying cause.

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6
Q

Q: What interventions are used in managing cardiogenic shock?

A

A: Interventions include inotropes, vasopressors, mechanical support, and addressing the underlying cardiac condition.

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7
Q

Q: What role do vasopressors play in critical care?

A

A: Vasopressors are used to raise blood pressure in patients with shock, improving tissue perfusion.

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8
Q

Q: What is the purpose of CPAP in critical care?

A

A: CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) provides a constant flow of air to keep the airways open, often used in patients with sleep apnea or respiratory distress.

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9
Q

Q: How do nurses manage patients on mechanical ventilation?

A

A: They monitor respiratory status, ensure proper ventilator settings, perform suctioning, and prevent ventilator-associated complications.

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10
Q

Q: What is the role of critical care nurses in family presence during resuscitation?

A

A: They support the family, facilitate communication, and provide a compassionate environment during resuscitation efforts.

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11
Q

Q: What are the goals of managing dysrhythmias in critically ill patients?

A

A: To stabilize the heart rhythm, maintain cardiac output, and prevent complications such as stroke or cardiac arrest.

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12
Q

Q: What is anaphylactic shock and how is it managed in critical care?

A

A: Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction managed with epinephrine, antihistamines, corticosteroids, and airway support.

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13
Q

Q: What is the protocol for managing septic shock?

A

A: Early recognition, aggressive fluid resuscitation, antibiotics, vasopressors, and source control of infection.

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14
Q

Q: How is neurogenic shock treated?

A

A: Treatment includes stabilizing the spine, maintaining blood pressure, and managing bradycardia.

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15
Q

Q: What are the components of the ABCs in CPR?

A

A: Airway, Breathing, and Circulation.

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16
Q

Q: What is the significance of fluid resuscitation in critical care?

A

A: It restores intravascular volume, improves cardiac output, and enhances tissue perfusion in shock states.

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17
Q

Q: How is cultural diversity addressed in critical care?

A

A: Through cultural competence, sensitivity to lifestyle differences, and incorporating cultural needs into care plans.

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18
Q

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of shock in critically ill patients?

A

A: Hypotension, tachycardia, cold and clammy skin, decreased urine output, and altered mental status.

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19
Q

Q: What is the role of antihistamines in critical care?

A

A: They are used to treat allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, by blocking histamine receptors.

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20
Q

Q: How are blood transfusions managed in critical care settings?

A

A: By ensuring blood type compatibility, monitoring for reactions, and maintaining proper documentation and patient consent.

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20
Q

Q: How is ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) prevented?

A

A: By maintaining proper hygiene, oral care, elevating the head of the bed, and using appropriate ventilator settings.

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20
Q

Q: What are the main challenges in managing critically ill pediatric patients?

A

A: Challenges include differences in anatomy and physiology, medication dosing, and the need for specialized equipment.

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21
Q

Q: What are the main challenges in managing critically ill pediatric patients?

A

A: Fluid management, infection control, pain management, and wound care.

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21
Q

Q: What are the indications for tracheostomy in critical care?

A

A: Indications include prolonged mechanical ventilation, airway obstruction, and secretion management.

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21
Q

Q: How is pain managed in critically ill adults?

A

A: Through regular pain assessments, appropriate use of analgesics, and non-pharmacological interventions.

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22
Q

Q: What are the roles of respiratory therapists in critical care?

A

A: They manage ventilators, provide breathing treatments, perform pulmonary hygiene, and assist with airway management.

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23
Q

Q: How is hyperglycemia managed in critically ill patients?

A

A: With insulin therapy, regular glucose monitoring, and adjusting nutrition and medications.

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23
Q

Q: How is cardiac catheterization used in critical care?

A

A: For diagnostic purposes and interventions like angioplasty or stent placement in patients with cardiac conditions.

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24
Q

Q: What is the purpose of thrombolytics in stroke and cardiac care?

A

A: To dissolve blood clots and restore blood flow in conditions like ischemic stroke and myocardial infarction.

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25
Q

Q: What are the primary goals of nutritional support in critical care?

A

A: To meet the caloric and protein needs of critically ill patients, support healing, and prevent malnutrition.

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26
Q

Q: How is acute kidney injury managed in critical care?

A

A: By managing fluid balance, avoiding nephrotoxic drugs, and using renal replacement therapy if necessary.

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27
Q

Q: What interventions are used to prevent pressure ulcers in immobile patients?

A

A: Regular repositioning, use of pressure-relieving devices, and skin assessments.

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28
Q

Q: How is end-of-life care managed in critical care settings?

A

A: Through palliative care approaches, discussing goals of care, and respecting patient and family wishes.

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29
Q

Q: What are common signs of sepsis in critical care patients?

A

A: Fever, increased heart rate, elevated respiratory rate, and signs of organ dysfunction.

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30
Q

Q: How do critical care nurses manage fluid and electrolyte imbalances?

A

A: By monitoring laboratory values, adjusting IV fluids, and managing medications that affect fluid balance.

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31
Q

Q: What are the roles of nephrology nurses in critical care?

A

A: Managing patients with kidney conditions, dialysis, and monitoring for complications related to renal failure.

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32
Q

Q: How is quality improvement implemented in critical care units?

A

A: Through data monitoring, implementing evidence-based practices, and ongoing evaluation of care processes.

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33
Q

Q: How are multidrug-resistant organisms managed in critical care?

A

A: By using strict infection control measures, isolating patients, and using appropriate antibiotics.

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34
Q

Q: How is bronchodilation achieved in critical care patients?

A

A: Through the use of bronchodilators like albuterol, epinephrine, or anticholinergics.

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35
Q

Q: How do critical care nurses manage hyperactive delirium?

A

A: By assessing the underlying cause, using medications like antipsychotics, and creating a calm environment.

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36
Q

Q: What interventions are used for patients with trauma injuries?

A

A: Stabilization, pain management, surgical interventions, and continuous monitoring.

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37
Q

Q: What are common complications of immobility in critical care patients?

A

A: Pressure ulcers, muscle atrophy, deep vein thrombosis, and respiratory complications.

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38
Q

Q: How is acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) managed?

A

A: With supportive care, mechanical ventilation, prone positioning, and managing the underlying cause.

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39
Q

Q: What is the purpose of guided imagery in critical care?

A

A: To reduce stress, anxiety, and pain through mental visualization techniques.

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40
Q

Q: What is the impact of psychosocial issues on healing in critical care?

A

A: Psychosocial issues can affect recovery, stress levels, and overall patient outcomes.

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41
Q

Q: What are the signs of ineffective coping in critical care patients?

A

A: Anxiety, depression, refusal of care, and lack of participation in treatment plans.

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42
Q

Q: How do critical care nurses manage the risk of delirium?

A

A: Through regular assessment, minimizing sedatives, and promoting sleep and orientation.

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43
Q

Q: What is the importance of effective communication in critical care?

A

A: It ensures clear understanding among the care team, patient, and family, reducing errors and enhancing care.

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44
Q

Q: How are anticoagulants used in critical care?

A

A: To prevent clot formation in conditions like deep vein thrombosis, atrial fibrillation, and during mechanical ventilation.

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45
Q

Q: What are the primary objectives of critical care nursing?

A

A: To stabilize patients, prevent complications, promote recovery, and provide support to patients and their families.

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46
Q

What is the main goal of Critical Care?

A

To support organ function and treat life-threatening conditions in patients requiring intensive monitoring.

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47
Q

What are the common causes of respiratory failure?

A

Pneumonia, ARDS, COPD, trauma, and neuromuscular disorders.

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48
Q

What is the PaO2/FiO2 ratio indicative of ARDS?

A

A ratio less than 300 mmHg is indicative of ARDS.

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49
Q

What are the key features of septic shock?

A

Persistent hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain MAP ≥65 mmHg and serum lactate >2 mmol/L despite adequate fluid resuscitation.

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50
Q

What is the first-line treatment for septic shock?

A

Early administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics and aggressive fluid resuscitation.

51
Q

Define Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS).

A

Progressive dysfunction of two or more organ systems due to an uncontrolled inflammatory response to a severe illness or injury.

52
Q

What are the criteria for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)?

A

Two or more of the following: temperature >38°C or <36°C, heart rate >90 bpm, respiratory rate >20 breaths/min, or abnormal white blood cell count.

53
Q

List the common types of shock.

A

Hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive shock.

54
Q

What are the hallmarks of cardiogenic shock?

A

Decreased cardiac output and increased systemic vascular resistance.

55
Q

What is the function of vasopressors in shock management?

A

To increase blood pressure by vasoconstriction and improving cardiac output.

56
Q

Name an example of a commonly used vasopressor in shock.

A

Norepinephrine.

57
Q

: What is the importance of maintaining Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) in critically ill patients?

A

To ensure adequate organ perfusion, typically keeping MAP ≥65 mmHg.

58
Q

What are the components of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

A

Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

59
Q

What is the most common cause of hospital-acquired infection in ICU patients?

A

Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP).

60
Q

What is the function of a central venous catheter (CVC)?

A

To deliver medications, fluids, blood products, and parenteral nutrition, and to monitor central venous pressure.

61
Q

What is the normal range for central venous pressure (CVP)?

A

2-6 mmHg.

62
Q

What is a key intervention for managing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A

Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and ensuring adequate sedation and analgesia.

63
Q

What is the Monro-Kellie doctrine?

A

It explains that the cranial cavity has a fixed volume, and an increase in one of its components (brain tissue, blood, CSF) must be compensated by a decrease in another to maintain normal ICP.

64
Q

What is the Cushing’s Triad and what does it indicate?

A

Cushing’s Triad consists of hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations, indicating increased intracranial pressure and potential brain herniation.

65
Q

What are the initial management steps for a patient with traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

A

Stabilization of the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs), followed by neuroimaging and ICP monitoring.

66
Q

What is the role of sedation in patients with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A

Sedation reduces metabolic demand and prevents agitation, which can lower ICP.

67
Q

What is permissive hypotension, and when is it used?

A

Permissive hypotension is a strategy where blood pressure is kept lower than normal to reduce the risk of bleeding in trauma patients, especially those with uncontrolled hemorrhage.

68
Q

What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

A

A condition where small blood clots develop throughout the bloodstream, leading to organ damage and increased risk of bleeding.

69
Q

What are the common triggers for DIC in critical care?

A

Sepsis, trauma, malignancy, and obstetric complications.

70
Q

What is the treatment approach for DIC?

A

Treat the underlying cause, supportive care, and sometimes blood product transfusion like platelets or fresh frozen plasma.

71
Q

What is a common complication of mechanical ventilation?

A

Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), caused by bacteria entering the lungs through the endotracheal tube.

72
Q

What are preventive strategies for Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP)?

A

Elevating the head of the bed, daily sedation vacations, oral hygiene with chlorhexidine, and using subglottic suctioning.

73
Q

What is the ABCDE bundle in critical care?

A

A bundle of interventions that stands for Awakening, Breathing coordination, Delirium monitoring, Early mobility, and Exercise.

74
Q

What is the goal of early mobilization in the ICU?

A

To reduce the risk of muscle atrophy, delirium, and ICU-acquired weakness.

75
Q

What are the signs of acute delirium in ICU patients?

A

Confusion, agitation, hallucinations, and altered consciousness.

76
Q

What are some risk factors for ICU delirium?

A

Advanced age, pre-existing cognitive impairment, use of sedatives, and prolonged ICU stay.

77
Q

How is delirium managed in the ICU?

A

Through minimizing sedative use, ensuring proper sleep-wake cycles, and using antipsychotics if necessary.

78
Q

What is the role of enteral nutrition in critically ill patients?

A

To provide essential nutrients directly into the gastrointestinal tract, helping to maintain gut function and reduce infection risks.

79
Q

What are the indications for parenteral nutrition in critically ill patients?

A

When enteral feeding is contraindicated or insufficient, such as in cases of severe bowel injury or prolonged ileus.

80
Q

What is the difference between total and partial parenteral nutrition?

A

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) provides all daily nutritional needs intravenously, while partial parenteral nutrition (PPN) supplements some enteral nutrition.

81
Q

What is the significance of glycemic control in critically ill patients?

A

Maintaining tight glucose control helps prevent hyperglycemia-related complications like infection and impaired wound healing.

82
Q

What is the target blood glucose range in critically ill patients according to current guidelines?

A

140-180 mg/dL.

83
Q

What are the potential complications of overfeeding in critically ill patients?

A

Hyperglycemia, fatty liver, increased CO2 production, and electrolyte imbalances.

84
Q

Define Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS).

A

A range of conditions associated with sudden, reduced blood flow to the heart, including unstable angina and myocardial infarction.

85
Q

What is the primary treatment for STEMI (ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction)?

A

Immediate reperfusion therapy, either through percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or thrombolytic therapy.

86
Q

What is the difference between NSTEMI and STEMI?

A

NSTEMI involves a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, typically less severe than STEMI, which presents with ST-segment elevation on ECG.

87
Q

What are the first-line drugs used in the management of ACS?

A

Antiplatelets (aspirin), nitrates, beta-blockers, and anticoagulants.

88
Q

What is the function of beta-blockers in myocardial infarction treatment?

A

Beta-blockers reduce heart rate, myocardial oxygen demand, and blood pressure, helping to limit heart damage.

89
Q

Define Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT).

A

A rare but serious immune-mediated reaction to heparin causing low platelet counts and increased risk of thrombosis.

90
Q

How is Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) managed?

A

Stop all heparin products and start alternative anticoagulation, such as direct thrombin inhibitors (e.g., argatroban).

91
Q

What is the common side effect of prolonged corticosteroid use in critically ill patients?

A

Immunosuppression, hyperglycemia, muscle weakness, and osteoporosis.

92
Q

What is the role of corticosteroids in septic shock?

A

Corticosteroids may be used in patients with septic shock unresponsive to fluids and vasopressors, especially in adrenal insufficiency.

93
Q

What is the most common cause of acute liver failure in the ICU?

A

Acetaminophen overdose.

94
Q

What is the primary treatment for acetaminophen overdose?

A

Administration of N-acetylcysteine (NAC) to prevent liver damage.

95
Q

What is the definition of cardiac tamponade?

A

A life-threatening condition where fluid accumulates in the pericardium, compressing the heart and limiting its ability to pump.

96
Q

What are the signs of cardiac tamponade?

A

Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds (Beck’s triad).

97
Q

How is cardiac tamponade treated?

A

Emergency pericardiocentesis to remove fluid from the pericardium.

98
Q

Define Pulmonary Embolism (PE).

A

A blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, typically caused by a blood clot that has traveled from the legs (deep vein thrombosis).

99
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?

A

CT pulmonary angiography.

100
Q

What is the treatment for massive Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?

A

Thrombolytic therapy (e.g., tPA) or surgical embolectomy for life-threatening cases.

101
Q

What is the function of a Swan-Ganz catheter in critical care?

A

It measures pulmonary artery pressures, cardiac output, and other hemodynamic parameters to guide fluid management and vasopressor therapy.

102
Q

What are common complications associated with central venous catheter insertion?

A

Pneumothorax, infection, bleeding, and thrombosis.

103
Q

What are the three main types of burns?

A

Thermal burns, chemical burns, and electrical burns.

104
Q

How is the Rule of Nines applied in adults?

A

Head and neck: 9%, each arm: 9%, anterior trunk: 18%, posterior trunk: 18%, each leg: 18%, and genital area: 1%.

105
Q

How are burns classified based on depth?

A

Superficial (1st degree), partial-thickness (2nd degree), and full-thickness (3rd degree).

106
Q

What are the characteristics of a superficial (1st degree) burn?

A

Red, painful skin without blisters, typically involving the epidermis only.

107
Q

What are the characteristics of a partial-thickness (2nd degree) burn?

A

Blistered, red, and painful, involving both the epidermis and part of the dermis.

108
Q

What are the characteristics of a full-thickness (3rd degree) burn?

A

Charred or leathery skin, with damage to the entire epidermis and dermis, often painless due to nerve damage.

109
Q

What is the Parkland Formula for fluid resuscitation in burn patients?

A

4 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution X kg of body weight X % of TBSA burned, administered in the first 24 hours.

110
Q

Why is fluid resuscitation critical in burn management?

A

To prevent burn shock, a type of hypovolemic shock caused by fluid loss from damaged skin and increased capillary permeability.

111
Q

What are the signs of inadequate fluid resuscitation in burn patients?

A

Hypotension, tachycardia, decreased urine output, and altered mental status.

112
Q

What is an escharotomy, and when is it performed?

A

A surgical procedure to relieve pressure by making incisions through burned tissue (eschar), often necessary in circumferential burns to restore circulation.

113
Q

What is the purpose of a fasciotomy in burn patients?

A

To relieve compartment syndrome by cutting the fascia to reduce pressure from swelling in deep tissue burns.

114
Q

What is carbon monoxide poisoning, and how is it related to burn injuries?

A

A common complication in fires, where carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues.

115
Q

What is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning in burn victims?

A

High-flow 100% oxygen therapy or hyperbaric oxygen therapy to displace carbon monoxide from hemoglobin.

116
Q

First Aid for Burns

A

Cool the burn with cool (not cold) water; cover with sterile cloth.

117
Q

Signs of Inhalation Injury

A

Singed nasal hairs, soot in the mouth, hoarse voice.

118
Q

Burn Complications

A

Hypovolemic shock, infection, contractures.

119
Q

Signs of Sepsis

A

Fever, chills, rapid heart rate, confusion, and low blood pressure.

120
Q

Common Causes of Sepsis

A

Bacterial infections, pneumonia, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and skin infections.

121
Q

Sepsis Management

A

Early antibiotics, IV fluids, oxygen, and monitoring of organ function.

122
Q

SIRS Criteria (Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome)

A

Body temperature >38°C or <36°C, heart rate >90 bpm, respiratory rate >20 breaths/min, white blood cell count >12,000/mm³ or <4,000/mm³.

123
Q

Prevention of Sepsis

A

Hand hygiene, timely treatment of infections, vaccination.

124
Q

Caused by a loss of blood or fluids (e.g., bleeding, burns, diarrhea).

A

Hypovolemic Shock

125
Q

Early Signs of Shock

A

Rapid heart rate, pale skin, cold and clammy skin, dizziness.

126
Q

Shock Management

A

Ensure airway, provide oxygen, IV fluids, medications (vasopressors).

127
Q

Complications of Shock

A

Organ failure, acidosis, death if not treated promptly.

128
Q

First Aid for Burns

A

Cool the burn under cool running water for at least 10 minutes.

129
Q

Pain Management for Burns

A

Use of analgesics like acetaminophen, NSAIDs, or opioids for severe burns

130
Q

Airway Management in Burns

A

Endotracheal intubation may be required for smoke inhalation or facial burns

131
Q

Initial Management of Sepsis

A

Rapid administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics within the first hour.

132
Q

Fluid Resuscitation in Sepsis

A

IV fluids, typically crystalloids (e.g., normal saline or lactated Ringer’s), to maintain blood pressure.

133
Q

Vasopressors in Septic Shock

A

Drugs like norepinephrine to raise blood pressure if fluids are not enough.

134
Q

Corticosteroids in Sepsis

A

Low-dose steroids like hydrocortisone may be used if blood pressure remains low despite treatment.

135
Q

Cardiogenic Shock Treatment

A

Use of inotropes (e.g., dobutamine) to strengthen heart contractions and improve blood flow.

136
Q

Septic Shock Treatment

A

Fluids, antibiotics, and vasopressors like norepinephrine.

137
Q

Neurogenic Shock Treatment

A

IV fluids and vasopressors (e.g., dopamine) to maintain blood pressure.

138
Q

Anaphylactic Shock Treatment

A

Epinephrine to reverse allergic reactions, along with antihistamines and steroids.

139
Q

Vasopressors in Shock

A

Drugs like dopamine, epinephrine, or norepinephrine used to constrict blood vessels and raise blood pressure.

140
Q

Monitoring in Shock

A

Continuous blood pressure, heart rate, urine output, and oxygen levels to assess response to treatment.

141
Q

Treating Acidosis in Shock

A

Sodium bicarbonate may be administered if severe metabolic acidosis occurs due to shock.