Criminal Law Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Two elements of all crimes

A

(1) Actus reus (voluntary act)

(2) Mens rea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When does failure to act violate a duty in criminal law?

A

Duty can be imposed by:

(1) Statute imposed
(2) Contract
(3) Special relationship (parent-child)
(4) Detrimental undertaking (offering victim help)
(5) ∆ creates peril (failing to aid after causing victim’s peril)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Specific intent crimes

A

Requires a subjective desire, objective, or knowledge.
Examples:
(1) First-degree murder
(2) Inchoate offenses (attempt, solicitation, conspiracy)
(3) Assault with intent to commit battery
(4) Theft offenses (larceny, false pretense, embezzlement, forgery, burglary, robbery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Malice crimes

A

Only require a reckless disregard of a high risk of harm. Requires only a criminal act without an excuse, justification, or mitigation.
(e.g., murder or arson)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

General intent crimes

A
Requires only an intent to perform an act that is unlawful. Generally done knowingly, recklessly, or negligently. 
Examples:
(1) battery
(2) rape
(3) kidnapping
(4) false imprisonment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Accomplice liability

A

A person who (1) with intent that the crime be committed (2) aids or abets a principal prior to or during commission of a crime.

Person who is in a class protected by statute cannot be an accomplice (minor cannot help statutory rape).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Withdrawal from accomplice liability

A

Requires:

(1) Repudiate prior act
(2) do all that is possible to countermand prior assistance
(3) must do so before the chain of events is in motion and unstoppable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Accessory after the fact

A

Guilty of obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

M’Naghten test for insanity

A

(1) defect of reason due to mental disease

(2) ∆ did not know the nature and quality of the act OR the wrongfulness of the act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Irresistible Impulse test for insanity

A

(1) mental disease or defect

(2) prevented defendant from being able to conform his or her conduct to the law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Durham Rule (But-for test) for insanity

A

(1) Mental disease or defect

(2) crime could not have been committed but-for the disease or defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MPC Test for insanity

A

(1) as a result of a mental disease or defect
(2) defendant did not have the substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of the act OR to conform conduct to law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Four tests for insanity

A

(1) M’Naghten test
(2) Irresistible Impulse test
(3) Durham Rule (but-for test)
(4) MPC test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Voluntary Intoxication

A

Defense for specific intent crimes, but NOT general intent or crimes of malice, recklessness, or negligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Involuntary intoxication

A

Defense to any crime where intoxication might negate an element of the crime.

Must show: (1) without knowledge of the intoxicating nature of the substance OR (2) took it under duress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Infancy defense (common law)

A

∆ cannot be convicted unless 7yo or older. If between 7 and 14, rebuttable presumption of incapability. 14 or older is tried as adult.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Four kinds of murder

A

(1) intent to kill
(2) intent to inflict serious bodily harm
(3) depraved heart killing (Russian roulette, firing into crowd, etc.)
(4) Felony murder (“BARRK” = Burglary, Arson, Robbery, Rape, kidnapping.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Voluntary manslaughter

A

Intentional killing in response to adequate provocation.

Provocation = threat of serious battery or deadly force, discovery of adultery. Words are not enough. No cool-off time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Involuntary manslaughter

A

Unintentional killing committed with criminal/gross negligence OR when killing occurs during commission of a crime that is not a felony murder. (non-BARRK felonies)
E.g., drunk driving.

20
Q

Three major theft crimes

A

(1) larceny
(2) embezzlement
(3) false pretenses

21
Q

Larceny

A

(1) trespassory taking (if by lie = “larceny by trick”)
(2) carrying away of the property (slightest movement)
(3) of personal property
(4) of another
(5) with intent to permanently deprive that person of the property

22
Q

Embezzlement

A

(1) Fraudulent
(2) Conversion
(3) Of the property
(4) Property owned by another
(5) By someone with lawful possession of the property (distinguishes this from larceny, which is unlawful possession)

23
Q

False pretenses

A

(1) obtaining title to property
(2) of another person
(3) through reliance of that person
(4) on a known false representation of a material past or present fact (no future facts)
(5) representation is made to defraud.

24
Q

Robbery (common law)

A

(1) All elements of larceny (a) trespassory taking
(b) carrying away of the property (c) of personal property (d) of another (e) with intent to permanently deprive that person of the property
(2) Force or intimidation
(3) taking of property from the person or presence of the victim

25
Q

Burglary (common law)

A

(1) breaking in
(2) entering
(3) of a dwelling
(4) of another
(5) at night (must be at night at common law)
(6) with specific intent to commit a felony inside

26
Q

Receipt of stolen property

A

(1) ∆ receives stolen property
(2) with knowledge that the property is stolen
(3) with intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property

∆ must know the property is stollen when he receives it.

27
Q

Rape (common law)

A

(1) unlawful
(2) sexual intercourse
(3) with a female who is not one’s wife
(4) against her will by force or threat of immediate force

28
Q

Kidnapping (common law)

A

(1) unlawful
(2) confinement of a person
(3) against that person’s will
(4) coupled with movement or hiding of the person

29
Q

False imprisonment (common law)

A

(1) unlawful
(2) confinement of a person
(3) without consent.

30
Q

Arson (common law)

A

(1) malicious (no specific intent)
(2) burning
(3) of a dwelling (must be dwelling at common law, but MBE sometimes makes right answer even if not dwelling)
(4) of another

31
Q

Solicitation

A

(1) enticing, encouraging, OR advising of another
(2) to commit a crime
(3) with intent that the other person commit the crime

At common law, no renunciation defense.

32
Q

Conspiracy (common law)

A

(1) Agreement
(2) between two or more persons (but not undercover agents or those who lack capacity to agree)
(3) to accomplish an unlawful purpose
(4) with intent to accomplish that person

Withdrawal = no defense at common law.

33
Q

Conspirator liability (common law)

A

Liable for unplanned crimes if they were (1) in furtherance of the conspiracy and (2) reasonably foreseeable.

34
Q

Attempt

A

(1) specific intent to commit a crime (even if general intent crime)
(2) substantial step toward commission of the crime.

35
Q

Merger (common law)

A

Cannot charge ∆ for both underlying crime and (1) solicitation or (2) intent. CAN charge with conspiracy.

36
Q

Accomplice liability (common law)

A

(1) Assists or encourages the crime AND
(2) intends for assistance to aid or encouraging the crime.

Withdrawal: Must

(1) repudiate prior aid
(2) do all that is possible to countermand prior assistance, AND
(3) de so before the chain of events is set in motion

37
Q

Self defense (common law)

A

∆ must be resisting immediate or imminent harm to himself. Can only use reasonable force (proportional). Cannot be the initial aggressor.

Deadly force only if (1) reasonably necessary to (2) prevent death, serious injury, or commission of serious felony.

No duty to retreat at common law.

38
Q

Defense of property (common law)

A

Cannot use deadly force.

39
Q

Durress

A

(1) third-party’s threat cases
(2) ∆ to reasonably believe that only way to avoid
(3) death or serious bodily injury to himself or another is to violate the law.

Never defense to intentional murder.

40
Q

Necessity

A

Forces of nature cause ∆ to commit a crime

41
Q

Entrapment

A

Law enforcement action induces someone to commit a crime.

Majority = (1) crime was induced by government official AND (2) ∆ was not predisposed to commit the crime

42
Q

Does the “force” element in robbery include giving the victim drugs that render him unconscious?

A

Yes

43
Q

Does fraudulent conduct that induces consent allow a ∆ to raise consent as a defense to rape?

A

Yes. Fraudulent conduct does not negate consent in most situations. Only negates consent if the fraud conceals the nature of the act.

44
Q

May an individual be charged with aiding and abetting a crime that necessarily requires 2 people to commit when the other person is the ∆?

A

No.

45
Q

What are the specific intent crimes?

A

“FIAT” =

(1) First-degree murder;
(2) Inchoate offenses (attempt, solicitation, conspiracy);
(3) Assault with intent to commit a battery;
(4) Theft offenses (larceny, larceny by trick, false pretenses, embezzlement, forgery, burglary, robbery).

46
Q

If one co-felon kills another co-felon during commission of a felony, can the co-felon be charged with felony murder?

A

Yes.

47
Q

Can a individual found guilty of a felony and felony murder be convicted with both felony murder and the underlying felony?

A

No. The felony conviction merges into the felony murder conviction.