Crim Law Flashcards
1
Q
- What law gave birth to the Revised Penal Code and when did it took effect?
a. RA 3518 Jan 1, 1932
c. Act 3815 Jan 1, 1932
b. RA 3815 Jan 1, 1923
d. Act 3185 Jan 1, 1932
A
c. Act 3815 Jan 1, 1932
2
Q
2. Which of the following is not a source of Philippine Penal Laws? a. Revised Penal Code c. Penal Presidential Decrees b. Special Penal Laws d. Legislative Decrees
A
d. Legislative Decrees
3
Q
3. One who while advance in age has a mental development comparable of that at child between 2 and 7 years old a. imbecile c. abnormal b. insane d. mentally retarded
A
a. imbecile
4
Q
4. The principle that sovereign and head of states are exempted from criminal liability is covered by. a. law of Foreign Affairs b. Law of Preferred Head of States c. Law of Preferential Applications d. Law of Preferential Treatment
A
c. Law of Preferential Applications
5
Q
5. A chronic nervous disease characterized by fits occurring at intervals and attended by conclusive motion of muscles. a. malaria c. somnambulism b. schizophrenia d. epilepsy
A
d. epilepsy
6
Q
6. Phil. Penal Law is applicable within Phil. Territory to include. a. its atmosphere c. its maritime b. its interior waters d. all of the above
A
d. all of the above
7
Q
7. Members of the Royal Family in England are called. a. Reverend c. Head of States b. Royalties d. Diplomatic Corps
A
b. Royalties
8
Q
8. What age is considered of total irresponsibility or without criminal liability? a. 8 c. 18 b. 16 d. 21
A
a. 8
9
Q
9. Obligation and securities of the Phil government refers to a. Letter of Credit c. Government Bond b. Foreign Investment d. Foreign Currencies
A
c. Government Bond
10
Q
10. Characteristics of criminal law wherein undertakes to punish all offenses committed within Phil territory. a. Letter of Credit c. Generality b. Territoriality d. Totality
A
b. Territoriality
11
Q
11. The condition sine-quanon or indispensable element in self defense. a. Provocation c. reasonable necessity b. unlawful aggression d. irresistible force
A
b. unlawful aggression
12
Q
12. Another word that means deceit? a. Dolo c. fault b. Culpa d. Negligence
A
a. Dolo
13
Q
13. Felonies punishable only when they are consummated. a. consumable felonies c. grave felonies b. less grave felonies d. light felonies
A
d. light felonies
14
Q
14. Primary source of Phil. Penal laws? a. Revised Penal Code c. Penal Pres. Decrees b. Special Penal Laws d. Penal Batas Pambansa
A
a. Revised Penal Code
15
Q
15. If the offense is committed on board a Philippine ship traveling at the China Sea, what law will apply? a. China Law c. International Law b. Maritime Law d. Philippine Law
A
c. International Law
16
Q
- Rebellion, sedition and treason are crime against?
a. public order and safetyc. national security
b. public and government service
d. national government
A
c. National security
17
Q
17. A policeman is considered as what kind of person? a. public official c. agents of person in authority b. public authority d. person in authority
A
c. agents of person in authority
18
Q
18. Power of the state to define and punish crime. a. police power c. execution power b. penal power d. judicial power
A
a. police power
19
Q
19. The word “ culpa” means a. lack of skill c. negligence b. lack of foresight d. all of the above
A
d. all of the above
20
Q
20. Which of the following is not place of worship? a. chapel c. mortuary b. mosque d. church
A
c. mortuary
21
Q
21. It is committed when a person who decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to another person. a. inducement c. conspiracy b. proposal d. instigation
A
b. proposal
22
Q
22. It is incurred by a person committing a felony although the wrongful act done be different from what he intended to do. a. felonious act c. criminal liability b. offense d. civil liability
A
c. criminal liability
23
Q
23. The simpliest meaning of the term evident premeditation a. deliberate intent c. treachery b. deliberate planning d. uninhabited place
A
a. deliberate intent
24
Q
24. Stage in the commission of a felony when all the elements necessary for its accomplishment and execution are present. a. attempted c. consummated b. frustrated d. enumerated
A
c. consummated
25
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25. Circumstance that could be either mitigating or aggravating.
a. exempting
c. alternative
b. mitigating
d. aggravating
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c. alternative
26
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26. Medical term for homicidal tendency.
a. somnabulism
c. epilepsy
b. dementia praecox
d. kleptomania
```
b. dementia praecox
27
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27. Select the persons not exempted from criminal liability
a. charges-de-affairs
c. consul
b. ministers
d. none of them
```
c. consul
28
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28. The criminal acts punished by the Revised Penal Code
a. felonies
c. offenses
b. crimes
d. misdemeanor
```
a. felonies
29
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29. In what offense is ignominy appreciated?
a. Parricide
c. Abduction
b. Rape
d. Seduction
```
b. Rape
30
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30. Infractions of law, the commission of which carries the penalty of Arresto Menor
a. felony
c. less grave felony
b. grave felony
d. light felony
```
d. light felony
31
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31. What is the first written criminal laws in the Philippines?
a. Code of Hamurabbi
c. Codigo Penal
b. Code of Kalantiaw
d. Code of Maragtas
```
b. Code of Kalantiaw
32
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32. A building or structure exclusively used for rest and comfort
a. hotel
c. dwelling
b. apartelle
d. hostel
```
c. dwelling
33
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33. It exists when two or more person comes to an agreement to commit a felony and decided to do it.
a. proposal
c. confederation
b. conspiracy
d. insurrection
```
b. conspiracy
34
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34. A swift attack on a military camp by elements of the PNP or AFP.
a. sedition
c. coup-de-etat
b. rebellion
d. insurrection
```
c. coup-de-etat
35
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35. Committed by a married woman who shall have sexual intercourse with another man not her husband.
a. bigamy
c. concubinage
b. infidelity
d. adultery
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d. adultery
36
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36. Offense covered by Phil Penal Laws even if committed outside the Phil.
a. Treason
c. Piracy
b. Skyjacking
d. all of these
```
d. all of these
37
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37. Legal term for Treachery?
a. nocturnity
c. solitude
b. alevosia
d. planning
```
b. alevosia
38
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38. What is the legal term for nighttime?
a. sanctuary
c. absurdity
b. ephitomy
d. nocturnity
```
d. nocturnity
39
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39. A person who forces or induces another to perform the criminal act is referred to as
a. mastermind
c. seducer
b. accomplice
d. principal
```
d. principal
40
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40. The employment of means of execution that gave the person attacked no opportunity to defend himself or retaliate.
a. ignominy
c. treachery
b. superior strength
d. cruelty
```
c. treachery
41
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41. It is a legislative enactment that inflicts punishment for a crime without judicial trial.
A. Ex post facto law
C. Enrolled bill
B. Bill of attainder
D. Expose facto law
```
B. Bill of attainder
42
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42. These are the rights of an accused that are derived from special laws enacted by Congress.
A. Constitutional rights
C. Civil rights
B. Statutory rights
D. Natural rights
```
B. Statutory rights
43
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43. These are agreements between independent states entered into by their authorized representatives and ratified by their legislature in accordance with their respective laws.
A. Executive agreements
B. Treaties
C. Treatises
D. Memoranda
```
B. Treaties
44
44. The following are exceptions to the general application of criminal laws, except:
A. laws of preferential application
C. principles of international law
B. treatise
D. treaty stipulations
B. treatise
45
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45. The following are exempt from the operation of our criminal laws, except:
A. ambassadors
C. minister plenipotentiary
B. consul general
D. minister resident
```
B. consul general
46
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46. The following felonies do not admit of a frustrated stage, except:
A. rape
B. physical injuries
C. adultery
D. theft
```
A. rape
47
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47. The following are the classifications of felonies according to gravity, except:
A. grave felonies
C. less grave felonies
B. light felonies
D. slight felonies.
```
D. slight felonies
48
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48. These are acts or omissions not expressly punished by a penal law but are nevertheless considered and punished as crimes.
A. Common crimes
C. Common law crimes
B. Common crimes law
D. Commonly crimes
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C. Common law crimes
49
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49. This branch of government has the power to define and punish crimes.
A. executive branch
C. judicial branch
B. legislative branch
D. none of the above
```
C. judicial branch
50
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50. It is a law that partially or totally modifies or changes an existing law.
A. Repealed law
C. Repelled law
B. Repealing law
D. Repelling law
```
B. Repealing law
51
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51. It is one of the basic characteristics of criminal laws.
A. Perspective
C. Proactive
B. Prospective
D. Retroactive
```
B. Prospective
52
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52. It is a characteristic of criminal laws that requires that they be applied to all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippine territory.
A. Generality
C. Territorially
B. Territoriality
D. Generally
```
A. Generality
53
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53. A proposal to commit the following felonies is punishable, except:
A. treason
B. rebellion
C. insurrection
D. sedition
```
D. sedition
54
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54. The evil intent in impossible crime cannot be accomplished because of the following reasons, except:
A. inherent impossibility
C. employment of inadequate means
B. employment of ineffectual means
D. none of the above
```
D. none of the above
55
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55. It is a crime in which the accomplishment of the evil intent was by reason of cause or accident other than the offender’s spontaneous desistance.
A. Attempted felony
C. Impossible crime
B. Frustrated felony
D. Indeterminate offense
```
A. Attempted felony
56
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56. It is a crime in which the specific or particular criminal intent of the offender cannot be determined such that he/she will only be charged with the crime that his/her acts constituted at the time he/she was stopped while committing an unlawful act:
A. Attempted felony
C. Impossible crime
B. Frustrated felony
D. Indeterminate offense
```
D. Indeterminate offense
57
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57. The following are light felonies punishable by the Revised Penal Code, except:
A. maltreatment
C. malicious mischief
B. alteration of boundary
D. intriguing against honor
```
A. maltreatment
58
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58. It is the rule followed by the Philippines whenever a crime is committed inside a Philippine ship or airship while in a foreign territory.
A. French Rule
B. Spanish Rule
C. English Rule
D. General Rule
```
C. English Rule
59
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59. The offender performs all acts of execution, that would produce the felony as a consequence, but the felony was not produced, by reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator are the requisites of:
A. attempted felony
C. consummated felony
B. frustrated felony
D. impossible crime.
```
B. frustrated felony
60
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60. When there is doubt as to the identity of the assailant, if evidence is merely circumstantial, and when there are no eyewitnesses to a crime are some of the instances when it becomes useful and necessary to show evidence of:
A. intent
B. motive
C. conspiracy
D. proposal
```
B. motive
61
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61. The following are the forms of civil liability or civil indemnity that a person convicted of a crime pays to the victim, EXCEPT:
A. reparation
C. indemnification
B. restitution
D. commutation
```
D. commutation
62
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62. The following are accessory penalties, EXCEPT:
A. fine
C. temporary absolute disqualification
B. suspension
D. perpetual special disqualification
```
A. fine
63
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63. The following are the kinds of penalties according to their gravity, EXCEPT:
A. capital punishment
C. correctional penalties
B. light penaltiesr
D. afflictive penalties
```
A. capital punishment
64
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64. The following are principal penalties, EXCEPT:
A. death
C. fine
B. bond to keep peace
D. suspension
```
B. bond to keep peace
65
65. The following relatives of an offender are exempt from criminal liability as accessories, EXCEPT:
```
A. spouse
B. mother
C. son
D. brother
E. none of the above.
```
E. none of the above
66
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66. The person, who is authorized by law to give pardon after an accused is convicted by final judgment of a felony, is:
A. President of the Philippines
C. Offended party
B. Director of Prisons
D. Offender
```
A. President of the Philippines
67
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67. The following are instances when criminal liability of an accused or convicted person are totally extinguished, except:
A. Amnesty
C. Absolute Pardon
B. Probation
D. Death of convict/accused
```
B. Probation
|
68
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68. The following are instances when criminal liability of an accused or convicted person are partially extinguished, except:
A. Parole
C. Commutation of sentence
B. Conditional Pardon
D. Allowance for good conduct
```
B. Conditional Pardon
69
69. Fine is an afflictive penalty if the amount thereof is:
A. more than P6,000
C. P200 to P6,000 B. more than 12,000
D. P200 to 12,000
A. more than P6,000
70
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70. The person, who is authorized by law to give allowance for good conduct to a convict serving sentence, is:
A. President of the Philippines
C. Trial Court Judge
B. Director of Prisons
D. Jail Warden
```
D. Jail Warden
|
71
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71. The person, who is authorized by law to grant probation to an accused convicted of a crime, is:
A. President of the Philippines
C. Trial Court Judge
B. Director of Prisons
D. Jail Warden
```
C. Trial Court Judge
72
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72. Fine is a correctional penalty if the amount thereof is:
A. more than P6,000
C. P200 to P6,000
B. more than 12,000
D. P200 to 12,000
```
C. P200 to P6,000
73
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73. The following are instances when death penalty cannot be imposed, except:
A. accused is 71 years old
C. accused is a minor
B. accused is 70 years old
D. accused is pregnant
```
B. accused is 70 years old
74
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74. A crime punishable by reclusion temporal prescribes in:
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 5 years
```
A. 20 years
75
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75. A crime punishable by arresto mayor prescribes in:
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 5 years
```
D. 5 years
76
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76. A crime punishable by correctional penalty prescribes in:
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 5 years
```
C. 10 years
77
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77 The penalty of reclusion temporal prescribes in:
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 5 years
```
B. 15 years
78
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78. A correctional penalty prescribes in:
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 5 years
```
10 years
79
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79. A light penalty prescribes in:
A. 10 years
B. 5 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months
```
C. 1 year
80
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80. A light offense prescribes in:
A. 10 years
B. 5 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months
```
C. 1 year
81
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81. The following are crimes against chastity, EXCEPT:
A. adultery
C. rape
B. concubinage
D. seduction
```
C. rape
82
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82. The following are crimes committed by public officers , EXCEPT:
A. direct bribery
C. illegal use of public funds
B. indirect bribery
D. none of these
```
D. none of these
83
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83. The following are crimes against property, EXCEPT:
A. robbery
C. malicious mischief
B. arson
D. estafa
```
D. estafa
84
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84. The following are principal penalties, EXCEPT:
A. death
C. fine
B. bond to keep peace
D. suspension
```
B. bond to keep peace
85
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85. The following relatives of an offended party are exempt from criminal liability in theft, estafa, and malicious mischief, EXCEPT:
A. spouse
B. mother
C. son
D. grandfather
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D. grandfather
86
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86. It refers to the improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.
A. Nonfeasance
C. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance
D. Unfeasance
```
B. Misfeasance
87
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87. It refers to the failure to perform an act that is required to be done.
A. Nonfeasance
C. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance
D. Unfeasance
```
A. Nonfeasance
88
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88. It refers to the performance of an act that ought not to be done.
A. Nonfeasance
C. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance
D. Unfeasance
```
C. Malfeasance
89
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89. Fine is an afflictive penalty if the amount thereof is:
A. more than P6,000
C. P200 to P6,000
B. more than 12,000
D. P200 to 12,000
```
A. more than P6,000
90
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90. It refers to the final determination by a Court of competent jurisdiction of the issues submitted to in a case such that after it is issued, the case ends if the losing party does not appeal.
A. interlocutory order
B. summons
C. subpoena
D. judgment
```
D. judgment
91
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91. It refers to a resolution of the Court on collateral or incidental matters while a case is being heard; it is not a final determination of the main issue in the case.
A. interlocutory order
B. summons
C. subpoena
D. judgment
```
A. interlocutory order
92
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92. It is the felony committed by a public officer, who is maliciously fails to prosecute an offense.
A. prevaricacion
C. prevericacion
B. prevaricacion
D. postvaricacion
```
A. prevaricacion
93
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93. It is also known as “crime of the giver” when a private person gives money to a public officer so that he will do something favorable to the giver
A. direct bribery
C. corruption of a public official
B. indirect bribery
D. accused is pregnant
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C. corruption of a public official
94
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94, It is also known as “crime of the receiver” when a private person gives money to a public officer so that he will do something favorable to the giver and the public officer accepts it.
A. direct bribery
C. corruption of a public official
B. indirect bribery
D. qualified bribery
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A. direct bribery
95
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95. It is a crime of giving a public officer money or any gift in consideration of his position or office.
A. direct bribery
C. corruption of public official
B. indirect bribery
D. qualified bribery
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B. indirect bribery
96
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96, It is the special law that punishes plunder.
A. R.A. No. 7080
C. R.A. No. 3019
B. R.A. No. 7610
D. R.A. No. 1379
```
A. R.A. No. 7080
97
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97. It is the crime committed when a public officer uses public funds for his own personal benefit or for the benefit of another person.
A. illegal use of public funds
C. plunder
B. malversation of public funds
D. none of the above
```
B. malversation of public funds
98
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98. It is the crime committed when a public officer uses public funds for another public use other than the purpose for which the fund is intended.
A. illegal use of public funds
C. plunder
B. malversation of public funds
D. none of the above
```
A. illegal use of public funds
99
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99. It is a crime committed when a married woman is taken away against her will with lewd design.
A. forcible abduction
C. forcible seduction
B. consented abduction
D. qualified seduction
```
A. forcible abduction
100
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100. It is the felony committed when a person takes away a minor, over 12 but under years of age, with her consent, after solicitation or cajolery from the offender, committed with lewd design.
A. forcible abduction
C. forcible seduction
B. consented abduction
D. qualified seduction
```
B. consented abduction
101
121. Commonly used for evidence excluded by the Constitution. A judicially created remedy which provides that evidence obtained in violation of the accused constitutional rights must be suppressed from the government’s case in chief.
a. Search warrant
c. Exclusionary Rules
b. doctrine of fruit of poisonous treed. d. Substantial evidence
c. Exclusionary Rules
102
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122. Is an order in writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by a judge directing a law enforcement officer to locate for personal property described therein and bring it before the court.
a. Warrant of Arrest
c. Search warrant
b. Subpoena
d. Exclusionary rules
```
c. Search warrant
103
123. Also known as “but for” or taint doctrine.
a. Exclusionary Rules
c. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree
b. Search Warrant
d. Warrant of Arrest
c. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree
104
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124. ______is more than a mere scintilla. It means such relevant evidence as a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to support a conclusion.
a. Circumstantial evidence
c. Substantial evidence
b. Preponderance of evidence
d. Corpus delicti
```
c. Substantial evidence
105
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125. Is the proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the existence of the particular fact in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence.
a. Substantial evidence
c. Circumstantial evidence
b. Preponderance evidence
d. Corpus delicti
```
c. Circumstantial evidence
106
126. Are admissions, made out of court, or in a judicial proceeding other than the one under consideration.
a. Extra-Judicial Admission
c. Admission
b. Judicial Admission
d. Confession
a. Extra-Judicial Admission
107
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127. Is a voluntary acknowledgment in express terms or by implication, by a party interest or by another by whose statement he is legally bound, against his interest, of the existence or truth of a fact in dispute material to issue.
a. Admission
c. Extra-Judicial Admission
b. Judicial Admission
d. Confession
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b. Judicial Admission
108
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128. Is the declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged, or of any offense necessarily included therein, may be given in evidence against him.
a. Confession
c. Admission
b. Extra-Judicial Confession
d. Extra-judicial Admission
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a. Confession
109
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129.____ is the document whose contents are to be proved.
a. Original of a document
c. Best Evidence
b. Documentary evidence
d. Secondary evidence
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a. Original of a document
110
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130. That which consists of writings or any material containing letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols or other modes of written expressions offered as proof of their contents.
a. Documentary evidence
c. Original of a document
b. Best evidence
d. Secondary evidence
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a. Documentary evidence
111
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131. Rule which requires the highest grade of evidence obtainable to prove a disputed fact is the original of a document.
a. Parole Evidence Rule
c. Original of a document
b. Best Evidence Rule
d. Secondary Evidence
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b. Best Evidence Rule
112
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132. Is that which shows that better, or primary evidence exists as to the proof of a fact in question.
a. Parole evidence
c. Original of a document
b. Secondary evidence
d. Best evidence rule
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b. Secondary evidence
113
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133. Is a rule which forbids any addition to or contradiction of the terms of a written instrument by testimony purporting to show that, at or, before the signing, of the document, other or different terms were orally agreed upon by the parties.
a. Best Evidence Rule
c. Original of a Document
b. Parole Evidence Rule
d. Secondary evidence
```
b. Parole Evidence Rule
114
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134. ____is meant the legal fitness or ability of a witness to be heard on the trial of a cause.
a. Qualification of a witness
c. Marital Disqualification
b. Competency of witness
d. Dead Man’s Statute Rule
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b. Competency of witness
115
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135. A rule which forbids husband and wife, during their marriage, from testifying for or against the other without the consent of the affected spouses except in some circumstances.
a. Disqualification of witness
c. Dead Man’s Statute Rule
b. Marital Disqualification
d. Privilege Communication rule
```
b. Marital Disqualification
116
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136. Parties or assignors of parties to a case, or persons in whose behalf a case is prosecuted, against an executor or administrator or other representative of a deceased person, or against a person of unsound mind, upon a claim or demand against the estate of such deceased person or against such person of unsound mind, cannot testify as to any matter of fact accruing before the death of such deceased person or before such person became of unsound mind.
a. Marital Disqualification
c. Parental and filial privilege
b. Privilege Communication Rule
d. Dead Man’s Statute Rule
```
d. Dead Man’s Statute Rule
117
137. Rule which provides that a communication made in good faith on any subject matter in which the communicator has an interest, or concerning which he has a duty, is privileged if made to a person having a corresponding interest or duty, although it contains incriminatory matter which, without the privilege, would be libelous and actionable.
a. Parental and filial privilege rule
c. Marital Disqualification
b. Dead Man’s Statute Rule
d. Privilege Communication Rule
d. Privilege Communication Rule
118
138. Is an agreement made between two or more parties as a settlement of matters in dispute.
a. Conspiracy
c. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
b. Settlement
d. Compromise
d. Compromise
119
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139. Provides that the right of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of another unless it falls under the exceptional circumstances.
a. Privies
c. Compromise
b. Conspiracy
d. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
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d. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
120
140. Requisite before recall of a witness.
a. Leading Question
c. Impeachment
b. Misleading Question
d. Leave of Court
d. Leave of Court
121
141. Jurisdiction of courts is conferred by the –
a. Rules of Court,
b. Constitution and the Law,
c. parties of the case,
d. the Revised Penal Code.
a. Rules of Court
122
142. Penalty for the offense charged also determines jurisdiction –
a. wholly correct,
b. incorrect,
c. partly correct,
d. partly incorrect.
a. wholly correct
123
143. The illegality of an arrest or the validity of the warrant issued can be questioned by the person arrested before the court at any time
a. before posting his bail,
b. before entering a plea,
c. before pre- trial,
d. during the trial proper.
b. before entering a plea,
124
144. The warrant of arrest may be executed by the Barangay Tanod –
a. wholly correct
b. wholly incorrect,
c. partly correct,
d. partly incorrect.
b. wholly incorrect
125
145. Under the law, what agency that is empowered to order the change of venue or place of trial in order to prevent the miscarriage of justice –
a. DOJ,
b. Supreme Court,
c. Executive Judge,
d. Regional state Prosecutor.
b. Supreme Court
126
146. Jurisdiction over the subject matter is determined by the –
a. nature of the offense,
b. gravity of the offense,
c. investigating officer,
d. presiding judge.
a. nature of the offense
127
147. The offender who is still under investigation by the police
a. respondent,
b. suspect,
c. accused,
d. plaintiff.
b. suspect,
128
148. Refers to facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believed that an offense ha been committed and that an object sought in connection with the offense are in the place to be searched is
a. probable cause,
b. search warrant,
c. plain view doctrine,
d. arrest warrant.
a. probable cause,
129
149. The method prescribed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of a person who might have committed a crime and for his punishment in case of conviction of acquittal in case he is found innocent is
a. criminal jurisprudence,
b. criminal law,
c. criminal procedure,
d. criminal jurisdiction.
c. criminal procedure
130
150. The law that prescribes certain rights of a person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation and guidelines, procedure and responsibilities of arresting, detaining and investigating officer is
(a. ) B.P. 129, as amended,
(b. ) R.A. 7691,
(c. ) R.A. 8294,
(d. ) R.A. 7438.
(d.) R.A. 7438
