Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PRAY > Crim Juris N Procedure > Flashcards

Crim Juris N Procedure Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is a compound crime?
    A. A man fired his revolver twice in succession directed against two different persons, killing one person and the other;
    B. NONE of these
    C. Placing a time bomb in a plane, which cause it to explode in mid air killing 13 persons therein;
    D. The accused fired his Thompson sub machine gun at several persons. The first burst of shots hit three persons. The accused let loose a second burst of shots wounding 2 others.
A

C. Placing a time bomb in a plane, which cause it to explode in mid air killing 13 persons therein;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. When may a person be arrested without a warrant?
    A. When an offense has just been committed and the arresting officer or private person has probable cause to believe based on personal knowledge of facts or circumstances that a person to be arrested has committed it;
    B. All of these
    C. When the person to be arrested is a prisoner who has just escaped from a penal establishment, etc.;
    D. When in the presence of the arresting officer or private person, the person to be arrested has committed, is actually committing or is attempting to commit an offense.
A

B. All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
3. Which aggravating circumstance generally, can be applied to all offenses like dwelling, recidivism, in consideration of price, reward or promise?
A. Specific​​​
C. Qualifying
B. Inherent
​​D. Generic
A

D. Generic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
4. A suspected arsonist was caught. Evidence showed that he poured gasoline under the house of another and was about to strike the match to set the house on fire when he was apprehended. What crime was committed, if there is any?
A. Frustrated arson​​
C. Attempted arson
B. Consummated arson ​​
D. NONE of these
A

C. Attempted arson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
5. Which of the following crimes over which the Philippine laws have jurisdiction even if committed outside the country?
A. Espionage
​C. Treason
B. Piracy and Mutiny​​
D. All of these
A

D. All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. In filling a complaint or information, how is the real nature of the crime charged determined?
    A. Law specifically violated;
    B. Facts recited in the complaint or information;
    C. Title at the charge sheet;
    D. Evidences to be presented.
A

A. Law specifically violated;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true?
    A. In justifying circumstance, there is no civil liability except in causing damage to another in state of necessity;
    B. A person who acts by virtue of a justifying circumstance does not transgress the law because there is nothing unlawful in the act as well as the intention of the actor;
    C. NONE of these
    D. In exempting circumstance there is a crime but there is no criminal.
A

C. NONE of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. For a waiver of the rights of a person under custodial investigation to be valid, how must it be made?
    A. All of these
    B. Voluntarily, intelligently and knowingly;
    C. Waiver in writing;
    D. With counsel presence and assistance.
A

A. All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which of the following is an exempted circumstance?
    A. An act done under the impulse of an uncontrollable fear of an equal or greater injury;
    B. An act done in obedience to an order by a superior for some lawful purpose;
    C. Having acted upon an impulse so powerful as to have naturally produced passion and obfuscation;
    D. An act done in fulfillment of a duty or in the lawful exercise of a right or office.
A

A. An act done under the impulse of an uncontrollable fear of an equal or greater injury;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. The legal duty of a prosecuting officer to file charges against whomsoever the evidence may show to be responsible for the offense means that ___________.
    A. NONE of these
    B. Prosecutor has no discretion at all;
    C. Prosecutor has all the discretion;
    D. Discretion in determining evidence submitted justifies a responsible belief that a person committed an offense.
A

D. Discretion in determining evidence submitted justifies a responsible belief that a person committed an offense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
11. Accused was convicted of Homicide on September 15, 1983. No appeal was made; judgment became final on October 1, 1983. He got his second conviction rendered on October 26, 1983 for Murder. He is called by law as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Hardened criminal
​C. Recidivist
B. Habitual offender
​D. Habitual delinquent
A

B. Habitual offender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
12. Speedy Gonzales (SG), the accused saw a 28-year-old Ms. Jenny near the gate of her residence. Without a word, SG kissed Ms. Jenny on the cheek and basked softly his hands on to her left breast. No one saw the incident. In a minute, SG left Ms. Jenny, who got shocked and speechless. What crime did SG if any commit?
A. Acts of lasciviousness
​C. Unjust vexation
B. Attempted rape
​D. Seduction
A

A. Acts of lasciviousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which of the following circumstances are considered mitigating?
    A. All of these
    B. Offender has no intention to commit so grave a wrong as that committed;
    C. Offender is over seventy (70) years old;
    D. Incomplete justifying and incomplete exempt service
A

A. All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which is not a common requisite in justifying circumstances of self-defense, defense of relative and defense of stranger?
    A. NONE of these
    B. Unlawful aggression;
    C. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it;
    D. The person defending be not induced by revenge, resentment, or other evil motive.
A

A. NONE of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
15. Which of the following is exempted from criminal liability?
A. All of these
​​C. Insane
B. Imbecile ​
D. Moron
A

A. All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
16. What is that accusation made in writing charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the prosecutor and filed with the court?
A. Counter affidavit​
C. Affidavit
B. Information ​
D. Complaint
A

B. Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which among the following is NOT a requisite for evident premeditation and therefore should NOT be appreciated?
    A. One day meditation/reflection and offered reward to killer;
    B. Sudden outburst of anger
    C. Sufficient interval of time between time crime was conceived and actual perpetration;
    D. Time when offender planned to commit the offense.
A

B. Sudden outburst of anger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of these is NOT a requisite of “avoidance of greater evil or injury?”
    A. That the injury feared be greater than the injury done to avoid it;
    B. That the means used to avoid the injury is lawful;
    C. That the evil sought to be avoided actually exists;
    D. That there be no practical or less harmful means of preventing it.
A

That the means used to avoid the injury is lawful;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
19. What is the period of prescription of crimes punishable death, reclusion perpetua or temporal?
A. 15 years​​
C. 20 years
B. 5 years​
D. 10 years
A

C. 20 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
20. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
A. Lack of skill
​C. Negligence
B. Imprudence 
​D. Intent
A

​D. Intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
21. If Denia slapped Rica’s face in front of a lot of people in a party, what crime did Denia commit?
A. Unjust vexation​
C. Physical injury
B. Slander by deed
​​D. Malicious mischief
A

B. Slander by deed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
22. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with the offense are in place to be searched.
A. Probable cause
​​C. NONE of these
B. Warrant of arrest ​
D. Search warrant
A

A. Probable cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Which is NOT a requisite before a court can validly exercise its power to hear and try a case?
    A. NONE of these
    B. It must have jurisdiction over the subject matter;
    C. It must have jurisdiction over the person of the accused;
    D. It must have jurisdiction over the territory where the offense was committed.
A

A. NONE of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
24. A’s superior officer fired him for no apparent reason. A lit a rag soaked with petroleum and placed it near the wooden wall of his office to get even. Only a small portion of the wall got burned because another employee put out the fire. What crime was committed by A?
A. Frustrated arson​
C. Arson
B. Attempted arson
​D. Consummated arson
A

C. Arson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. When charges for offenses are founded on the same facts or that which form part of a series of offenses of the same character, the court may decide to:
    A. Decide to obviate delay by continuing proceedings;
    B. Set the cases for consolidated case raffle;
    C. Pursue separate trials;
    D. Consolidate trials.
A

B. Set the cases for consolidated case raffle;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
26. Which of the following does NOT justify arrest without warrant?
A. Continuing crime
B. Arrest based on police suspicion
C. Emergency doctrine
D. Hot pursuit
A

B. Arrest based on police suspicion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
27. This characteristic of criminal law is enounced in Article 366 of the Revised Penal Code: crimes are punished under the laws; in force at the time of their commission.
A. Prospective
​C. Territorial
B. General ​
D. Preferential
A

A. Prospective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
28. When a person within a period of ten years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, robberies, theft, estafa or falsification, if found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener, it is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Quasi-recidivism
B. Reiteration or habituality
C. Habitual delinquency
D. Recidivism
A

C. Habitual delinquency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Can a private person have the right to break into a building?
    A. No, the right is accorded only to public officials;
    B. Yes, only if such breaking is necessary in making an arrest for a felony or to prevent the commission of the offense;
    C. No
    D. Yes
A

B. Yes, only if such breaking is necessary in making an arrest for a felony or to prevent the commission of the offense;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Which is the hearsay evidence rule?
    A. Witness can testify only to those facts derived directly confided to him;
    B. Witness cannot testify what he overheard;
    C. Witness is an expert testimony;
    D. Witness can testify only to the facts derived from his perception.
A

D. Witness can testify only to the facts derived from his perception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
31. Which characteristic of criminal law is described by the following statement: criminal laws are undertaken to punish crimes committed in Philippine territory.
A. General​
C. Prospective
B. Preferential ​​
D. Territorial
A

D. Territorial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
32. There are three types of criminal procedure: the accusatorial, the inquisitorial and what is the other type?
A. Mixed​​
C. Peculiar
B. Secular ​
D. Directorial
A

A. Mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. A public officer appropriating public funds and misappropriating public property are examples of what kind of an offense?
    A. NONE of these
    B. Malversation
    C. Possession of prohibited interest by a public officer
    D. Fraud
A

B. Malversation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. What will be the effect on the criminal liability of the accused who was sane when he committed the crime, but becomes insane at the time of the trial?
    A. He is exempt from criminal liability under paragraph 1 of Article 12 of the Revised Penal Code;
    B. He is still criminally liable but his trial will be suspended until his mental capacity will be restored to afford a fair trial;
    C. His criminal liability will be extinguished;
    D. NONE of these
A

B. He is still criminally liable but his trial will be suspended until his mental capacity will be restored to afford a fair trial;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q 
35. When is jurisdiction over the person of the accused acquired?
A. Some of these
B. Upon his receipt of summons
C. Upon his arrest
D. Upon his voluntary appearance
A

B. Upon his receipt of summons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
36. What power promotes the public welfare by restraining and regulating the use of liberty and property?
A. Law enforcement​
C. Eminent domain
B. All of these​​
D. Police
A

B. All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. What is the effect of the death of the offended party in a criminal action of libel?
    A. No effect at all
    B. The criminal liability is partially extinguished;
    C. The criminal liability is extinguished;
    D. The criminal liability is not extinguished.
A

D. The criminal liability is not extinguished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
    A. In vindication, the grave offense must be made directly only to the person committing the felony;
    B. In vindication, the vindication of the grave offense must be proximate which admits of an interval of time between the grave offense done by the offender and the commission of the crime by the accused;
    C. In provocation, it is necessary that the provocation or threat immediately preceded the act, or there must be no interval of time between the provocation and the commission of crime;
    D. In provocation, the cause that brought about the provocation need not be a grave offense.
A

In provocation, the cause that brought about the provocation need not be a grave offense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q 
39. One of the two requisites of admissibility of evidence is when it is relevant to the issue and what is the other requisite?
A. It observes continuity of rules;
B. It is not excluded by the law;
C. It multiplies admissibility chances;
D. It has a heavy weight of evidence.
A

B. It is not excluded by the law;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q 
40. Who is exempt in all cases, from criminal liability?
A. A person under nine years of age
B. An insane
C. An imbecile
D. Some of these
A

A. A person under nine years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
41. Which is a form of slight physical injury in the list below?
A. Maltreatment​​
C. 3rd degree burn
B. Loss of eye
​D. Mutilation
A

A. Maltreatment

42
Q 
42. A 41-year-old man had a carnal knowledge with a 25-year-old woman who for reason of mental abnormality has a mental capacity of an 11 year old. However, the woman consented to such carnal act. What is the effect of such consent?
A. There is mitigating circumstances
B. Rape was committed
C. There is aggravating circumstance
D. There is no rape
A

A. There is mitigating circumstances

43
Q 
Which of the following terms means resorting to any device to conceal identity?
A. Disguise​
C. Craft
B. NONE of these​
D. Fraud
A

A. Disguise

44
Q 
44. Which of the following constitutes waiver of any irregularity attending arrest?
A. Posting of bail
B. Filling a petition for bail
C. Entering a plea
D. All of these
A

B. Filling a petition for bail

45
Q 
45. The law governing the Witness Protection, Security and Benefit Program is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. R. A. 8551​
C. R. A. 6981
B. R. A. 6975
​D. R. A. 4864
A

C. R. A. 6981

46
Q 
46. B stabbed the victim, a 12-year-old girl and while already at the threshold of death, B raped her. What crime was committed?
A. Murder
​C. Rape
B. NONE of these​
D. Homicide
A

A. Murder

47
Q
  1. What is NOT an element of knowingly rendering unjust judgment?
    A. That the judgment is valid
    B. Offender is a judge
    C. That he render a judgment in a case submitted to him for decision
    D. NONE of these
A

A. That the judgment is valid

48
Q 
48. How is accidental drunkenness appreciated as a circumstance in commission of offense?
A. Exempting ​​
C. Mitigating
B. Justifying ​
D. Aggravating
A

C. Mitigating

49
Q
  1. Which of the following is a mitigating circumstance?
    A. Having acted upon an impulse so powerful as naturally to have produced passion and obfuscation;
    B. An act done in obedience to an order by a superior for more lawful purpose;
    C. An act done under the impulse of an uncontrollable fear of an equal or greater injury;
    D. An act done under the compulsion of an irresistible force.
A

A. Having acted upon an impulse so powerful as naturally to have produced passion and obfuscation;

50
Q
  1. Under the Local Government Code of 1991, what is the condition precedent that must be satisfied before the institution of a criminal action in court?
    A. Settlement has been repudiated
    B. Certification of no conciliation
    C. Confrontation between parties at the lupon level
    D. All of these
A

B. Certification of no conciliation

51
Q 
51. What is meant by a “demurrer to evidence”?
A. Motion to inhibit
​C. Motion to deny
B. Motion to dismiss​
D. Motion to postpone
A

B. Motion to dismiss​

52
Q
  1. Which among the following document is NOT a public document?
    A. Accomplished municipal form wit NO signature
    B. Deed of absolute sale duly notarized
    C. Marriage certificates that are Xeroxed
    D. Baptismal certificate
A

A. Accomplished municipal form with NO signature

53
Q 
53. Who are considered persons in authority?
A. Teacher
​C. All of these
B. Policeman​
D. Barangay captain
A

D. Barangay captain

54
Q
  1. What must evidence be in order to become relevant to the issue?
    A. Not be excluded by the rules
    B. Not be offensive to our senses
    C. Should not be contrary morals
    D. Have a direct bearing and actual connection to the facts in issue.
A

D. Have a direct bearing and actual connection to the facts in issue.

55
Q 
55. In which of the following offices should information be filed?
A. Prosecutor
​C. Police
B. Barangay ​
D. Courts
A

A. Prosecutor

56
Q 
56. What is that taking of person into custody so he can answer for the commission of the offense?
A. Imprisonment​
C. Confinement
B. Bail 
​​D. Arrest
A

​​D. Arrest

57
Q
  1. What shall a peace officer do if he is refused admittance into a building where the person to be arrested is believed to be in?
    A. Wait outside until the person to be arrested decides to leave the building;
    B. After announcing his authority and purpose, the peace officer may break into any building or enclosure where the person to be arrested is or is reasonably believed to be;
    C. NONE of these
    D. Leave the building and secure a court order to break into the building.
A

D. Leave the building and secure a court order to break into the building.

58
Q 
58. What is that system of criminal procedure where the detection and prosecution of offenders are not left to the initiative of private parties but to the officials and agents of the law? Resort is made to secret inquiry to discover the culprit and violence and torture were often employed to extract a confession. The judge is not limited to the evidence brought before him but could proceed with his own inquiry which is NOT confrontative.
A. Mixed system​​
C. Inquisitorial
B. Accusatorial ​
D. NONE of these
A

C. Inquisitorial

59
Q
  1. What is the best remedy of a person who is accused under a wrong name?
    A. Ignore the charge
    B. Enter a plea of NOT guilty
    C. File a motion to quash on the ground of lack of jurisdiction
    D. NONE of these
A

C. File a motion to quash on the ground of lack of jurisdiction

60
Q
  1. What is the rule in criminal law about doubts?
    A. Proven doubts should be resolved in favor of the defendant
    B. All doubts should be resolved in favor of the accused
    C. Verified doubts shall be resolved in favor of the accused
    D. A doubt duly annotated is resolved in favor of the accused.
A

C. Verified doubts shall be resolved in favor of the accused

61
Q 
61. What may be established by common reputation?
A. NONE of these
B. Individual moral character
C. Verbal act
D. Lifestyle
A

B. Individual moral character

62
Q
  1. In the conduct of searches and seizure, what is the proper time in making the search?
    A. All of these
    B. It must be directed in the day time
    C. It musty be directed at any time if the day if property is in the place ordered to be searched
    D. It must be directed to be served any time of the day or night if the property is on the person.
A

A. All of these

63
Q 
63. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an act of grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution of laws which exempts the individual on whom it is bestowed from the punishment the law inflicts for the crime committed.
A. Amnesty​
C. NONE of these
B. Probation ​
D. Pardon
A

D. Pardon

64
Q 
64. In a fit of jealousy, Dovie set fire on the “Banana Republic” boxer shorts of her boyfriend, Fred. What crime did Dovie commit?
A. Malicious mischief​​
C. Slight physical injury
B. Reckless imprudence​
D. Arson
A

A. Malicious mischief​​

65
Q
  1. What is the duty of the prosecutor when he is said to “direct and control” the prosecution of a criminal case?
    A. To submit himself to the wishes of the court
    B. To turn over the presentation of evidence
    C. To be physically present during the proceedings
    D. To impose his opinion to the trial court
A

B. To turn over the presentation of evidence

66
Q 
66. Which among the following, best describes the moving power, which impels one to action for a definite result?
A. Mala in se​
C. Motive
B. Ignomita Facti Excusa​
D. Intent
A

C. Motive

67
Q
  1. Which ground for motion to quash is not waived even if NOT alleged?
    A. NONE of these
    B. Substantial non-conformity to the prescribed form
    C. Failure to charge an offense
    D. The officer who filed the action is not authorized.
A

C. Failure to charge an offense

68
Q 
68. What are those circumstances that affect criminal liability because of the conditions, which make the act voluntary, or that negligence is wanting as an agent of the crime.
A. Exempting circumstance​​
C. Mitigating circumstance
B. Justifying circumstance
​D. Aggravating circumstance
A

A. Exempting circumstance​

69
Q
  1. Which of the choices below is among the rights of the accused?
    A. All of these
    B. To have a speedy, impartial and public trial
    C. To be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him
    D. To be presumed innocent until the contrary is proved beyond reasonable doubt.
A

A. All of these

70
Q 
70. X, with the intention to kill O, loaded his gun and went to the house of O. He found him sleeping on his bed. He fired all the bullets at O, without knowing that three hours before, he died of cardiac attack. What crime did X commit?
A. Intentional felony
​C. Murder
B. Homicide ​​
D. Impossible crime
A

D. Impossible crime

71
Q 
71. Grave abuse of confidence alleged in the information is what kind of aggravating circumstance?
A. Generic
​​​C. Qualifying
B. Inherent ​
D. Specific
A

A. Generic

72
Q 
72. What is the basis of exempting a person from criminal liability under Article 12 of the Revised Penal Code?
A. All of these
B. Complete absence of intelligence
C. Complete absence of freedom of action
D. Complete absence of intent
A

A. All of these

73
Q
  1. What is the question, which arises in a case, the resolution of which is a logical antecedent of the issues involved in said case, and the cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal?
    A. Any of these
    B. Justifiable question
    C. Both justifiable and prejudicial question
    D. Prejudicial question
A

B. Justifiable question

74
Q 
74. A man killed a child. What would be a proper charge?
A. Infanticide
B. Murder qualified by treachery
C. Homicide
D. Murder
A

D. Murder

75
Q 
75. Defendants John and Levy made an appeal from a judgment that convicted them of illegal importation of opium. One of the errors assigned as claimed, is “permitting the government principal witness to be in the courtroom while other witnesses were testifying. The exclusion of the witnesses by the court is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Decided upon by the court
B. NOT sanctioned by the rules of court
C. Strictly prohibited by law
D. An error in judgment
A

B. NOT sanctioned by the rules of court

76
Q 
75. Defendants John and Levy made an appeal from a judgment that convicted them of illegal importation of opium. One of the errors assigned as claimed, is “permitting the government principal witness to be in the courtroom while other witnesses were testifying. The exclusion of the witnesses by the court is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Decided upon by the court
B. NOT sanctioned by the rules of court
C. Strictly prohibited by law
D. An error in judgment
A

B. NOT sanctioned by the rules of court

77
Q
  1. Mayoralty candidates A & B in the city of Calamba are contesting each other’s votes garnered during the last election. In this case, what could be the best evidence to present in court?
    A. Ballots​​
    C. Certification by the board of canvassers
    B. Witnesses ​
    D. Registration of voters
A

A. Ballots

78
Q
  1. Which is NOT a requisite in “obedience to an order issued for more lawful purpose”?
    A. That the means used by the subordinate to carry out said order is lawful
    B. NONE of these
    C. That an order has been issued by a superior
    D. That an order has been issued for some lawful purpose
A

B. NONE of these

79
Q
  1. What is meant by “discernment” under paragraph 3 Article 12 of the Revised Penal Code?
    A. It is the mental capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong
    B. It is the mental capacity of a minor between 9 and 15 years of age to fully appreciate the consequences
    C. It is the ability to grasp the significant factors of a complex problem of a new situation
    D. Some of these
A

B. It is the mental capacity of a minor between 9 and 15 years of age to fully appreciate the consequences

80
Q 
79. When Juan starts to commit indirectly by overt acts, a crime under the Revised Penal Code, but does NOT perform all the acts of its execution because of an accident other than his own spontaneous desistance, what stage in the commission of crime would his case fall?
A. Frustrated
​C. None of these
B. Consummated ​
D. Attempted
A

D. Attempted

81
Q 
80. Who among the following is NOT an agent of a person in authority?
A. Post master
​​​C. All of them
B. Policemen ​
D. Municipal treasurer
A

A. Post master

82
Q
  1. What is an effect of pardon by the President?
    A. None of these
    B. The pardoning power can be exercised even before conviction
    C. The pardoning power of the president can be exercised only after conviction
    D. The pardoning power does not extent to cases of impeachment
A

A. None of these

83
Q 
82. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the use of any device or articles by the accused to conceal his identity.
A. Mistaken identity​
C. Cover
B. Craft ​​
D. Disguise
A

D. Disguise

84
Q
  1. What is the importance of classifying felonies based on gravity of penalty?
    A. All of these
    B. It ascertains whether the suspect is detainable or not;
    C. It gives a period that he may be legally detainable;
    D. It determines whether the case if for inquest or not.
A

A. All of these

85
Q 
84. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for a past offense and is rarely, if ever, exercised in behalf of certain classes of persons, who are subject to trial but were not yet convicted.
A. Amnesty
​​C. NONE of these
B. Probation ​
D. General Pardon
A

A. Amnesty

86
Q 
85. Crimes against religious worship are of two kinds: One is interruption of religious worship and the other is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. NONE of these
B. Usurpation of power
C. Offending the religious feelings
D. Revelation of religious secrets
A

C. Offending the religious feelings

87
Q
  1. An example of alternative circumstance would be _________.
    A. All of these
    B. Degree of instruction and education of the offender;
    C. Intoxication
    D. Relationship of the offender and the offended party.
A

A. All of these

88
Q
  1. Which of the following cases fall within the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial Court, Municipal Trial and Municipal Circuit Trial Court?
    A. Accion Publiciana
    B. Probationable cases
    C. Violation of city or municipal ordinances
    D. Offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua
A

B. Probationable cases

89
Q
  1. Noemi, a minor pretended she was of legal age and executed a deed of sale where she sold a property she inherited in favor of Mrs. Ting. After the consummation of said contract, what legal action can Noemi take?
    A. She can rescind the contract
    B. She can recover the property on the ground of estoppel
    C. She can recover the property by seeking annulment of the contract;
    D. She may apply for the recession of the contract.
A

D. She may apply for the recession of the contract.

90
Q
  1. Which of the following is a continuing offense?
    A. After uttering defamatory words against the offended party, the accused attacked and assaulted the later, resulting in slight physical injury;
    B. NONE of these
    C. A thief takes from the yard of a house two game roosters belonging to two different persons;
    D. The accused after robbing one house proceeded to rob another house and then to another house where the third robbery was committed.
A

C. A thief takes from the yard of a house two game roosters belonging to two different persons;

91
Q
  1. What is an effect of waiver of right to appear by the accused?
    A. NONE of these
    B. There is waiver of the right to present evidence
    C. The prosecution can present evidence if the accused fails to appear.
    D. Both A and C
A

The prosecution can present evidence if the accused fails to appear.

92
Q 
91. How “silence of a person in a direct accusation” is best treated?
A. As a self incriminatory reaction
B. As a quasi-confession
C. As a judicial notice
D. As a quasi-admission
A

A. As a self incriminatory reaction

93
Q
  1. What personal property CANNOT be seized?
    A. Property used or intended to be used as a means of committing an offense;
    B. Property stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense;
    C. Any property that can be used as an evidence to prosecute the offender;
    D. Property subject of the offense.
A

C. Any property that can be used as an evidence to prosecute the offender;

94
Q 
93. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the peril in which the person is put when he is regularly charged wit a crime before any tribunal properly organized and competent to try him.
A. Detention
​C. Jeopardy
B. Imprisonment ​
D. NONE of these
A

A. Detention

95
Q 
94. In Metro manila and other chartered cities, where shall the offended party file his complaint?
A. Municipal Circuit Trial Court​
C. Office of the Prosecutor
B. Metropolitan Trial Court ​​
D. Regional Trial Court
A

C. Office of the Prosecutor

96
Q 
95. Who grants absolute pardon?
A. Probation officer​
B. Director of the Bureau of Prisons​
C. Judge
D. The Chief Executive
A

D. The Chief Executive

97
Q
  1. It is said that searches of house, room or premises, should be made in the presence of two witnesses. Who are these witnesses supposed to be?
    A. Two members of his family
    B. Two lawful occupants thereof
    C. NONE of these
    D. Witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same locality.
A

B. Two lawful occupants thereof

98
Q 
97. Who shall enter a plea of guilty?
A. His counsel de officio
B. His authorized counsel
C. Self confessed accused
D. Defendant himself in an open court
A

D. Defendant himself in an open court

99
Q 
98. When the evil intent of the offender could not be accomplished because the means employed by him is inadequate or ineffectual, it is called\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. NONE of these​
C. Impossible crime
B. Frustrated felony ​​
D. Attempted felony
A

B. Frustrated felony ​​

100
Q 
99. How can evidence of survivorship be proven?
A. All of these
B. By direct evidence
C. By indirect evidence
D. By circumstantial evidence
A

A. All of these

101
Q 
100. Where a woman was carried by the accused to a distance of 5 meters from the place where she was grabbled, but left her because of her screams, what crime was committed?
A. Light coercion
B. Grave coercion
C. Attempted serious illegal detention
D. Frustrated serious illegal detention
A

A. Light coercion

PRAY (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions