CR Flashcards

1
Q

Name the heart tube sections and what they become in the adult heart

A

A - Truncus arteriosus ⇒ Proximal aorta and pulmonary artery

B - Bulbis Cordis ⇒ Ventricular outflow tracts and right ventricle

C - Primitive Ventricle ⇒ Left ventricle

D - Primitive Atria ⇒ Left and right atria

E - Sinus Venosus ⇒ Sinus venarum (the smooth muscle of the right atrium) and coronary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the cyanotic and acyanotic conditions of the heart

A

Cyanotic:

  • Tetralogy of fallot
  • Tricuspid Atresia - no tricuspid forms (blood moves through fossa ovalis)
  • Transposition of Great Vessels
  • Truncus Arteriosus - single trunk leaving the heart (combination of aorta and pulmonary)

Acyanotic:

  • Atrial septal defect
  • Ventricular spetal defect
  • Patent ductus arteriosus
  • Coarctation of the aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 5 leukoctye types, their characteristics and their function

A

Neutrophils - first responder of immune cells

Basophils - Release histamine and mount a non-specific immune response

Eosinophils - fight parasites but also provoke allergy symptoms

Lymphocytes - B and T cells that defend against specific invaders

Monocytes - Clean up dead cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the right coronary artery supply in the heart

A

Sinoatrial node

Atrioventricular node

Right atrium

Right ventricle

Apex

Posterior 1/3 of the interventricular septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What findings are seen in a Chest X-ray of someone with heart failure

A

ABCDE

  • Alveolar Oedema (‘Bat wing sign’)
  • B lines (Kerly)
  • Cardiomegaly (increased cardiothoracic ratio)8*
  • Dilation of upper lobe vessels
  • Effusions (Pleural)

* measured accurately on a posterior-anterior view chest X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the areas of the JVP waveform

A
  • A wave: Atrial contraction
  • X1 descent: Atrial relaxation
  • C wave: Closure of the tricuspid valve and ventricular contraction
  • X2 descent: End of right ventricular contraction, initial phase of atrial filling
  • V wave: Atrial filling (tricuspid valve is still closed)
  • Y descent: Atrial emptying due to opening of the tricuspid valve and ventricular filling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the parts of the wave

A
  • A - Total Lung Volume (TLV)
  • B - Tidal Volume
  • C - Inspiratory Capacity
  • D - Functional Residual Capacity
  • E - Expiratory Reserve Volume
  • F - Vital Capacity
  • G - Residual Volume

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (not labelled) - Volume of additional air that can be inhaled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Symptoms and Signs of Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia

Including:

  • Hb
  • MCV
  • LDH
  • Unconjugated bilirubin
  • Haptoglobin
A

Symptoms:

  • Splenomegaly
  • Butterfly rash
  • Pale

Signs:

  • Hb - Low
  • MCV - Normal
  • LDH - High
  • Unconjugated bilirubin - High
  • Haptoglobin - Low
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the stages of heart formation (cardiogenesis)

A

1) The heart is one of the earliest differentiating organs and first appears as blood islands - groups of haemangioblasts and myoblasts - derived from the cardiogenic mesoderm at 18 days gestation.
2) At 20 days gestation, the blood islands begin to coalesce to form the right and left endocardial tubes.
3) The left and right endocardial tubes then undergo a process called lateral folding, forming the primitive heart tube by 21 days gestation.
4) The primitive heart tube undergoes cardiac looping from day 23 to 35, twisting the primitive ventricle and atria into the final positions adopted by the adult heart.
5) Simultaneously, atrial septation begins by day 28 from endocardial cushions of the atrioventricular canal.
6) Ventricular septation begins by the end of the 4th week and is completed by the 8th week.
7) Outflow tract separation, whereby the truncus arteriosus is divided into the proximal aorta and pulmonary artery, occurs in the 5th week of gestation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What would iron deficiency show as in a blood smear

A

Microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells (which stain poorly).

Poikilocytosis (variation in shape) and anisocytosis (variation in size).

Increased number of platelets

Abnormally shaped red cells (e.g. target cells and pencil cells).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would B12 deficiency show in a blood smear

A

Abnormally large nucleated red cell precursors (megaloblasts)

Hypersegmented neutrophils

Anisocytosis

Poikilocytosis

The RBCs in addition to being large, also show oval morphology

Defective DNA synthesis may also result in fragmentation of nuclear DNA known as Howell-Jolly bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What response fails that allows Millary TB to form

A

Failure of CD4 T cells to coordinate the cell mediated response to mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What organisms can cause Tuberculosis

A

(5-18 year olds)

Bacteria:

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Chlamydophila pneumoniae

Viruses:

  • Type A influenza
  • Respiratory syncytial virus
  • Adenovirus
  • Rhinovirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is sickle cell anemia autsomal dominant or autosomal recessive

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the X-ray characteristic of COPD

A

hyperinflation of the lungs

flattened hemidiaphragms

narrow mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

At what vertebral level is the carina (bifurcation of the trachea) positioned

A

T4/5

17
Q

What nerve innervates the infrahyoid muscles

A

Ansa cervicalis

18
Q

What does partial occlusion cause on an ECG

A

T-wave inversion, ST depression, pathological Q waves

19
Q

Is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis resitrictive or obstructive

A

Restrictive

20
Q

What pathology is shown here

A

Tubercolosis

21
Q

What does atrial fibrillation increase the chance of

A

Stroke

22
Q

What are the nasal conchae lined with

A

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium

23
Q

Is COPD obstructive or restrictive

A

Obstructive

24
Q

Is asthma obstructive or restrictive

A

Obstructive

25
Q

What effect does G6PD deficiency have on red blood cells

A

Intracellular oxidative damage to RBC on consumption of fava beans