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2. CQ 08/2023 > CQ > Flashcards

CQ Flashcards

1
Q

How many vortilons are there on the each wing of the 767?

A

5 per wing

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2
Q

How do we fix the fuel flow factor on FMS if it is not correct?

A
  1. Type ARM in scratchpad and line select to 5R
  2. Type a / followed by FF Factor and line select to 5R.
    Plus: enter 2.7 as /2.7
    Minus: enter minus 2.7 as /-2.7
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3
Q

With parking brake set, what are the only items you should see on the Takeoff Warning test?

A

-Parking Brake
-Flaps

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4
Q

For GE engines, what is the proper selection during preflight for the engine ignition selector?

A

SINGLE

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5
Q

When is 5,000’ set in the Landing Altitude Selector?

A

When landing airport elevation is BETWEEN 8000 and 9500

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6
Q

When do we start configuring for a Single Engine ILS?

A

When the glideslope is alive

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7
Q

For a malfunction during engine start, which do you do first, QRH or After Start Checklist?

A

-If you do memory items, other than abort start memory items, do the QRH first, then after start checklist.
-If no memory items, do After Start Checklist, then QRH
*Protect the engine as well…so if in icing, and abort the second engine start, do the after start flow to get the engine anti ice on, then do the after start checklist and then the QRH

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8
Q

If L or R BLEED OFF message is displayed after engine start, momentarily advance thrust on affected side to what % N2?

A

70% N2

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9
Q

For crossbleed start, what N2 should be set on the operating engine?

A

Approximately 70% N2

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10
Q

What do we do for start at gate with air start?

A

-Verify 30 PSI
-Crank the desired and briefed side
-Fuel on when 25% N2 or max motoring
-When power is stable, manually disconnect EXT PWR
-After start checklist minus flaps
-Advise ground crew cleared to disconnect power and air

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11
Q

When are MELs/CDLs required to be shown on the WDR?

A

When they require a performance correction

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12
Q

What is the max allowable decrease in O2 from preflight until O2 check during taxi procedure?

A

100 PSI

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13
Q

What is the center tank shutoff procedure when shutting an engine down during taxi for fuel savings or delay?

A

-Turn BOTH center tank pumps off
-Shut down desired engine
-After about 5 seconds, turn center tank switch back on for operating engine

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14
Q

What does “best speed” on the hold page represent?

A

L/D Max, which is max endurance speed

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15
Q

For RNP/RNP AR Approach, what flaps setting and speed should you be at when en route to an app waypoint, or being vectored ?

A

Flaps 5 and flaps 5 maneuver speed unless assigned higher speed

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16
Q

When can you complete the “AVS” portion of LAVS on an RNAV (GPS) approach?

A
  1. Established on STAR w/ a common runway transition point
  2. Established on a published segment of the approach (XTK error is .3NM or less)
  3. Vectored to final at intercept heading, and descending to or level at the active waypoint altitude
  4. Cleared direct to an app wpt, and descending to or level at that wpt alt
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17
Q

When should you configure to gear down, flaps 20 on an RNAV approach?

A

3-5NM prior to the FAF call for gear down, flaps 20, and slow to flaps 20 maneuver speed

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18
Q

When should you configure to final flaps setting on an RNAV app?

A

Prior to descending on the glide path. Also slow to final approach speed at this time

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19
Q

What message on an RNAV approach does not mandate a go around?

A

VERIFY RNP

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20
Q

What is the initial lateral guidance for a go-around?

A

Grnd Trk

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21
Q

During go-around, A/T increases thrust to allow for what climb rate?

A

2000 FPM. If higher rate is desired, advance thrust levers

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22
Q

What is the command speed during a go-around?

A

Speed target for go-around will be between command speed and command speed +25 kias

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23
Q

How can we calculate L/D Max?

A

•Mid to Low altitudes: Maneuver speed at appropriate configuration
•Higher altitudes: Ref 30+100 L/D Max Clean
•VNAV CLB pg: Max angle at R5
•VNAV CRZ pg: Eng out speed at L2
•Hold page: Best airspeed at R5

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24
Q

When does the stick nudger activate on the 767?

A

When flaps are up and both stall computers detect that the AOA continues to increase beyond stick shaker

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25
Q

With flaps in the takeoff position, what will a stall warning cause in relation to slats?

A

Causes the slats to fully extend. Slats retract once stall warning no longer exists

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26
Q

What is the flap/slat sequencing for the 757?

A

-Flap handle to 1: 1/2 slats and flaps to 1
-Flap handle 5 to 20: 1/2 slats and flaps to selected position
-Flap handle 25 to 30: Full slats and selected flaps

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27
Q

What is the flap/slat sequencing for the 767?

A

-Flap handle to 1: 1/2 slats and flaps retracted
-Flap handle 5 to 20: 1/2 slats and flaps to selected position. Inboard ailerons droop with flap extension
-Flap handle 25 to 30: Full slats and selected flaps

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28
Q

What is flap blow up protection on the 757?

A

Flaps placard speed exceeded at flaps 30 causes flaps to retract to 25. Re-extend when speed decreases

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29
Q

What is flap blow up protection on the 767?

A

Flap placard speed exceeded with flaps in 25 or 30 causes flaps to retract to flaps 20. When airspeed decreases below placard speed, flaps re-extend

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30
Q

When does LNAV engage?

A

When above 50’ AGL and:
- Within 2.5 NM of the active leg
- If not within 2.5 NM, and on intercept heading, LNAV remains armed until approaching the active leg

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31
Q

What conditions cause FMS to enter “on approach mode”?

A

-Flaps extended with VNAV in DES mode
-An APP Proc selected into the active route from destination airport arrivals page becomes the active procedure on RTE 1 or 2
-Dist to dest is less than 12 NM and active leg is not part of a procedure
-Missed approach waypoint OR last waypoint on the procedure is the active waypoint and the distance to that waypoint is less than 25NM

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32
Q

What is the minimum radar separation for a 757 following any aircraft type of equal or smaller size?

A

-3NM when more than 10NM from runway
-2.5NM when on final and within 10NM from runway

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33
Q

What is the minimum separation for a 757 that is following a 767?

A

3.5 NM

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34
Q

What is the minimum separation for a 757 that is following a 777, 787, 330, 340, 350, or C5?

A

5 NM

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35
Q

What is the minimum separation for a 757 that is following a “Super”?

A

7 NM

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36
Q

What is the minimum separation for a 767 that is following a 767 or smaller size a/c?

A

-3NM when more than 10NM from runway
-2.5NM when on final and within 10NM from runway

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37
Q

What is the minimum separation for a 767 that is following a 777, 787, 330, 340, 350, or C5?

A

4 NM

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38
Q

What is the minimum separation for a 767 that is following a “Super”

A

6 NM

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39
Q

When are Master Cautions inhibited on takeoff?

A

From 80 KIAS until 400’ AGL OR 20 seconds after nose gear extension

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40
Q

When are Master Warnings inhibited on takeoff? What is the exception?

A

Inhibit begins at nose gear extension during rotation and continues until the first of:

-400’ AGL, or 20 seconds of elapsed time

Exception is for a fire occurring during the inhibit. You will get an EICAS message, but no bell or master warning light

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41
Q

When does PWS start scanning on the ground?

A

-12 seconds after radar is turned on alerts are available
-Takeoff power is selected

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42
Q

When does PWS start scanning in the air?

A

-Below 2,300’ AGL

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43
Q

When are PWS alerts available in the air?

A

Below 1,200’ AGL

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44
Q

When are windshear immediate alerts available?

A

From rotation up to 1,500’ RA

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45
Q

What are the 3 things you can do to decrease the effect of windshear for takeoff? “Windshear advisories in effect”, thunderstorms nearby, gusty winds etc.

A

“3 Mores”
1. More power: no assumed temp
2. More runway: request a longer runway or don’t do intersection takeoff
3. More time: Wait for weather to move or Windshear threat to decrease

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46
Q

What color are runway edge lights for the last 2,000’ of the runway?

A

Yellow

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47
Q

What color are centerline lights?

A

White until the last 3,000’, then they alternate red and white for the next 2,000’. The last 1,000’ are all red.

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48
Q

What is the definition of Windshear?

A

Uncontrolled changes from normal steady state flight below 1,000’ AGL in excess of any of the following:

• +/-15 KIAS
• +/-500 FPM Vert Speed change
• +/-5° Pitch change
• +/-1 dot displacement from glide slope
• Unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time

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49
Q

What options do you have for avoiding suspected windshear on approach?

A

3 D’s:
Delay (Hold)
Direction (Change landing direction or runway)
Divert

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50
Q

When is takeoff or approach prohibited regarding windshear?

A

If there is a microburst alert

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51
Q

If gain or loss of 20 KIAS is reported what should be considered?

A

Consider going around or selecting a different runway

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52
Q

When are PWS cautions and warnings inhibited?

A

CAUTIONS: Between 80KIAS and 400’ AGL
WARNINGS: Between 100KIAS and 50’ AGL

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53
Q

What are the post windshear considerations for takeoff or climb out?

A

P: Pitch (~15°)
P: Power (~75% to 85% N1)
C: Configure (Gear up)
A: Automate (LNAV or HDG, VNAV or FLCH AND CLB power) (AP on)
F: Flaps
T: Talk (PIREP, FAs, PAX)
C: Checklist

54
Q

Post windshear on approach recovery procedure…aka, recover from the recovery

A

Pitch: 10°
Power: 75% to 85% N1
Then: “Go-Around, flaps 20” and perform go-around procedure
PIREP
Checklist

55
Q

During engine failure after V1, what does the FD pitch to once airborne?

A

Commands a min of V2 or the existing speed up to V2+15

56
Q

What is the maximum bank angle allowed when speed is between V2 and V2+15?

A

15° bank

57
Q

With LNAV engaged while single engine, what bank angles may be commanded?

A

Bank angles greater than 15°

58
Q

When leveling off while single engine, when should you begin reducing thrust and adjusting rudder trim?

A

About 500’ prior to level off altitude reduce thrust to about 70% N1 and 10 units of trim. Use the Fast/Slow indicator to help maintain speed during level off

59
Q

If departing the area, after engine failure, and cleaning up to flaps up, what speed and configuration should be flown, and to what altitude?

A

Fly at flaps up, and at flaps up maneuver speed until above obstacle clearance altitude. Then select engine out schedule from VNAV climb page

60
Q

For a GPWS caution what action must be taken?

A

Immediately adjust the flight path, or go-around.
• Go-around is mandatory for: TOO LOW FLAPS caution
• Go-around is mandatory for: TOO LOW GEAR caution

61
Q

TERRAIN TERRAIN, PULL UP and solid red on HSI means you are how many seconds from impact with terrain?

A

20-30 seconds

62
Q

If on the final approach segment and controlling RVR goes below mins, can you continue to AH?

A

Yes, in most countries

63
Q

What is the lowest RVR we can do for landing?

A

300 RVR

64
Q

During a CAT 3 approach, and PRIOR to AH/DH a missed is required when?

A

•GS or LOC fails prior to touchdown
•Any loss of required runway lighting
-Tchdn zone lights
-Centerline lights
-HIRLS
•Wind exceeds limits

65
Q

For Ops below 1200 RVR, the airport must have what?

A

A low visibility taxi plan. Include SMGCS chart in briefing

66
Q

For Ops below 500 RVR what must be done?

A

•Aircrews will notify ATC of their approach mins
•Pre-determined taxi route must be used

67
Q

During low vis taxi clear of the runway, what color are taxiway centerline lights?

A

Alternating yellow and green until out of the ILS critical area

68
Q

What is signified by taxiway centerline lights being all green?

A

This means you are clear of the ILS critical area

69
Q

When do A/Ts disconnect during landing rollout on autoland?

A

When reverse thrust is selected. No aural warning

70
Q

What does protect the speed mean for a flap malfunction?

A

It means set the speed command bug to a speed faster than maneuver speed for the higher flap setting, but also below flap placard speed for the same flap setting. So if going from 1 to 5 and flaps split or get stuck between 1 and 5, bug flap 5 placard speed minus 10 knots

71
Q

When diverting to alternate what should be updated for fuel planning?

A

Change FMS reserve fuel to include only flight plan reserve fuel. Then you can make a note of that fuel plus go around and return for landing fuel to determine if it’s still a good alternate

72
Q

For AAURS when flaps are up, when should you apply load to the wing for recovery?

A

When close to or above clean speed

73
Q

For single engine LOC/GPS approach, when should you start to configure?

A

1.5 NM prior to the FAF

74
Q

For SE go-around, what TMSP thrust setting should be used once flaps are retracted if diverting?

A

CONT thrust should be set once flaps are retracted

75
Q

What are the missed approach/rejected landing priorities?

A

C: Company pgs, missed app, rejected landing table - engine out
A: ATC Clearance
P: Published Missed App Proc

76
Q

What are the engine fail departure priorities?

A

C: Company page EODP
V: Visual return
R: Runway heading to safe altitude
A: ATC vector if avail
S/C: W/ no EODP and already in a turn, fly the SID, ODP, or as Cleared

77
Q

If you get a “windshear alert” from tower just prior to takeoff, should you abort?

A

Yes

78
Q

When single engine what configuration and speed should you intercept the final approach course at?

A

Flaps 5 and Flaps 5 maneuver speed

79
Q

If diverting after a Single Engine go-around, what should be considered for vertical mode, TMSP setting, flaps setting, and speed?

A

-Select FLCH or VNAV
-Select CONT thrust
-Set speed for acceleration
-Clean up to flaps up speed on schedule

80
Q

“CAUTION TERRAIN” and solid amber on the HSI means you are within how many seconds from impact with terrain?

A

40-60 seconds

81
Q

What is a technique for setting up and briefing the approach?

A

•Boxes, Bugs, Brakes
•Brief
•Review the NOI guide

82
Q

What is a good technique at the approach checklist to make sure the airplane is set up for any approach?

A

F: Football present?
R: RNP value correct?
A: Active waypoint in front of us?
G: GPS working?

83
Q

If ATC issues a PRM breakout with instructions to descend, what should be the maximum descent rate?

A

1,000FPM

84
Q

For PRM breakout, what lateral and vertical mode should be utilized once FDs are back on?

A

HDG and V/S (around 1,000 FPM)

85
Q

Terrain box MSA ensures terrain clearance of how many feet?

A

2,000’

86
Q

Terrain boxes listed in the howgozit will have what associated with them?

A

A drift down alternate will be listed

87
Q

What is a good technique for flying direct to an airport and on fire for configuring and slowing?

A

-Fly VMO to 12 NM from FAF (either in a descent or level)
-At 12 NM from FAF, bug Vref + additive, full speed brakes, drop gear at 270 KIAS, and configure flaps on speed

88
Q

What events would require an abort BELOW 80 Kts other than the big 4

A

•Activation of Master Caution/Master Warning
•System Failures
•Unusual noise or vibration
•Tire Failure
•Abnormally slow acceleration
•Takeoff configuration warning
•If a side window opens

89
Q

For CPDLC, what mode radio do we have in the 7ER fleet?

A

We have a VHF Data Link (VDL) Mode 1 radio only. The US and Europe (except Ireland and the UK) only use VDL mode 2 for domestic ops. Ireland, Scotland, London ATSUs as well as all of Canada are VDL Mode 1 and 2, so the 7ER can use en route CPDLC in those areas

90
Q

When should you typically log on to an ATSU with CPDLC

A

15 minutes prior to FIR boundary entry

91
Q

During an approach to an autoland, what happens at approximately 1,500’ RA?

A

• FLARE and ROLLOUT modes armed
• ASA should display LAND 3 or LAND 2 (both pilots must observe this on their own ASA)

92
Q

During autoland with a crosswind, at what point does the autopilot begin to align longitudinal axis with the runway?

A

• 500’ RA or lower depending on strength of the X-Wind

93
Q

What is Alert Height?

A

A height above the runway, above which a CAT 3 approach must be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a specified failure occurs

94
Q

What should be done during a CAT 3 autoland when an aircraft fault occurs ABOVE AH?

A

• Immediately check the ASA:

-If ASA has not changed, and the equipment is not required for the approach, continue the approach

-If ASA has changed OR the equipment is required for the approach, adjust to higher minimums, or go-around. If suitable visual reference exists, consider landing

95
Q

What should be done during a CAT 3 autoland when an aircraft fault occurs or EICAS alert exists AT or BELOW AH?

A

Continue the approach unless NO AUTOLAND is displayed on the ASA.

96
Q

Missed approach shall be initiated AT AH in what situation?

A

•Pilot determines that an autoland cannot be safely accomplished within the touchdown zone

97
Q

When does the flare mode activate during autoland for 757? 767?

A

-757: At ~45’ RA, the autopilot starts the flare maneuver.
-767: At ~50’ RA, the autopilot starts the flare maneuver.

98
Q

What happens on the FMA during autoland when the flare maneuver is started?

A

FLARE replaces the G/S pitch mode on the FMA

99
Q

During autoland, the autothrottle retards thrust levers to idle at what point? 752? 753? 763?

A

-752: 25’
-753: 30’
-763: 15’

100
Q

What happens at 5’ RA during autoland for all 3 types we fly?

A

ROLLOUT becomes active and replaces LOC on the FMA

101
Q

For LAND 2 autoland, when is auto nose up trim applied 752, 753, 763?

A

-752: Below 330’ RA
-753: Below 100’ RA
-763: Below 100’ RA

102
Q

When can you complete the “AVS” portion of LAVS when on an RNAV (RNP) or RNP (AR) approach?

A

• Established on STAR w/ a common runway transition point, or

•Established on a published segment of the approach, or

•Cleared direct to an app wpt, and descending to or level at that wpt alt

103
Q

When is the aircraft considered established on a published segment of the approach for an RNAV (RNP) approach?

A

When XTK error is less than the published RNP value selected for the approach

104
Q

When performing a single engine go around, what thrust setting should you use?

A

Max power. Advance thrust lever to the stop after selecting TOGA.

105
Q

What should you do if windshear is encountered near Vr, and airspeed suddenly decreases?

A

Abort if there is enough runway. If not, firewall thrust levers and initiate a normal rotation towards 15° at least 2000’ before the end of the runway. Then perform windshear escape maneuver once airborne

106
Q

What should be done when the need to divert arises?

A
  1. Get a new clearance
  2. Change the destination in the FMS (can use alternate page to activate the new route)
  3. Get updated weather and NOTAMs
  4. Set pressurization panel for ldg field evelation
  5. Load FMS (arrival, approach, speeds, update reserve fuel number, etc.)
  6. Contact dispatch
  7. FAs and PAX
107
Q

If you do a go around, what needs to be done to ensure you have a football for the next approach?

A

Re-cruise to high altitude

108
Q

When extending flaps with the alternate system, what precaution should be made?

A

Delay setting the new command speed until flaps reach the selected position

109
Q

When are runway edge lights required to be operational?

A

•All takeoff and landing ops between sunset and sunrise
•All takeoff and landing ops between sunrise and sunset, when visibility is reported less than 2SM

110
Q

How is a predictive windshear caution alert identified on takeoff?

A

“MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY” aural alert

111
Q

How is a predictive windshear warning alert identified on takeoff?

A

“WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD” aural alert

112
Q

If mountain wave causes greater than +/-200’ of altitude change, what should be done?

A

Notify ATC of inability to remain RVSM:
“Unable RVSM due to turbulence or MWA”

113
Q

What should be done to get out of mountain wave?

A

•Descend if necessary

114
Q

If overspeeds are an issue while in mountain wave, what should be done?

A

A descent and even a lateral deviation may be necessary to exit an ALERT TP for mountain wave

115
Q

What speed should be flown in mountain wave?

A

Turbulent air penetration speed

116
Q

What are the valid reasons for rejecting a takeoff from 80 kts to V1?

A

•Engine failure
•Fire OR Fire warning
•Predictive windshear caution or warning
•If the aircraft is unsafe or unable to fly

117
Q

When doing a single engine ILS, what is the qual standard for altitude deviation? How does selecting flaps 20 affect this?

A

• +/-100’
• Selecting flaps 20 has a ballooning effect, so be proactive with pitch corrections to prevent this

118
Q

Do caution messages display on eicas above the 80kt inhibition threshold? What about master caution lights?

A

• Yes, caution messages show, but not aural alert sounds once above 80 kts.
• Master caution lights do not illuminate above 80 kts

119
Q

What should be done prior to entering a terrain box?

A

• Enter the terrain box on RTE2
• Verify terrain box MSA and set this altitude in the VOR course window
• Set altitude reference bug in the direction of the drift down alternate
• Ensure drift down alternate is entered on the alternate page in the FMS
• Check and monitor weather at the drift down alternate
• Pre-load CPDLC emergency page with drift down alternate info
• Turn on terrain display

120
Q

What needs to be done prior to performing emergency descent?

A

• Start the emergency descent and then notify ATC of the emergency and request descent to terrain box MSA.
• Make sure to state “mayday mayday mayday” and squawk 7700

121
Q

What should be done when doing V1 Cut for the A/T off step?

A

• Wait until doing the “FLCH rebug flaps 5 maneuver speed” step.
• Then say “Select and verify continuous thrust”.
• Then call for A/T ARM switch…OFF

122
Q

What speed should be bugged when A/T is on through touchdown?

A

Only add 5 knots to Vref

123
Q

If you lose an engine while on final approach what are your options?

A

• Stay at flaps 25 or 30. Increase thrust to maintain speed (use this option if ldg distance is critical).
• Go around with normal go around procedure.
• Continue approach by selecting Flaps 20 and adding 15 knots to app speed. If go-around is required, fly it like a normal SE go around

124
Q

Where should departure procedure speed restrictions be entered?

A

5L on the CLB page.
Ex: 200/10000

125
Q

If flaps are up during an upset recovery, will you have a PLI?

A

You might, or you might not. Also possible to have one pilot with a PLI displayed and the other not displayed

126
Q

What are the three types of TPs?

A

-Advisory: A hazard exists or has the potential to develop that is below a specified criteria. Avoidance is not required by flight crew.

-Alert: A hazard exists or has the potential to develop that has reached a specified criteria and avoidance or action is RECOMMENDED.

-Avoid: A hazard exists or has the potential to develop that has reached a specified criteria and avoidance or action is REQUIRED.

127
Q

What type of TP implies moderate mountain wave?

A

An ALERT TP
DX has 3 options:

  1. Plan a deviation route through the MWA at any altitude
  2. Laterally bypass the MWA
  3. Vertically bypass the MWA
128
Q

What type of TP is issued for strong mountain wave activity?

A

AVOID TP
DX has 2 options:

  1. Deviation route through the MWA by avoiding altitudes in the TP
  2. Laterally bypass the TP
129
Q

What items on a non normal checklist require dual verification prior to taking action?

A

• In all checklists except DUAL ENGINE FAILURE:
- An engine thrust lever
- An engine fuel control switch
- An engine, APU, or cargo fire switch
- A generator drive disconnect switch
- A flight control switch
• IRS mode selector

130
Q

What speed should be flown at 10,000’ after doing an emergency descent?

A

LRC or 300 KIAS

131
Q

For single engine approach, what speed should you be at once approaching intercept heading?

A

Flaps 5 and flaps 5 maneuver speed. Can be faster, but make sure at flaps 5 maneuver speed once on final approach course

132
Q

What things does the FO verify during a RTO?

A
  1. Thrust is idle
  2. A/T disengaged
  3. Maximum brakes applied
  4. Reverse thrust applied

Then say required callouts

2. CQ 08/2023 (5 decks)

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