CP2 Final Study 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Free catch/Void : Advantages / disadvantages / urinalysis parameters affected

A

Ad : easy to obtain
Dis : contamination, not useful for C/S
Param : increased epitheial cells, WBCs, bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Manual compression : Advantages / disadvantages / urinalysis parameters affected

A

Ad : somewhat easy to obtain
Dis : incomplete emptying of bladder, increase risk of kidney infection, risk of bladder rupture, contamination
Param : increased RBCs, WBCs, bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Catheterization : Advantages / disadvantages / urinalysis parameters affected

A

Ad : sterile sample for C/S
Dis : invasive, risk of trauma to urethra, may require sedation, aseptic technique required
Param : increased epitheial cells (transitional), lubricant droplets, increased RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cystocentesis : Advantages / disadvantages / urinalysis parameters affected

A

Ad : sterile sample for C/S, eliminated distal tract contamination
Dis : invasive, requires calm patient or sedation, risk of laceration to organs or bladder
Param : may see increaed RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cage floor : Advantages / disadvantages / urinalysis parameters affected

A

Ad : easy to obtain
Dis : lots contamination, artifacts, fecal material
Param : increased artifact, bacteria, debris, interference with chemical analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What factors are affected by refrigeration?

A

SOLUBILITY DECREASES-INCREASED CRYSTAL FORMATION
*PRESERVES KETONES
*DECREASES BACTERIAL GROWTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What factors are affected when a sample is NOT refrigerated?

A

INCREASED PH, BACTERIAL PROLIFERATION, CRYSTAL FORMATION
*BREAKDOWN OF CELLS, CASTS
*DEGRADATION OF BILIRUBIN, KETONES, GLUCOSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

label the parts of the nephron

A

A - Peritubular Capillaries
B - Proximal Convoluted Tubule
C - Renal cortex
D - Renal medulla
E - Collecting Duct
F - Peritubular Capillaries
G - Ascending loop of Henle
H - Descending loop of Henle
I - Branch of the Renal vein
J - Branch of the Renal artery
K - Distal convoluted tubule
L - Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
M - Afferent Arteriole
N - Efferent Arteriole
O - Glomerulus
P - Bowman’s capsule
Q - Capsular Space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The 2 hormones that control urine production are

A

ADH and aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What dermatophytes are shown here?

A

1 - Microsporum gypseum
2 - Microsporum canis
3 - Microsporum nanum
4 - Trichophyton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do dermatophytes cause infection?

A

skin, hair, nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is considered a positive reaction on DTM?

A

media –> red
colonies –> white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the genera of dermatophytes?

A

Microsporum, trichophyton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name sources of error for this test

A

CONTAMINATION OR MIXED CULTURE USED
*UNEVEN LAWN OF STREAKING
*UNLABELED DISKS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A clear zone around the disc indicates growth _______?
(reading sensitivity test plate)

A

inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bacterial growth right up to the disc indicates

A

no inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What precautions need to be taken when performing sensitivity testing?

A

ENSURE FRESH PURE CULTURE IS USED AND STANDARD CONCENTRATION OF BACTERIA IS CREATED FOR INOCULATION OF PLATES
*UESE ASEPTIC TECHNIQUE
*PROPER DISK SELECTION AND PROPER PLACEMENT OF DISKS
*PROPER MEASUREMENT OF ZONES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is determined by antibiotic sensitivity testing?

A

determine the resistance or susceptibility of bacteria to specific antimicrobials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Direct sensitivity testing

A

Application of undiluted samples directly to a Hinton-Mueller plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Indirect sensitivity testing

A

requires a colony taken from a culture plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

label each streptococci using this BA

A

1 -
2 -
3 -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

label each streptococci using this BA

A

1 -
2 -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the G+ cocci covered in class?

A

Staphylococcus (Staph epi, Staph A/P)
Streptococcus (Alpha, Beta, Gamma)
Micrococcus

24
Q

What are the main characteristics/diseases of the G+ cocci (from class)? [Stap epi/A/P, Strep A/B/G, Micrococcus)

A
  • Micrococcus - CROP INFECTIONS
  • STAPH A/P= DOUBLE ZONE HEME / EARS, WOUNDS, UTI, MASTITIS
  • STAPH EPI= PAPER WHITE COLONIES / IATROGENIC
  • STREPS CLASSIFIED BASED ON TYPE OF HEMOLYSIS / Beta streps most pathogenic
25
Q

What beta streps are of interest in this class?

A

STREP ZOOEPIDEMICUS, STREP EQUI = STRANGLES

26
Q

What is this G- organism?

A

E.coli

27
Q

What is this G- organism?

A

Proteus (swarming)

28
Q

What is this G- organism?

A

Enterobacter

29
Q

What is this G- organism?

A

Pseudomonas

30
Q

What is this G- organism?

A

Klebsiella

31
Q

What are the G- orgs covered in class?

A

E. coli, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas

32
Q

What are the steps of gram staining?

A

4 steps
*Primary stain CRYSTAL VIOLET (30S)
*Mordant GRAMS IODINE (30S)
*Decolorizer ACETONE ALCOHOL (10S)
*Counterstain SAFRANIN

33
Q

What is this test? which test organism is positive? ID the positive bacteria

A

CAMP test, #2 is positive
STREP AGALACTIAE. USED IN DIFFERENIATION OF STREP AG FROM OTHER BETA HEMOLYTIC STREP ORGANISMS IN A MASTITIS SAMPLE

34
Q

What is this test? which test organism is positive? ID the positive bacteria

A

Oxidase test, #2, PSEUDOMONAS
*DIFFERENTIATES FROM GRAM NEGATIVE ENTERICS WHICH ARE ALL OXIDASE NEGATIVE

35
Q

What is this test? which test organism is positive? ID the positive bacteria

A

COAGULASE TEST:
*INCUBATE 0.5ML LYOPHILIZED PLASMA WITH LOOPFUL OF ORGANISM, OBSERVE CLOT FORMATION AFTER 4 HOURS INCUBATION
*Is this a positive or negative result? -POSITIVE-CLOT FORMED
*Which group of bacteria will be positive?
-STAPH A/P

36
Q

What is this test? which test organism is positive? ID the positive bacteria

A

CATALASE TEST: *MIX BACTERIAL COLONY WITH DROP OF HYDROGEN PEROXIDE. OBSERVE FOR GAS BUBBLE FORMATION
*Is this a positive or negative result? *POSITIVE-GAS BUBBLE FORMATION
*Which group of bacteria will be positive? *STAPHYLOCOCCUS

37
Q

Describe the various forms shown here

A

1 - circular
2 - Swarming
3 - Filamentous

38
Q

Describe the consistency of each colony pictured here

A

1 - buttery (lactose indeterminant)
2 - mucoid (lactose positive)
3 - dry (flat, lactose positive)

39
Q

Label each color

A

1 - white
2 - off white
3 - yellow
4 - gray

40
Q

Describe the size of each colony shown here

A

1 - pinpoint
2 - small
3 - medium
4 - large

41
Q

what is the typical sequence of testing microbiology specimens?

A

1 - collect specimen
2 - direct gram stain of specimen
3 - inoculate culture media
4 - incubate for 18-24 hrs
5 - check for growth
~ Negative/no growth –> reincubate, recheck –> if no growth = ““no growth””
~ Positive /colonies on media –> select representative colonies, Gram stain, continue with ID

42
Q

Discuss BA vs MAC

A

Discuss BA vs MAC

43
Q

Catalase vs coagulase vs oxidase vs CAMP

A

Catalase vs coagulase vs oxidase vs CAMP

44
Q

Clostridium vs Campylobacter

A

Clostridium = G+ large, spore forming rod / Normal GI flora / Anaerobic

45
Q

What are the most common G+ cocci?

A

Staph A/P and Beta strep

46
Q

What is the most common G+ rod?

A

Corynebacterium - typically an incidental

47
Q

What is the most commonly found yeast?

A

Malassezia - peanut shaped

48
Q

What are the most common G- rods?

A

E.coli, Proteus, Pseudomonas

49
Q

Which organisms produce more severe ear disease?

A

GNR (esp pseudomonas)
- multidrug resistance, topical + systemic treatment, result of chronic infections

50
Q

What are your findings for this slide?

A

4+ GPC, clusters, chains, diplo (Staph A/P or B strep), SQ Epi w/ stain precipitate

51
Q

What are your findings for this slide?

A

4+ GPC, clusters, diplo (Staph A/P or B strep)
4+ GNR (E.coli, proteus, pseudo)
2+ GPY (Malassezia)
SQ Epi w/ stain precipitate

52
Q

How many swabs should be taken from each ear?

A

2 - to evaluate bacteria and yeast cytology, ear mites

53
Q

What objective is used to evaluate ears?

A

Scan low power to evaluate distribution
100x/oil immersion for morphology and quantification

54
Q

What are the common classes of organisms we evaluate in class?

A

GPC - Staph A/P, B strep
GNR - E.coli, proteus, pseudomonas
GPR - corynebacterium
yeast - malassezia

55
Q

What other (non-organism) finding may you see in ear cytology?

A

Squamous EPI, WBC/RBC, wax, stain precipitate