Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Scribe > Course 5: ED course > Flashcards

Course 5: ED course Flashcards

1
Q

CBC

A

Complete Blood Count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

WBC

A

White blood cells
Abnormal level:
High (Leukocytosis)
Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hgb

A

Hemoglobin
Abnormal level:
Low
Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hct

A

Hematocrit
Abnormal level:
Low
Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Plt

A

Platelets
Abnormal level:
Low (Thrombocytopenia)
Prone to bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Differential

A

CBC with Diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bands

A

Band Cells
Abnormal level:
High (Bandemia)
Serious infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Segs

A

Segmented Neutrophils
Abnormal level:
High (Left Shift)
Acute infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lymphs

A

Lymphocytes
Abnormal level:
High
Viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Monos

A

Monocytes
Abnormal level:
High
Bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Eos

A

Eosinophils
Abnormal level:
High
Parasitic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

BMP

A

Basic Metabolic Panel,, Chem -7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Na

A

High (hypernatremia)
Low (hyponatremia)
Dehydration (both)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

K

A

High (hyperkalemia)
Poor kidney function
Low (hypokalemia)
May cause arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

BUN

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen
High
Renal insufficiency or failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Creat

A

Creatinine
High
Renal insufficiency or failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gluc

A 
Glucose 
High (hyperglycemia)
High blood sugar
Low (hypoglycemia)
Low blood sugar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HCO3-

A 
Bicarbonate
High (hypercarbia)
Possible respiratory disease
Low (hypocarbia)
Hyperventilation (Possible DKA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cl-

A

High (hyperchloremia)

Possible dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CMP

A

Comprehensive Metabolic Panel, Chem12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T Prot/Alb

A

Total Protein/Albumin
Low
Poor nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T bili

A

Total bilirubin
High
Jaundice/liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

AST (SGOT)

A

Aspartate Transaminase
High
Liver damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Alk Phos

A

Alkaline Phosphatase
High
Liver damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ALT (SGPT)

A

Alanine Transaminase
High
Liver damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Liver function tests

A
  • AST (SGOT)
  • ALT (SGPT)
  • Alk Phos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CEP

A

Cardiac Enzyme Panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Trop

A

Troponin
High
Specific to heart damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CK

A

Creatine Kinase
High
Hear damage or Rhabdomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CK-MB

A

Creatine Kinase-Muscle Breakdown
High
Heart damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CK-RI

A

Creatine Kinase Relative Index
High
Heart damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Myo

A

Myoglobin
High
Heart damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

D-Dimer

A

Positive:
means there is a blood clot somewhere, not necessarily PE, follow up with a CTA Chest or VQ scan
Negative:
PE can be excluded from DDx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

BNP

A

B-Type Natriuretic Peptide
High
CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ABG

A 
Arterial Blood Gas 
Low pH
Acidosis 
High/Low HCO3
Metabolic problem
High/Low pCO2
Respiratory problems
Low pO2
Hypoxia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

VBG

A 
Venous Blood Gas
Low pH
Acidosis
High pH
Alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cardiac Order Set

A
  • CBC
  • BMP
  • CK, CK-MB
  • Troponin
  • EKG
  • CXR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CSF Analysis

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid Micro Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CSF Gluc

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid Glucose
Low
Possible bacterial meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CSF Prot

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid Protein
High
Possible Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CSF RBC

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid Red Blood Cells
>0 in Tube 4
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (brain bleed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CSF WBC

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid White Blood Cells
>3 in Tube 4
Possible Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

CSF Gram Stain

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid Gram Stain
Positive bacteria
Likely bacterial Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

COAGS

A

Coagulation Studies, Coumadin Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

PT

A

Prothrombin Time
High
Blood is too thin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

INR

A

International Normalized Ratio
>3.0 (Supertherapeutic)
Too much Coumadin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

PTT

A

Partial Thromboplastin Time
High
Blood is too thin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

PT/INR

A

They are the same test, different representation of the results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

ENT labs

A

Ears, Nose and Throat Labs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Strep

A

Strep Rapid Strep Test
Positive
Strep Throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Monospot

A

Mononucleosis test
Positive
Mononucleosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Influenza A + B

A

Positive

“The FLu”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

RSV

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus
Positive
Likely Bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Lip

A

Lipase
High
Specific to pancreatitis
(the pancreas is the only organ that releases these enzyme)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Amy

A

Amylase
High
Possible pancreatitis
(the pancreas is not the only organ that releases this enzyme)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

TSH

A 
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
High
Possible hypothyroidism 
Low
Possible hyperthyroidism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

T3

A

Triiodothyronine
Low
Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

T4

A

Thyroxine
Low
Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

CRP

A

C-Reactive Protein
High
Active inflammation in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

ESR or Sed Rate

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
High
Active inflammation in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

HCG

A 
Urine betaHCG
Positive
Pregnant
Negative
Not pregnant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Serum HCG Qual

A 
Serum beta-HCG Qualitative
Positive 
Pregnant 
Negative
Not pregnant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Serum HCG Quant

A 
Serum beta-HCG Quantitative 
Higher
Further along in pregnancy
Unchanged/lower
Failed pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

T+S/ABORh

A

Type and Screen/ Blood Type

  • Rh Negative
  • Needs RhoGAM shot if pregnant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

T+X

A

Type and Cross

  • Gets blood ready for transfusion
  • Possible blood transfusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Wet Prep

A

Vaginal Wet Mount

  • Many Clue Cells
  • Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)
  • Many Trichomonas
  • Trichomonas (STD)
  • Many Yeast
  • Vaginal Yeast infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

GC

A

Gonococcus
Positive
Gonorrhea (STD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

CT

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

  • Positiive
  • Chlamydia (STD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Genital Cx

A

Genital Culture

  • Positive growth
  • Pending results: ED will call pt if Cx is positive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Urine dip

A

Qualitative Urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Leuks

A

Leukocyte Esterase

  • Positive
  • Likely UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Nit

A

Nitrite

  • Positive
  • UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Gluc

A

Glucose

  • Positive (Glycosuria)
  • UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Blo

A

Blood

  • Positive (Hematuria)
  • Kidney stone vs. UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Microscopic Urinalysis

A

Quantitative Microscopic Urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

WBC- Urinalysis

A

White Blood Cells in urine

  • > 6 (Pyuria)
  • UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

RBC- Urinalysis

A

Red blood cells in urine

  • > 6 (Hematuria)
  • UTI vs.kidney stone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Bact- Urinalysis

A

Bacteria

  • Many
  • UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Epi- Urinalysis

A

Epithelial cells

  • Many
  • Contaminated sample
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

CBC

A

-High WBC (Leukocytosis)
High Bands (Bandemia)
-Possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Lactate

A

Lactic Acid

  • High
  • Sepsis or cell death in the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Blood Cx

A
  • Positive Growth

- Definitive sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

BCx

A

Blood Culture

  • Positive growth
  • Sepsis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

UCx

A

Urine Culture

  • Positive growth
  • UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Wound Cx

A

Wound culture

-results pending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Stool Cx

A

Stool Culture

-results pending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

ASA

A

Serum Acetylsalicylic Acid

  • High
  • Toxic ASA level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

APAP

A

Serum Acetaminophen

  • High
  • Toxic tylenol level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

EtOH

A

Serum Ethanol, alcohol

  • High
  • Alcohol intoxication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

UTox

A

Urine Drug Screen

  • Positive for Opiates, Cannabinoids, Cocaine, Methamphetamines, PCP
  • Drug Abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Ketones

A

Serum Ketones

  • Large
  • Likely DKA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Accu-Chek

A

Finger-Stick Blood Glucose (FSBG)
-Less than 80 mg
more than 110mg
-Low or high blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Dilantin

A

Serum Phenytoin

  • Low
  • Subtherapeutic; at risk for Sz
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

INR

A

Coumadin level

  • Low
  • Subtherapeutic; at risk for clots
  • High
  • Supertherapeutic; risk for bleed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Dig

A

Digoxin

  • Low
  • Subtherapeutic; at risk for Afib
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Tegretol

A

Serum Carbamazepine

  • Low
  • Subtherapeutic; at risk for Sz
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Keppra

A

Serum Keppra

  • Low
  • Subtherapeutic; at risk for Sz
98
Q

Depakote

A

Serum Valproic Acid

  • Low
  • Subtherapeutic; at risk for Sz
99
Q

Neurontin

A

Serum Gabapentin

  • Low
  • Subtherapeutic; at risk for Sz
100
Q

D-Dim

A

D-Dimer

  • High
  • Must order CTA Chest or VQ Scan (first need Creatin from BMP before CTA)
101
Q

Trop

A

Troponin

  • High
  • Acute MI: give ASA, NTG, beta-Blocker, Heparin
102
Q

Creat

A

Creatinine (from the BMP)

  • > 1.4
  • Assesses kidney function. Creatinine must be obtained prior to ordering any CT with IV contrast due to IV contrast stressing the kidneys. Any pt with a Creatinine > 1.4 cannot receive IV contrast.
103
Q

Obtaining a Serum (Blood) Lab Result

A
  1. The lab order is placed by a physician
  2. The nurse draws the blood into specific vials used for each lab study
  3. The tubes are placed in plastic bags, and delivered to lab
  4. The lab tech runs the samples through analysis machines
  5. After the machine produces the results the lab tech loads the results into an electronic system, making the results available to view.
104
Q

Hemolyzed sample

A

The blood cells have broken down, which may skew some results of the blood sample. If a sample is hemolyzed the nurse must often “re-draw” the blood and send another sample to lab. Alert your physician as soon as possible if a blood sample ever results as “hemolyzed”.

105
Q

CBC w/ Diff- assesses:

A

Infection (WBC) or anemia (Hgb + Hct = H&H)

106
Q

BMP assesses:

A

Electrolytes (Na + K), renal function (BUN + Creat), glucose

107
Q

CMP assesses:

A

BMP + LFT’s (liver function)

108
Q

Trop assesses:

A

Acute MI (if high)

109
Q

uDrip + UA assesses:

A

UTI or blood (possible kidney stone)

110
Q

BNP assesses:

A

Acute CHF (if high)

111
Q

Coags assesses:

A

Risk for bleeding (if high)

112
Q

ABG assesses:

A

Respiratory function (hypoxia?)

113
Q

D-Dimer assesses:

A

Possible blood clot (if high, need Creat for CTA Chest)

114
Q

CBC tests:

A
  1. WBC
  2. Hgb
  3. Hctt
  4. Plt
115
Q

Differential tests:

A
  1. CBC
  2. Bands
  3. Segs
  4. Lymphs
  5. Monos
  6. Eos
116
Q

BMP tests:

A
  1. Na
  2. K
  3. BUN
  4. Creat
  5. Gluc
  6. HCO3-
  7. Cl-
117
Q

CMP tests:

A
  1. BMP
  2. T Prot/Alb
  3. T bili
  4. AST (SGOT)
  5. ALT (SGPT)
  6. Alk Phos
118
Q

CEP tests:

A
  1. Trop
  2. CK
  3. CK-MB
  4. CK-RI
  5. Myo
119
Q

Respiratory labs:

A
  1. BNP
  2. ABG
  3. VBG
120
Q

CSF Analysis:

A
  1. CSF Gluc
  2. CSF Prot
  3. CSF RBC
  4. CSF WBC
  5. CSF Gram Stain
  • Typically four tubes of CSF are collected during LP
  • If it is only abnormal for two tube=contamination
  • If abnormal on all four, then it’s valid.
121
Q

Coags tests:

A
  1. PT
  2. INR
  3. PTT

INR=0 any pt not on Coumadin and should not be 1 for pts on Coumadin

122
Q

ENT labs:

A
  1. Strep
  2. Monospot
  3. Influenza A + B
  4. RSV
123
Q

Pancreatic enzymes:

A
  1. Lip

2. Amy

124
Q

Thyroid labs:

125
Q

Inflammation labs:

A
  1. CRP

2. ESR or Sed Rate

126
Q

Ob/Gyn labs:

A
  1. HCG
  2. Serum HCG Qual
  3. Serum HCG Quant
  4. T + S/ABORh
  5. T + X
127
Q

Pelvic Exam Labs:

A
  1. Wet Prep
  2. GC
  3. CT
  4. Genital Cx
128
Q

Urine Dip Tests:

A
  1. Leuks
  2. Nit
  3. Gluc
  4. Blo
129
Q

Microscopic Urinalysis Tests:

A
  1. WBC
  2. RBC
  3. Bact
  4. Epi
130
Q

Sepsis Labs:

A
  1. CBC
  2. Lactate
  3. Blood Cx
  • Anticipate ordering a CXR (r/o PNA), UA (r/o UTI), and even possibly an LP (r/o meningitis)
  • Blood Cx will also be ordered to diagnose the type of sepsis, and what Abx the bacteria is sensitive to.
131
Q

Cx:

A
  1. BCx
  2. UCx
  3. Wound Cx
  4. Stool Cx
132
Q

Toxicology Labs:

A
  1. ASA
  2. APAP
  3. EtOH
  4. UTox
133
Q

Diabetes Labs:

A
  1. Ketones

2. Accu-Chek

134
Q

Medication Levels:

A
  1. Dilantin
  2. INR
  3. Dig
  4. Tegretol
  5. Keppra
  6. Depakote
  7. Neurontin
135
Q

Three Key labs for efficiency:

A
  1. D-Dimer
  2. Troponin
  3. Creatinine (from the BMP)
136
Q

Urine Dip timing:

137
Q

uHCG timing:

138
Q

CBC timing:

139
Q

BMP/CMMP timing:

140
Q

Trop/CK/CKMB timing:

141
Q

D-Dimer timing:

142
Q

Urinalysis/Micro UA

143
Q

Obtaining imaging results:

A
  1. Imaging order is placed by a physician
  2. A transport tech (or radiology tech) comes to get the pt and takes them to the XR, CT, or US room
  3. The study is performed
  4. The films (pictures) are loaded into PACS and become available to view.
  5. A physician views and interprets the films (Preliminary read vs. Final read)
144
Q

PACS

A

Picture Archiving and Communication

145
Q

X-Rays

A
  1. CXR

2. AAS/KUB

146
Q

CXR findings:

A
  1. PNA
  2. PTX
  3. Widened mediastinum (dissection)
  4. Pleural effusion
  5. CHF
147
Q

AAS/KUB findings:

A
  1. Free air (rupture)
  2. SBO
  3. Constipation
  4. Large kidney stones
148
Q

AAS

A

Acute Abdominal Series

149
Q

KUB

A

Kidneys Ureters Bladder

150
Q

All other X-Rays

A
  1. Fx
  2. Dislocation
  3. Joint effusion
151
Q

CT w/o

A

CT without IV Contrast “Dry CT”

152
Q

CTA

A

CT Angiogram

153
Q

CT A/P w/ PO

A

CT abd/Pelvis with PO Contrast

154
Q

CT Scans:

A
  1. CT w/o
  2. CTA, CT w/
  3. CT A/P w/ PO
155
Q

CT w/o: CT Head findings

A

Large hemorrhagic or ishcemic CVA

156
Q

CT w/o: CT C-Spine/T-Spine/L-Spine findings

A

Fracture or subluxation (partial dislocation)

157
Q

CT w/o: CT Chest findings

A
  1. PNA
  2. PTX
  3. Pleural effusion
  4. Rib fracture
158
Q

CT w/o: CT Abd/Pel findings

A
  1. Kidney Stones

2. Pyelonephritis

159
Q

CTA, CT w/: CTA Chest findings

A
  1. PE

2. Aortic Dissection

160
Q

CTA, CT w/: CTA Head findings

A
  1. Hemorrhagic CVA

2. Ischemic CVA

161
Q

CTA, CT w/: CTA Neck findings

A
  1. Appendicitis
  2. SBO
  3. Diverticulitis
  4. Ischemic Gut
162
Q

US Doppler LE

A

Ultrasound Doppler Lower Extremities

-DVT

163
Q

US RUQ

A

Abdominal Ultrasound of RUQ

  • Cholelithiasis
  • Cholecystitis
  • Bile sludge
  • Gallbladder wall thickening
  • Bile duct obstruction
164
Q

US OB/Transvag/Pelvis

A

Ultrasound Obstetrics/Transvaginal

  • IUP
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Ovarian cyst
  • Ovarian Torsion
165
Q

US Scrotum

A
  • Testicular torsion

- Testicular mass

166
Q

US scans:

A
  1. US Doppler LE
  2. US RUQ
  3. US OB/Transvag/Pelvis
  4. US Scrotum
167
Q

Portable XR timing:

168
Q

XR timing:

A

1 hr or less

169
Q

CT w/o contrast timing:

A

45 min- 1.5 hrs

170
Q

CTA timing:

171
Q

US timing:

172
Q

CT w/ PO

173
Q

Orthopedic Procedures:

A
  1. Splint Application
  2. Joint Reduction
  3. Arthrocentesis
174
Q

Skin Procedures:

A
  1. Laceration Repair

2. I&D

175
Q

Lumbar Puncture:

A

Sterile field and technique. Betadine prep. Local anesthesia with 1% Lido.

176
Q

Bedside US:

A

Ultrasound to bedside, pt positioned

177
Q

Conscious Sedation:

A

Suction at bedside. Pt on cardiac monitor and continuous pulse oximetry. RT at bedside.

178
Q

Endotracheal Intubation:

A

Suction at bedside. Consent precluded by clinical urgency.

179
Q

Central Line Placement:

A

Sterile field. Chlorhexidine prep. Local anesthesia 1% Lidocaine

180
Q

Chest Tube Placement:

A

Sterile field. Betadine prep. Consent precluded by clinical urgency

181
Q

Cardioversion:

A

Conscious sedation. Attached to cardiac monitor and pulse oximetry.

182
Q

Low Acuity Procedures:

A
  1. Splint/Sling Application
  2. Laceration Repair
  3. I&D
  4. Foreign Body Removal
  5. Cerumen Disimpaction
  6. Rectal Disimpaction
  7. Nail Trephination
  8. Epistaxis Management
183
Q

Splint/Sling Application:

A

Document:

Distal CSMT intact

184
Q

Laceration Repair

A

Document:

Good closure and hemostasis

185
Q

Incision and Drainage

A

Document:

Amount of type of purulence obtained

186
Q

Foreign Body Removal

A

Document:

Technique of removal, description of object removed

187
Q

Cerumen Disimpaction

A

Document:

Tools used and total time spent

188
Q

Rectal Disimpact

A

Document:

Impaction resolved, symptoms improved

189
Q

Nail Trephination

A

Document:

Distal CSMT intact

190
Q

Epistaxis Management

A

Document:

Good hemostasis

191
Q

12-LEAD EKG

A

For any pt with complaints of CP, SOB, or syncope

192
Q

EKG: Rhythm:

A
  • NSR
  • SB
  • ST
  • A Fib
  • A flutter
  • Paced
  • SVT
193
Q

EKG: Ectopy

194
Q

EKG: Axis

A
  • LAD
  • RAD
  • LAFB
195
Q

EKG: Intervals

A
  • Prolonged PR
  • Prolonged QT
  • LBBB
  • RBBB
  • 1 degree AVB
196
Q

SB

A

Sinus Bradycardia

197
Q

ST

A

Sinus Tachycardia

198
Q

A flutter

A

Atrial Flutter

199
Q

Paced

A

Pacemaker is functioning

200
Q

SVT

A

Supraventricular Tachycardia

201
Q

PVC

A

Premature Ventricular Contraction

202
Q

PAC

A

Premature Atrial Contraction

203
Q

LAD

A

Left Axis Deviation

204
Q

RAD

A

Right Axis Deviation

205
Q

LAFB

A

Left Anterior Fascicular Block

206
Q

LBBB

A

Left Bundle Branch Block

207
Q

RBBB

A

Right Bundle Branch Block

208
Q

1 degree AVD

A

First Degree AV Block (2 and 3 degree)

209
Q

EKG Leads

A
  • I
  • II
  • III
  • aVR
  • aVL
  • aVF
  • V1
  • V2
  • V3
  • V4
  • V5
  • V6
210
Q

EKG documentation:

A

Must have a rate, rhythm and at least two other findings in order for the physician to be reimbursed for their interpretations

211
Q

Doctor says:

“normal EKG at 80 (bpm)”

A

Document:

NSR at a rate of 80bpm, no acute ST/T changes

212
Q

Doctor says:

sinus at 72 (between 60 and 100bpm)

A

Document:

Normal sinus rhythm at a rate of 72 bpm

213
Q

Doctor says:

Sinus at 114 (greater than 100)

A

Document:

Sinus tachycardia at a rate of 114 bpm

214
Q

Doctor says:

Sinus at 56 (less than 60bpm)

A

Document:

Sinus bradychardia at a rate of 56 bpm

215
Q

Doctor says:

Sinus braddy

A

Document:

Sinus bradycardia

216
Q

Doctor says:

Sinus tachy

A

Document:

Sinus tachycardia

217
Q

Doctor says:

Left bundle

A

Document:

LBBB

218
Q

Doctor says:

Right bundle

A

Document:

RBBB

219
Q

Doctor says:

left axis

A

Document:

LAD

220
Q

Doctor says:

nothing acute

A

Document:

No acute ST/T changes

221
Q

Doctor says:

non-specific changes

A

Document:

Non-specific ST/ changes

222
Q

Doctor says:

Lead one, Lead two, or Lead three

A

Document:

Lead I, Lead II, or Lead III

223
Q

Doctor says:

V one, V two, or V three

A

Document:

V1, V2, V3

224
Q

Critical Care

A

Care provided to any pt that is at serious risk for deterioration that may lead to permanent bodily harm or death.

225
Q

Critical Care Billing levels:

A
  • 30-74min
  • 75-119min
  • 120+ min
226
Q

Critical Care Diagnoses

A
  • Acute MI
  • Unstable Angina
  • ACS
  • A-Fib with RVR
  • Aortic Dissection
  • Bowel Perforation
  • Appendicitis with rupture
  • Ectopic Pregnancy
  • Severe GI Bleed
  • Severe AMS
  • Acute CVA
  • OD
  • DKA
  • Acute CHF
  • Acute COPD Exacerbation
  • Severe Hypoxia
  • Allergic Reaction
  • Pneumothorax
  • PE
  • Sepsis
  • Severe Trauma
  • Critically Abnormal Lab Test Results
  • Renal Failure
  • Rhabdomyolysis
  • Severe dehydration
227
Q

ACS

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome

228
Q

Critical care procedure:

Intubation

A

Associated Diagnosis

Respiratory failure

229
Q

Critical care procedure: central line placement

A

Associated diagnosis:

Sepsis

230
Q

Critical care procedure: chest tube

A

Associated diagnosis:

PTX

231
Q

Critical care procedure: cardioversion

A

Associated diagnosis:

Abnormal heart rhythm

232
Q

Critical care procedure: CPR

A

Associated diagnosis:

Cardiac arrest

233
Q

Critical care procedure: CPAP/BiPAP

A

Associated diagnosis:

COPD/CHF Exacerbation

234
Q

Consultations 3 reasons

A
  1. The ED doctor needs to admit a pt to the hospital
  2. The ED doctor needs specialist advice regarding a particular disease, treatment, or need for follow-up
  3. The ED doctor calls the pts PCP to inform them their pt was evaluated in the ED.
235
Q

Re-evaluations 5 reasons

A
  1. The pt is about to be discharged and doctor needs to share discharge instructions, ensure the pt’s Sx improved and is ready for discharge
  2. The pt is about to be admitted and the doctor needs to update the pt on the plan to admit, and check on the pt’s Sx and status.
  3. The pt needs abnormal vital signs re-checked
  4. A particular physical exam finding needs to be re-checked
  5. The doctor needs the determine if particular treatment was effective
236
Q

Arterial Blood Gas

A

Blood taken from an artery

237
Q

Serum

A

The clear liquid separated from the clotted blood

238
Q

Coagulation

A

The change of blood from liquid to solid

239
Q

Anesthesia

A

Medication that suppresses the central nervous system that results unconsciousness and lack of sensation

240
Q

POC

A

Point of care

241
Q

Cultures

A

The propagation of microorganisms or of living tissue cells in media conducive to their growth.

Scribe (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions