Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Scribe > Course 2 > Flashcards

Course 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Differential DX

A

The diseases being considered as the true source of your symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pertinent positives

A

Specific symptoms that raise the physicians suspicion for a particular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pertinent negatives

A

Specific symptoms that are not present which cause the physician to doubt certain diagnoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Etiology

A

The physiological process causing the symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Risk factors

A

What puts the pts at risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CC

A

The typical major symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the different types of timing?

A

Constant/ intermittent/ waxing and waning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pericarditis:

A

inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart causing CP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pleurisy:

A

inflammation of the sac surrounding the lungs causing pleuritic CP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Costochondritis:

A

irritation of the ribs causing CP worsened by pressing on the sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Chest Wall Pain:

A

irritation of the chest was causing pain with palpation of the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pleural Effusion:

A

Fluid collecting around the lungs causing SOB or CP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the etiology of AFib?

A

Electrical abnormalities in the “wiring” of the heart causes the top of the heart to quiver abnormally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the CC of AFib?

A

Palpitations that are irregularly irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the risk factors of AFib?

A

Paroxysmal A Fib, Chronic A FIb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should the PE show with AFib?

A

Tachycardia and irregular irregular rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is AFib diagnosed?

A

EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the associated medications of Afib and what are they used for?

A

Coumadin (Warfarin) which is a blood thinner. Digoxin which slows down the heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is RVR?

A

rapid ventricular response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is NSR?

A

Normal sinus rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cardioverted:

A

Put back into regular rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the scribe alert of A Fib?

A

RVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is CHF?

A

The heart becomes enlarged, inefficient, and congested with excess fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the catch phrase of CHF?

A

SOB with pedal edema and orthopnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the CC of CHF?

A

SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Orthopnea

A

Worse when lying flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

PND and DOE are associated with CHF. What are PND and DOE?

A

PND- paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

DOE- dyspnea on exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the predicted findings of a PE of someone with CHF?

A

Rales, JVD, pitting pedal edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the assoc. med.?

A

Diuretics (Lasix, Furosemide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is CHF diagnosed?

A

CXR or elevated BNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is BNP?

A

B-type Natriuretic Peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A “heart traffic jam”

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What’s an MI?

A

An Acute blockage of the coronary artery resulting in ischemia and infarct of the heart muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the catch phrase of MI?

A

Chest pressure with diaphoresis, N/V, and SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the risk factors of MI?

A

CAD, HTN, HLD, DM, Smoker, FHx of CAD <55 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the CC of MI?

A

Chest pain/pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the two types of MI? How do we diagnose each?

A

STEMI- EKG

Non-STEMI- troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ASA, NTG, Thombolytic (Activase), and Anti-COAG (Heparin) are all medications associated with what?

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Acute MI pt must receive _______ _______ mg ASAP

A

ASA 324

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is CAD? Etiology?

A

Coronary artery disease, which is the narrowing or coronary arteries which limits blood supply to the heart muscle causing angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Angina

A

Chest pain specifically due to heart-muscle ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the CC of CAD?

A

CP worsened with extortion and improved with rest or NTG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the associated medications of CAD?

A

ASA and NTG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does ASA and NTG stand for?

A

ASA- Aspirin

NTG- Nitroglycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is CAD diagnosed?

A

Cardiac catheterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

_________ is the greatest risk factor for MI

A

CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

PMHx of MI, CABG, cardiac stents, or angioplasty means that the pt has _________

A

CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is angina? What is it diagnosed by?

A

Angina is a symptom of CAD and it is diagnosed by CP upon exertion with Hx of CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Asthma or Reactive Airway Disease?

A

Contracting of the airway due to inflammation and muscular contraction of the bronchioles known as “broncospasm”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the CC is asthma?

A

SOB/wheezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

PE of asthma?

A

Wheezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the assoc. meds. Of inhalers, nebulizers, and corticosteroids treating?

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is asthma diagnosed?

A

Clinically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the COPD?

A

Long term damage to the lungs alveoli (emphysema) along with inflammation and mucus production (chronic bronchitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the largest risk factor for COPD?

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the CC of COPD?

A

SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the PE of COPD? (3)

A

Decreased breath sounds, wheezes, and rales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the assoc. meds of COPD?

A

Home O2 (make sure to document how much o2 they use at baseline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How is COPD diagnosed?

A

CXR and history of smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is PTX?

A

A collapsed lung due to trauma or a spontaneous small rupture of the lung.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

CC of PTX?

A

SOB and one-sided CP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a PTX diagnosed by?

A

CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the scribe alert of PTX?

A

To document the amount of the lung (%) collapsed, also note that a chest tube will be placed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is PNA? Etiology?

A

Pneumonia is which a infiltrate causes inflammation inside the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Infiltrate

A

Bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the catch phrase of someone who has PNA?

A

Productive cough and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Who are at risk for PNA?

A

People with compromised immune systems; old people, bedridden, kids, or peeps with recent chest injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the CC of PNA?

A

SOB and productive cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the associated med. for PNA?

A

Rocephin and Zithromax (antibiotics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

PNA PE?

A

Rhonchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How do you diagnose PNA?

A

CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

CAP

A

Community acquired pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the etiology of a PE?

A

A blood clot that is lodged in the pulmonary artery and blocks blood supply to the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the catch phrase of PE?

A

Pleuritic chest pain with tachycardia and hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are risk factors of a PE?

A

DVT, recent surgery, cancer, A Fib, Immobility, Pregnancy, and BCP, and smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

CC of PE?

A

SOB and pleuritic CP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

PE diagnosis?

A 
CTA chest (with contrast) 
VQ Scan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is a D-Dimer and what is its sig in PE?

A

D-Dimer is a way to tell if there is a blood clot somewhere in your body. Good- you know for sure yes/no if there a blood clot
Bad- bc doesn’t tell you where

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the etiology vertigo? What are the two kinds?

A

Spinning due to inner ear problem (benign positional vertigo) or it is stemming from your brain being dumb (possible CVA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

2 assoc. Sx. Of vertigo?

A

tinnitus, N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

CC of vertigo?

A

Dizziness, disequilibrium, worsened with head movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

PE vertigo?

A

Horizontal nystagmus and Romberg’s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Horizontal nystagmus:

A

Eyes move back and forth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Romberg test?

A

Have pt stand and watch how they compensate physically for mental dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Syncope? Etiology?

A

Passing out and fainting. Temp loss of blood supply to brain resulting in LOC. Common reasons are vasovagal and hypovolemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Vasovagal

A

Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Hypovolemia

A

Loss/low blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the scribe alert of syncope?

A

Make sure to document what happened prior, during, and after and how the pt currently feels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the difference between AMS and FND?

A

AMS is the brain-wide

FND are localized weakness that are directly related to one point in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the buogie name for headache?

A

Cephaligia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the pertinent negatives to a HA?

A

Fever and neck pain - meningitis

No numbness or change in vision/speech- CVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Bells Palsy etiology.

A

Inflammation of the facial nerve causing ONE sided weakness of the entire face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the CC of Bells Palsy?

A

Sudden onset facial droop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Assoc Sx of Bell’s Palsy? (2)

A

Jaw or ear pain

Increased tear flow to one eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Pert. - to Bell’s Palsy?

A

Unilateral extremity weakness
Changes in focal abilities
Aphasia

(Stroke! CVA!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Dx. Of Bell’s Palsy?

A

Clinical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Postictal

A

The postictal state is the altered state of consciousness after an epileptic seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the main 2 seizure medications?

A

Keppra

Depakote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the etiology of a spinal cord injury?

A

Injury to the spinal cord can cause weakness or numbness in the extremities past the site of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

“Neck spine”

A

Cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

“Upper back spine”

A

Thoracic spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

“Lower back spine”

A

Lumbar spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Meninges

A

The sac surrounding the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How do you Dx meningitis?

A

LP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

LP

A

Lumbar puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How many LP will you take?

A

4, because the first 2 are almost always contaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

“Brain Bleed”

A

Hemorrhagic Cerebrovascular Accident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the etiology of a brain bleed?

A

Traumatic or spontaneous rupture of the blood vessels in your head which leads to bleeding in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the CC of someone with a hemorrhagic CVA?

A

Thunderclap headache!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

PE of CVA?

A

Unilateral neurological deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How do we Dx CVA?

A

Lumbar puncture

CT head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

In a hemorrhagic CVA will they give troponin?

A

No, document as such

113
Q

TIA etiology?

A

Vascular changes temporarily deprive the brain of O2 (symptoms last an hourish)

114
Q

CC of TIA

A

Transient focal neurological deficit

115
Q

How do you diagnose TIA?

A

Clinically

116
Q

Is TPA given in TIA?

A

No

117
Q

What is an ischemic cerebrovascular accident?

A

Blockage of arteries supplying blood to the brain resulting in permanent brain damage

118
Q

What are the risk factors of CVA? (8)

A

HTN, HLD, DM, Hx TIA/CVA, Smoking, FHX CVA, and A Fib

119
Q

WTF is tPA?

A

TPA is a drug used to lyse blood clots AKA thrombolytic

120
Q

There are 2 reasons you can’t use a thrombolytic in CVA instances what are they?

A
  1. Onset greater than 3 hours/ don’t how long

2. Symptoms are rapidly improving

121
Q

GERD = what quadrant?

A

Epigastic

122
Q

MI = what Abd quadrant?

A

Epigastric

123
Q

Cholecystitis/cholethiasis = what quadrant?

A

RUQ

124
Q

Pancreatitis = what quadrant?

A

LUQ

125
Q

SBO = what quadrant?

A

Periumbilical

126
Q

Appendicitis

A

RLQ

127
Q

Diverticulitis

A

LLQ

128
Q

Ovarian torsion, Ovarian cist, UTI = what quadrant?

A

Suprapubic

129
Q

Pyelonephritis = what quadrant?

A

Flanks

130
Q

Renal Calculi = what quadrant?

A

Flanks

131
Q

APPY

A

appendicitis

132
Q

CC of APPY

A

RLQ pain, gradual onset, constant, worse with movement

133
Q

Assoc. sx of APPY (3)

A

Fever, anorexia, and N/V

134
Q

PE of APPY

A

McBurney’s Point Tenderness and RLQ tenderness

135
Q

DX of APPY

A

CT A/P with PO contrast

136
Q

SBO etiology

A

Physical blockage of the small intestine

137
Q

Risk factor SBO (4)

A

Elderly, infants, ab surgery, and narcotic pain med

138
Q

CC SBO (3)

A

Abd pain, vomiting, constipation

139
Q

PE SBO (6)

A 
Abdominal tenderness 
Guarding 
Rebound
Abnormal bowel sounds 
Abdominal distention
Tympany
140
Q

Tympany

A

Swelling of abdomen with gas and air

141
Q

SBO Dx

A

CT A/P with PO contrast

AAS (Acura abdominal series)

142
Q

AAS

A

Acute abdominal series

143
Q

“Gallstones”

A

Cholelithiasis and Cholecystitis

144
Q

Etiology Cholelithiasis

A

Minerals from the liver’s bile condense to form gallstones which can irritate, inflame, or obstruct the gallbladder

145
Q

CC Cholelithiasis

A

RUQ pain, sharp, worsened with eating, deep breaths, and palpation

146
Q

PE Cholelithiasis

A

RUQ tenderness, Murphy’s signs

147
Q

Cholelithiasis Dx

A

Abdominal US, RUQ

148
Q

GI Bleed Etiology

A

Hemorrhage in the upper or lower GI tract can lead to anemia

149
Q

CC of GI Bleed (4)

A

Hematemesis
Coffee ground emesis
Hematochezia
Melena

150
Q

Hematochezia

A

Bright lower bleed

151
Q

Hematemesis

A

Bright blood, upper Bleed

152
Q

Coffee ground emesis

A

Dark, lower Bleed

153
Q

What are the assoc sx of a GI bleed (5)

A 
Weakness 
Lightheadedness 
SOB
Abdominal pain
Rectal pain
154
Q

PE of GI (3), rectal exam (1)

A

PE: Pale conjunctiva, pallor, and tachycardia

Rectal Exam: Melena, grossly bloody stool

155
Q

GI Bleed Dx

A

Guaiac positive- heme positive stool

156
Q

Diverticulitis etiology

A

Acute inflammation and infection of abnormal pockets of the large intestine, known as diverticula

157
Q

Risk factor diverticulitis

A

Diverticulosis, advanced age

158
Q

CC diverticulitis

A

LLQ pain

159
Q

Assoc sx diverticulitis (3)

A

Nausea, fever, diarrhea

160
Q

What is the Dx for diverticulitis

A

CT A/P with PO contrast

161
Q

Pancreatitis etiology

A

Inflammation of the pancreas

162
Q

Risk factors for pancreatitis (3)

A
  1. EtOH abuse
  2. Cholecystitis
  3. Specific medications
163
Q

CC of pancreatitis

A

LUQ, epigastric pain

164
Q

Assoc sx pancreatitis

A

N/V

165
Q

PE pancreatitis

A

LUQ tenderness, epigastric tenderness

166
Q

Pancreatitis Dx by

A

Elevated lipase lab test (or sometimes elevated amylase)

167
Q

GERD etiology

A

Stomach acid regurgitating into the esophagus

168
Q

GERD CC

A

Epigastric pain that is burning and improved with antacids

169
Q

PE of GERD

A

Epigastric tenderness

170
Q

Assoc meds GERD

A

GI cocktail (numbs and soothes esophagus and stomach)

171
Q

Scribe alert! Of GERD?

A

Due to the proximity of the stomach to the heart, pt with cardiac risk factors, and epigastric pain will always get a cardiac workup

172
Q

Gastroenteritis

A

Vomiting and diarrhea; GI bug often viral or bacterial

173
Q

Gastritis

A

Irritated stomach with vomiting “stomach ache”

174
Q

Urinary tract infection (UTI) risk factors?

A

Female

175
Q

UTI CC

A

Dysuria

176
Q

Assoc sx UTI

A

Frequency, urgency, malodorous urine, AMS (elderly)

177
Q

PE UTI

A

Suprapubic tenderness

178
Q

UTI dx

A

Urine dip or urinalysis

179
Q

UTI can move to the kidney and start ________________

A

Pyelonephritis

180
Q

Kidney stone (nephrolithiasis, renal Calculi, ureterolithiasis) etiology

A

A kidney stone dislodges from the kidney the begins traveling down the ureter. The stone scrapes and irritates the ureter, causing sever flank pain and bloody urine

181
Q

CC kidney stone

A

Flank pain that is sudden onset and radiating to groin

182
Q

Kidney Stone exams what?

A

CVA tenderness

183
Q

Kidney stone dx by

A

CT abd/pelvis and RBC in UA may be a clue

184
Q

Ectopic pregnancy etiology

A

Fert egg outside the uterus

185
Q

Risk factor ectopic pregnancy

A

Pregnant female (HCG positive), STD

186
Q

Dx ectopic pregnancy

A

US pelvis

187
Q

Testicular torsion etiology

A

Twisting of the spermatic cord resulting in loss of blood flow and nerve function to the testicle

188
Q

CC testicular torsion

A

Testicular pain

189
Q

PE testicular torsion

A

Testicular tenderness and swelling (left or right)

190
Q

testicular torsion dx by

A

US scrotum

191
Q

Ovarian torsion etiology

A

Twisting of an ovarian artery reducing blood flow to an ovary, possibly resulting in infarct of the ovary

192
Q

Ovarian torsion CC

A

lower abdominal pain (RLQ and LLQ)

193
Q

PE ovarian torsion

A 
Adnexal tenderness (right or left) 
Tenderness in the RLQ or LLQ
194
Q

Ovarian torsion dx by

A

US pelvis assesses blood flow to ovaries

195
Q

UTI dx by

A

Urinalysis (WBC, Nitrite, or Bacteria)

196
Q

Pyelo dx by

A

CT abdomen/pelvis (A/P)

UTI with CVA tenderness on exam

197
Q

Kidney stone

A

CT A/P (RBC in UA may be clue)

198
Q

Ectopic pregnancy dx by

A

US pelvis

199
Q

Ovarian torsion Dx by

A

US pelvis

200
Q

testicular torsion dx by

A

US pelvis

201
Q

Sepsis etiology

A

Happens when the chemicals in the immune system that release into the bloodstream to fight an infection cause inflammation throughout the entire body instead

202
Q

Severe cases of sepsis can lead to _______ _________

A

Septic shock

203
Q

Aortic dissection etiology

A

Caused by separation of the muscular wall from the membrane of the artery

204
Q

What are the risk of aortic dissection

A

Aortic rupture and death

205
Q

Often the CC aortic dissection

A

chest/abdominal pain radiating to the back or ripping/tear pain

206
Q

PE aortic dissection

A

Unequal brachial or radial pulses and hypotension

207
Q

Diagnosis for aortic dissection

A

CT chest A/P with IV contrast dye

208
Q

DVT etiology

A

Blood slows down while flowing through long straight veins in the extremities; slow-flowing blood is more likely to clot. Once formed the clot can continue to grow and eventually occlude the vein.

209
Q

Risk factors for DVT

A

PMHx of DVT or PE, FHx, Recent surgery, cancer

210
Q

CC of DVT

A

Extremity pain and swelling (atraumatic) that is usually unilateral and located in a lower extremity

211
Q

PE of DVT

A

Calf tenderness, palpable cords, and Homan’s sign

212
Q

Dx of DVT

A

US/Doppler of the extremity

213
Q

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) etiology

A

Widened and weakened arterial wall at risk of rupture

214
Q

AAA

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

215
Q

AAA CC

A

Midline abdominal pain

216
Q

PE AAA (4)

A

Midline pulsatile Abdominal mass
Abdominal bruit
Unequal femoral pulses
Hypotension

217
Q

Streptococcal Pharyngitis (Strep throat) etiology

A

a bacterial infection of the tonsils and pharynx causing sore throat and often swollen lymph nodes

218
Q

What is the CC of strep throat

A

Sore throat

219
Q

PE of strep throat (3)

A

Pharyngeal erythema
Tonsillar hypertrophy
Tonsillar exudates

220
Q

Tonsillar hypertrophy

A

Enlargement

221
Q

Tonsillar exudates

A

Pus

222
Q

Dx of strep

A

Rapid strep test

223
Q

PTA

A

Peritonsillar abscess

224
Q

What are the signs of PTA

A

Uvular shift

Tonsillar asymmetry

225
Q

Ottis media etiology

A

Infection of the TM causing ear pain and pressure

226
Q

CC of Ottis media

A

is usually ear pain and pulling

227
Q

Assoc sx of Ottis media (4)

A

Fever
Congestion
Sore throat
Dry throat

228
Q

PE Ottis media

A

Erythema
Effusion
Dullness
Bulging of the TM

229
Q

Erythema

A

Skin redness

230
Q

Effusion

A

Giving some liquid/smell/etc

231
Q

Dx Ottis media

A

Clinically

232
Q

URI

A

Upper respiratory infection

233
Q

URI etiology

A

Infection of the upper airway

234
Q

CC URI

A

Cough and congestion

235
Q

Assoc sx URI (4)

A

Fever
Sore throat
Caphalgia
Erythema

236
Q

URI dx

A

Clinical

237
Q

Which pertinent positives could indicate something more in a URI pt?

A

CP, SOB = MI or PE

238
Q

Extremity injury etiology

A

Caused by trauma that creates pain and swelling in an extremity

239
Q

CC extremity injury

A

Extremity pain

240
Q

Assoc sx of extremity pain (4)

A

Swelling
Bruising
Deformity
Limited ROM

241
Q

Pertinent negatives of a extremity injury

A

No motor weakness, numbness, or tingling

242
Q

PE of extremity injury should show (6)

A 
CSMT intact 
No tendon or ligament laxity 
ROM limited secondary to pain 
Tenderness
Edema 
Ecchymosis
243
Q

What is the scribe note of a extremity injury?

A

Record splint application procedure

244
Q

CSMT

A

Circulation, sensory, motor, and tendon

245
Q

What are the pertinent negatives of general musculoskeletal back pain?

A

LE weakness

Incontinence

246
Q

In a general musculoskeletal back pain a +SLR diagnoses: _________?

A

Siatica

247
Q

What is the fancy name for hives?

A

Urticaria

248
Q

What is the fancy name for itchy

A

Pruritic

249
Q

An abscess can also be known as cellulitis with _______

A

Fluctuance

250
Q

Etiology of Abscess

A

A skin infection with an underlying collection of pus

251
Q

CC of an abscess

A

A red, swollen, and painful lump

252
Q

Fluctuance

A

Pus pocket

253
Q

What is the treatment of the abscess?

A

I&D

254
Q

Cellulitis etiology

A

Infection of the skin cells

255
Q

Cellulitis CC

A

Red, swollen, painful, and sometimes warm area of skin

256
Q

Cellulitis PE

A

Show erythema, edema, increased warmth (calor), and induration

257
Q

Calor

A

Increased warmth

258
Q

Assoc med of cellulitis

A

Abx

259
Q

Dx of cellulitis

A

Clinically

260
Q

DKA

A

Diabetic Keto-Acidosis

261
Q

DKA etiology

A

Caused by shortage of insulin resulting in hyperglycemia and production of ketones

262
Q

Risk factors for DKA

A

Diabetic peeps (spec type I)

263
Q

DKA CC

A

Persistent vomiting and hx of DM

264
Q

Assoc sx DKA (3)

A

Polydipsia
Polyuria
SOB

265
Q

Polydipsia

A

Increased thirst

266
Q

Polyuria

A

Increased urination

267
Q

PE DKA (3)

A

Ketotic odor
Dehydration (dry mucous membranes)
Tachypnea

268
Q

DKA dx

A

ABG
VBG

Which shows acidosis and positive serum ketones

269
Q

ABG

A

Arterial blood gas

270
Q

VBG

A

Venous blood gas

271
Q

Acidosis

A

Low pH in the blood

272
Q

MOI

A

Mechanism of injury

273
Q

What are the 3 kinds of MOI

A

Rapid forward deceleration
Rapid vertical deceleration
Penetrating trauma

274
Q

“Rapid forward deceleration”

A

MVC

Need to note the details of collision

275
Q

“Rapid vertical deceleration”

A

Fall

* only a bad fall if 3x the height of the person/ 20 ft

276
Q

PE of a trauma should include (1)

A

GCS

277
Q

GCS

A

Glasgow coma scale

278
Q

What is the main job of the ED in a psych pt?

A

Medically clear them to psych

Scribe (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions