Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Capstone Test 1 > Cough > Flashcards

Cough Flashcards

1
Q

what dimorphic fungi is endemic to Mississippi and the Ohio River valley?

A

histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bird/bat droppings
cave spelunking

are buzzwords for what dimorphic fungi?

A

histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

histoplasmosis infects what cell types?

A

macrophages

(Histo Hides in Macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

histoplasmosis is (larger/smaller/same size) as RBC

A

smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

oral ulcers
splenomegaly
pancytopenia
erythema nodosum

are unique symptoms associated with what dimorphic fungi?

A

histoplasmosi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what dimorphic fungi is endemic to Eastern/Central US and the Great Lakes?

A

blastomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

“broad-based” budding

A

bastomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

blastomycosis is (larger/smaller/same size) as RBC

A

same size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

inflammatory lung disease
disseminates to bone –> verrucuous lesions
may mimic SCC

are unique symptoms associated with what dimorphic fungi?

A

blastomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what dimorphic fungi is endemic to Southwestern US, California?

A

coccidiodomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

“thick walled spherule filled with endospores”

A

coccidiodomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

coccidiodomycosis is (larger/smaller/same size) as RBC

A

much larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what dimorphic fungi is associated with dust exposure in endemic areas?

(excavations, earthquakes)

A

coccidiodomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

erthyema nodosum/multiforme
arthralgias
meningitis
disseminates to bone/skin

are unique symptoms associated with what dimorphic fungi?

A

coccidiodomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what dimorphic fungi is endemic to Latin America?

A

para-coccidiodomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

“captain’s wheel” formation

A

para-coccidiodomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

para-coccidiodomycosis is (larger/smaller/same size) as RBC

A

much larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

“acute angle branching of septate hyphae”

A

aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

dimorphic fungi are […] in the cold and […] in the heat

A

dimorphic fungi are [mold] in the cold and [yeast] in the heat

(except coccidiomycosis is spherule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what dimorphic fungi is seen in this microscopy image?

A

histoplasmosis

white arrows denote intracellular fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what dimorphic fungi is circled by the red?

A

coccidiomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what fungi is depicted

A

aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hypersensitivity response to aspergillosis growing in lung mucus

A

allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)

(diagnosed via IgE and Eosinophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

infliximab monoclonal antibody targeting […]

A

TNF-a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

pretreatment screening for latent viral infections should be done prior to initiating treatment with […] due to high risk of reactivation

A

infliximab

(TB, HBV, HCV, VZV, EBV, CMV etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

TNF is important in […] formation and stabilization

A

granuloma

(why infliximab predisposes risk for granulomatous infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the most common genetic cause of CF is an in-frame deletion of […] in the CFTR gene

A

F508

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CFTR encodes a ATP-gate […] channel

A

chloride

29
Q

the 508 deletion in CF causes abnormal protein folding which leads to improper […]

A

trafficking to cell membrane

30
Q

the CFTR mutation results in […] Cl- excretion from GI tract and […] Na+ reabsorption

A

the CTFR mutation results in [decreased] Cl- excretion from GI tract and [increased] Na+ reabsorption

(increased H20 resorption –> thick sticky mucus)

31
Q

diagnosis of CF can be made via increased […] on pilocarpine sweat test

A

chloride

32
Q

misfolded CTFR proteins are retained in the […] of the cell

A

RER

(cannot proceed to Golgi for glycosylation)

33
Q

treatment for pancreatic insufficiency in CF patients

A

PERT

34
Q

clinical decline in an adolescent with CF may be caused by

A

non-adherence with therapy

(i.e. chest percussion)

35
Q

describe what would be increased/decreased in hypovolemic shock

CVP
PCWP
CO
SVR
svO2

A

CVP: decreased
PCWP: decreased
CO: decreased
SVR: increased
svO2: decreased

36
Q

describe what would be increased/decreased in cardiogenic shock

CVP
PCWP
CO
SVR
svO2

A

CVP: increased
PCWP: increased
CO: decreased
SVR: increased
svO2: decreased

37
Q

describe what would be increased/decreased in obstructive shock due to PE, or tension pneumo

CVP
PCWP
CO
SVR
svO2

A

CVP: increased
PCWP: decreased
CO: decreased
SVR: increased
svO2: increased

38
Q

describe what would be increased/decreased in obstructive shock due to cardiac tamponade

CVP
PCWP
CO
SVR
svO2

A

CVP: increased
PCWP: increased
CO: decreased
SVR: increased
svO2: decreased

39
Q

describe what would be increased/decreased in distributive shock due to anaphylaxis or sepsis

CVP
PCWP
CO
SVR
svO2

A

CVP: decreased
PCWP: decreased
CO: increased
SVR: decreased
svO2: increased

40
Q

describe what would be increased/decreased in distributive shock due to neurogenic injury

CVP
PCWP
CO
SVR
svO2

A

CVP: decreased
PCWP: decreased
CO: decreased
SVR: decreased
svO2: normal/high

41
Q

what is the mechanism of hypovolemic shock?

A

volume depletion

42
Q

what is the mechanism of cardiogenic shock?

A

left heart dysfunction

43
Q

what is the mechanism of obstructive shock?

A

impeded cardiopulmonary blood flow

44
Q

what is the mechanism of distributive shock?

A

systemic vasodilation

45
Q

when is the hypometabolic phase of a burn injury?

A

initial 48 hrs

46
Q

when is the hypermetabolic phase of a burn injury?

A

5-7 days after burn

47
Q

what cells are responsible for re-epithelization of skin following burn injury?

A

keratinocytes

(mitotically active in the basal layer)

48
Q

equation for fluid resuscitation following burn

A

4 mL x kg x TBSA

49
Q

what is used to approximate the body surface area involved in a burn?

A

rule of 9s

entire head 9%
entire thorax 18%
entire arm 9%
entire abdomen 18%
perineum 1%
entire leg 18%

50
Q

During the first phase (called the “Ebb phase,” up to 48 hours postburn), cardiac output and metabolism are […]

A

decreased

51
Q

Pain, erythema, and blisters that may rupture are consistent with a […] burn

blanches when pressure is applied

A

superficial partial-thickness

52
Q

[what type of burn]

eythema
swelling
dry skin
no blisters

A

superficial (first degree)

53
Q

erythema, and blisters that may rupture with minimal pain are consistent with a […] burn

dry and does not blanch when pressure is applied

A

deep partial thickness burn

54
Q

[what type of burn]

Tissue necrosis with black, waxy-white, or gray leather-like skin (eschar)

Skin appears dry and inelastic

A

3 rd (full thickness)
or 4th (deeper full thickness)

(if the patient can still sense deep pressure, it is 3rd. if not, 4th)

55
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa secretes […], which inactivates elongation factor-2 (EF-2) by ADP-ribosylation

A

exotoxin A

56
Q

deactivation of EF-2 by pseudomonas causes inhibition of […]

A

protein synthesis

57
Q

P. aeruginosa produces […], which degrades cell membranes

A

phospholipase C

58
Q

[…] is one of the first manifestations of cystic fibrosis seen in newborns, due to defective ATP-gated chloride channels

A

meconium ileus

59
Q

Deletion of the codon for […] 508 in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7

A

phenylalanine

60
Q

Deletion of the codon for phenylalanine 508 in the CFTR gene on chromosome […]

A

7

61
Q

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency arising in cystic fibrosis (CF) causes failure to thrive due to […]

A

malabsorption

62
Q

In CF, positively charged […] ions are also pathologically trapped in sweat by the negatively charged chloride ions in order to balance the net electric charge, resulting in hypertonic sweat.

A

sodium

63
Q

The failure of Cl- channels to function leads to a decrease in Cl- in lung secretions. This, in turn, results in an increase in the activity of […] channels

A

sodium

64
Q

the accumulation of intracellular Cl- leads to the retention of intracellular […] and […]

A

sodium
water

65
Q

CFTR normally codes for a Cl- ion channel that is activated by the binding of […]

A

ATP

66
Q

Carbon monoxide has a high affinity for […] of the electron transport chain

A

cytochrome c oxidase

(inhibits oxidative phosphorylation)

67
Q

CO also causes a […] shift of the oxygen dissociation curve

A

left

68
Q

Measured oxygen saturation in CO poisoning is typically […]

A

normal

standard pulse oximeters cannot differentiate between oxyhemoglobin and COHb

69
Q

what is the treatment for CO poisoning?

A

100% O2 or hyperbaric chamber

Capstone Test 1 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions