Cosmetic Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What are the layers of the forehead?

A

-Communicates with scalp
-Skin, Cutaneous tissue, galea Aponeurosis, Loose areolar tissue, pericranium

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2
Q

What are the four muscles of the forehead?

A

-Frontalis, procerus, corrugator supercilii, obicularis oculi

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3
Q

Describe the ideal position of eyebrows.

A

-Medial aspect on same line as medial canthus
-Lateral aspect on line from ala of nose to lateral canthus
-Medial and lateral on same horizontal plane
-Apex of brow superior to lateral limbus

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4
Q

Describe the ideal portion of the eyelids/eye.

A

-Upper eyelid covers small portion of iris
-Lower lid within 1-2 mm of iris in neutral gaze

Profile view: Cornea 12-16 mm anterior to the lateral orbital rim

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5
Q

Describe ideal nasal relationships.

A

Nasofrontal angle 115-135
Nasolabial angle 95-110 in female, 90-95 in males
Nasofacial angle 30-40 (vertical tangent to the glabella through pogonion and nasal tip
Nasomental angle 120-132 (Nasion to nasal tip and nasal tip to pogonion)

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6
Q

Where is the ideal position of the radix?

A

-4-9 mm anterior to corneal plane

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7
Q

How is nasal projection measured?

A

-Simons method: Length of the upper lip from the vermillion border to columella, and columella to tip should be 1:1

-Goode method: Ratio of radix-nasal tip (RT) and the line drawn from RT to the alar groove. Should be 0.55-0.6. Retains nasofacial angle from 36-40

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8
Q

Where is the ideal malar projection.

A

Malar projection is ideally located 1 cm lateral and 1.5 cm inferior to the lateral canthus

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9
Q

What is the ideal ratio of upper to lower lip?

A

Upper lip 1/3
Lower lip 2/3

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10
Q

How is lip posture described?

A

Procumbent: Pushed out
Recumbent: Pushed in

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11
Q

How is ideal lip position measured?

A

-Line from subnasale to soft tissue pogonion. Upper lip is 3.5 mm anterior and lower lip is 2.2 mm anterior

-E-line: Nasal tip and pogonion. Upper lip should be 4 mm behind line, lower lip 2 mm behind line

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12
Q

How is ideal chin projection measured?

A

-0 degree meridian: Pogonion in vertical alignment with nasion, perpendicular to the frankfort horizontal line. Chin position 2 mm ahead or behind this lin

-Subnasale vertical: Line drawn perpendicular to frankfort horizontal through subnasale. Chin between 1-5 mm behind line

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13
Q

What are the types of Rhytids?

A

Dynamic rhytids: Due to repetitive movement (between eyebrows, forehead wrinkles, crows feet). Treat with neuromodulators like botox

Static rhytids: Due to loss of skin elasticity (nasolabial folds, mentolabial sulcus along cheeks, under eyelids). Treat with dermal fillers, chemical peels, lasers, rhytidectomy

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14
Q

What is the glogau classification?

A

-Assesses patient’s level of photoaging and characterizes the amoutn of wrinkling and discoloration
-4 categories: Early, moderate, advanced, severe
-Early: Minimal wrinkles, 20-30s
-Moderate: Wrinkles during movement, needs foundation, 30-40s
-Advanced: Wrinkles at rest, age spots 50-60s
-Severe: Wrinkles everywhere, yellow-grey skin tone, lots of makeup >60 years old

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15
Q

What is the Fitzpatrick scale?

A

-Evaluation of skin response to UV light, susceptibility to burn.
-I-VI
-III most common (white/olive, occasional mild burn, tans on average
-IV white (light brown). Average tan, burns on occasion
-V Dark brown

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16
Q

What is the dedo classifcation?

A

-Classifies aging neck abnormalities

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17
Q

How can thick sebacceous skin and thin skin affect a rhinoplasty?

A

-Makes it more challenging
Thick skin: Obscures underlying anatomical structures
Thin skin: Exposes every underlying characteristic and flaw

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18
Q

How is a modified Cottle’s test performed?

A

-Wooden end of a coton tip applicator is placed at the junction of the dorsal septum and upper lateral cartilages to stent out or expand the internal nasal valve angle

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19
Q

How are the external valves assessed for rhinoplasty pre-op?

A

-Watching patient breathe in and out forcefully
-If nostrils collapse during negative inspiration, then the lower lateral cartilages are weak and need augmentation during surgery

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20
Q

What is the bony vault of the nose made up of, what is the cartilaginous vault made up of for the nose?

A

-Bony vault: Paired nasal bones, bony septum (vomer and ethmoid)

-Cartilaginous vault: Cartilaginous septum, paired upper lateral and lower lateral cartilages, lateral and medial crura of lower lateral cartilage

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21
Q

Where do the upper and lower cartilages attach to each other?

A

The scroll area

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22
Q

What makes up the internal nasal valve and what is the typical mesaurement?

A

-Septum medially
-Caudal end of the upper lateral cartilage laterally
-Anterior end of the inferior turbinate inferolaterally

-Typically 10-15 degrees

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23
Q

What makes up the external nasal valve?

A

-External perimeter of the nostril (LLC, nasal septum, nasal floor)

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24
Q

How are the medial crura attached?

A

-Via transdomal ligaments (attach medial crura to the caudal edge of the septum)
-This is a major structural support mechanism of the nasal tip

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25
Q

What are other major and minor tip support mechanisms of the nose?

A

-Major: Size/shape/resilience of medial and lateral crura, attachment of medial crura, CT attachment of the upper and lower cartilages (scroll)

-Minor: Interdomal ligament, dorsal cartilaginous septum, membranous septum, sesamoid complex, skin and subcutaneous fibrofatty tissue, nasal spine

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26
Q

Describe an open technique for rhinoplasty.

A

-Nose approached through a marginal incision connected with an inverted V transcolumellar incision
-Subperichondrial and subperiosteal plane for dissection to deglove nose
-Submucosal resection of septum to remove cartilaginous septum for grafting purposes
-**Must retain a 1x1 cm strut (dorsal-caudal) to maintain support
-Reduce dorsal hump if needed
-Spreader grafts if indicated (for augmentation of the internal valve), placed between ULC and dorsal septum
-Lateral and medial osteotomies are typically performed (after spreader graft needed)
-Lateral osteotomies involve fracturing of the frontal process of the maxilla and portions of the nasal bones in order to reduce nasal width, close open roof deformities
-Medial osteotomies involve fracturing of nasal bones in order to further narrow a nose or prevent a rocker deformity
-Direct attention to the nasal tip
-Columellar strut graft is placed between medial crura to provide tip support
-Alar batten grafts can be placed along dorsal aspect of lateral crura to provide stability (in cases of external valve collapse)
-Cephalic trim may be needed to debulk the tip and rorate nasal tip. Need 7-8 mm of native lateral crus
-Transdomal and intradomal suturing
-Shield grafts (secured to dome in four corners to enhance tip definition

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27
Q

What is the post-op regimen s/p open rhinoplasty?

A

-Internal packing
-Systemic antibiotics for duration of internal packing
-External dressing (critical), re-drapes soft tissue envelope)
-Systemic decongestants (no blowing nose x10 days, saline rinses)
-Inform patient that swelling can last up to 1 year

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28
Q

How is a residual hump treated s/p open rhinoplasty?

A

-Due to inadequate hump reduction
-Requires revision surgery

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29
Q

What is a pollybreak deformity and how is it treated s/p open rhinoplasty?

A

-Fullness of the nasal supratip relative to the rest of the nose
-Cartilaginous due to loss of nasal tip support or soft tissue due to scar filling supratip break
-Could also be caused by excessive bony dorsal septum resection

-If soft tissue may attempt intralesional steroid injection. Surgical revision dependent on etiology.

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30
Q

What is a saddle nose deformity and how is it treated s/p open rhinoplasty?

A

-Loss of septal support and saddling of the nose
-Can occur due to large septal perforations and loss of structural support
-Requires major reconstruction of the nose, typically requiring large cartilage and/or bone grafting

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31
Q

What is an open rood deformity and how is it treated s/p open rhinoplasty?

A

-Flat dorsum following large humb reduction due to failure to perform lateral osteotomy
-Requires revision surgery and lateral osteotomy

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32
Q

What is a rocker deformity and how is it treated s/p open rhinoplasty?

A

-Green stick lateral osteotomy
-Occurs when lateral osteotomy is extended too cephalad along medial canthal area
-Inferior aspect of osteotomy rocks and upper portion hinges or does not move
-Requires revision surgery to complete cephalic portion of lateral osteotomy

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33
Q

What is an inverted V deformity and how is it treated s/p open rhinoplasty?

A

-Collapse of the upper lateral cartilages
-Caudal edges of nasal bone can be seen through the non-supported skin
-Treat with spreader grafts

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34
Q

-What is a keel deformity and how is it treated s/p open rhinoplasty?

A

-Dorsum in cross section comes to a point rather than a rounded dome
-Treated with spreader grafts and nasal osteotomies

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35
Q

How much lower lateral cartilage should remain after cephalic trim?

A

7-8 mm

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36
Q

What makes up the supratip break?

A

-Junction of the caudal edge of the lower lateral cartilages and the dorsal septum
-This forms the anterior septal angle
-If you are doing a significant reduction of the cartilaginous septum, use the anterior septal angle as a starting point for hump reduction

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37
Q

What is the normal columellar show from a profile view?

A

-2-4 mm
-Related to amount of hooding or retraction of the alar rim

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38
Q

What are the tip defining points of the nose?

A

-Supratip break
-Infratip break
-Domes of the lower lateral cartilages

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39
Q

How can orthognathic considerations affect rhinoplasty evaluation?

A

-Microgenia or midface deficiency can cause a relative over projection of the nasal tip

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40
Q

What are the 5 layers of the face?

A

-Skin
-Subcutaneous tissue (SMAS, superficial fascia)
-Musculoaponeurotic layer
-Deep fascia
-Periosteum

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41
Q

What is the SMAS?

A

-Superficial fascia
-Incorporates muscle and fat of the face, temples , forehead and neck
-Separates the superficial fat layer from the underlying deep fat and fascia
-Superficial to the facial nerve in the surgical area
-Over the partoid gland, it is thick and aponeurotic
-Over the facial mimetic muscles, it is thin and layered

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42
Q

What are osteocutaneous ligaments of the face?

A

-Retaining ligaments that tether skin to bone
-Zygomatic, infraorbital, and mandibular

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43
Q

What are fasciocutaneous ligaments?

A

-Retaining ligaments that tether SMAS to deep fascia
-Parotid cutaneous and masseteric cutaneous ligaments

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44
Q

What is McKinney’s point and where is it?

A

-Where the greater auricular nerve passes over the center of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
-6.5 cm inferior to the caudal most point of the bony external auditory meatus with the head turned 45 degrees

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45
Q

What is McGregor’s patch?

A

-Zygomatic cutaneous ligaments found in the malar area
-Difficult area of dissection due to fibrous attachment and thickening of subcutaneous layer
-Risk of bleeding due to perforating branch of the transverse facial artery

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46
Q

Are muscles of facial expression innervated superficially or deep? What are the exceptions?

A

-Muscles innervated on their deep surfaces
-Exceptions: Levator anguli oris, buccinator, mentalis

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47
Q

What is reocmmendation to stop smoking/nicotine prior to rhytidectomy?

A

Stop 6 weeks before and 4 weeks after surgery
-3x increase in necrosis for smokers

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48
Q

What can a rhytidectomy help with, what can it not help with?

A

-Helps with: Lower third of face, neck laxity, jowling, mesolabial folds, some nasolabial folds
-Does not help address wrinkles around mouth

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49
Q

What is a superficial plane facelift, what are advantages/disadvantages?

A

-Skin only, mini-lifts, SMAS plication/imbrication/SMASectomy)
-Advantages: Substantially faster to perform
-Disadvantage: Limited duration of effect, not a natural appearance

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50
Q

What is a deep plane face lift, what are advantages/disadvantages?

A

-Use facial SMAS to achieve and maintain a consistent and predictable appearance of the middle/lower thirds of the face
-Advantages: Consistent, predictable, natural, stable, youthful appearance
-Disadvantages: Longer surgery, care must be taken of the facial nerve when elevating the SMAS off the facial nerve

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51
Q

What is the incision design for a facelift?

A

-Temporal hair tuft sparing incision, 45 degree hockey stick or vertical incision design
-Incision rests in the preauricular sulcus until the tragus of the ear is reached. Then an endaural incision is made
-Inferior extension goes under the earlobe (2 mm cuff to prevent pixie ear deformity), and extends to posterior auricular sulcus
-Extend posteriorly into the hair bearing region of the scalp. Incision is beveled to allow ingrowth of hair into the scar

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52
Q

What are SMAS plication, SMAS imbrication and SMASectomy?

A

-SMAS plication: SMAS folded on itself and sutured
-SMAS imbrication: SMAS incised , overlapped and sutured
-A portion of the SMAS is excised from the malar eminence to the mandibular angle and the edges are sutured together

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53
Q

What are the different types of superficial plane facelifts?

A

-Skin: Utilizes a short flap, only a subcutaneous dissection is performed, redundant soft tissues are re-positioned by traction of the skin only

-Mini lift: Redundant preauricular soft tissue excised and edges are undermined. Facial SMAS is plicated or purse stringed

-Threadlift: Redundant SMAS is elevated by sutures that are fixed to the preauricular deep temporal fascia

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54
Q

What are the types of deeper plane Facelifts?

A

-SubSMAS: Subcutaneous dissection, SMAS undermined and excised/sutured
-Extended SubSMAS: Improves at nasolabial fold
-Deep plane: Minmal subcutaneous dissection
-Composite: Deep plane facelift with subSMAS dissection
-Extended multiplanar multivector: Most comprehensive, involves ocular region

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55
Q

What is the ideal age of a facelift patient?

A

-45-65 years old
-Genetics, environment, smoking can affect this

-Younger patients recover faster and benefit longer

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56
Q

Which areas of the face does a facelift address?

A

-Midface and lower face only

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57
Q

Can other procedures be completed at the same time as a face lift?

A

Yes
-Brow lifts, upper/lower bleph, fat transfer, facial implants, rhinoplasty

Laser skin resurfacing can only be done if sufficient thickness of skin flap is present to withstand insult

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58
Q

What is the post-op care with a facelift?

A

-Facelift dressing for 48h then nightly for 1 week
-24h check to correct wound drape and rule out hematoma
-Ice for first 24-48h
-Hydrogen peroxide to clean wounds
-Topical and oral antibiotics
-Avoid ASA, ibuprofen, vitamin E, herbal/homeopathic medications
-No alcohol x7 days
-Sleep on back with head elevated x2 weeks
-No shampoo until 48h
-Soft food initiall
-Sunblock >30

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59
Q

How is a post-op hematoma treated s/p facelift?

A

-Minor hematoma: Less than 10 cc. Treat with needle aspiration or manual expression
-Major hematoma: Excessive pain/edema usually a sign. Require operative setting to identify causative vessel

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60
Q

How is post-op pixie ear deformity treated s/p facelift?

A

-Caused from inferior traction of ear lobe due to pull of skin. Avoided by leaving cuff of tissue around earlobe
-Treat surgically by undermining skin and reinforcing SMAS
-Or remove a triangular wedge (V-Y closure) with superior and posterior positioning

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61
Q

How is post-op necrosis treated s/p facelift?

A

-Most common areas are the mastoid and post-auricular regions due to thin skin thickness and distance from vascular supply

-Cleanse area with hydrogen peroxide and maintain moisture (trolamine salicylate)
-Possible nitropaste to encourage vasodilation
-Hyperbaric oxygen can be considered for wound healing and revascularization

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62
Q

How is an unaesthetic scar treated s/p facelift?

A

-Steroid injections (triamcinolone) 3 mg q6 weeks for 3 months
-Overuse may cause dermal atrophy
-May consider CO2 laser resurfacing and microneedling
-Consider scar revision

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63
Q

How is facial nerve damage treated s/p facelift?

A

-Temporal and marginal mandibular branch are most commonly damaged
-Typically this is transient
-Consider neurotoxin to unaffected side to help mask
-May require eye patch or gold weight implantation

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64
Q

How is sensory nerve damage treated s/p facelift?

A

-Greater auricular most common
-Most resolve within 6 months
-If neuroma suspected, may get MRI to evaluate and treat
-Gabapentin and tricyclic antidepressant may help with pain

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65
Q

How is a post-op infection treated s/p facelift?

A

-I&D with cultures/sensitivities

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66
Q

How is post-op hair loss treated s/p facelift?

A

-Tension alopecia can be avoided by adequate wound support without excessive tension
-Allow 6 months observation (may be stress induced from surgery)
-Consider steroid injections
-Can treat with minoxidil, hair follicle transplant, PRP, local flap or resection with primary closure

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67
Q

How is post-op hyperpigmentation treated s/p facelift?

A

-Usually resolves in 6 months
-May apply 4% hydroquinone or kojic acid cream to affected area

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68
Q

What is platysmaplasty?

A

-Surgical procedure that rejuvenates the central submental area of the neck
-Removes excess platysma and tightens remaining edges

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69
Q

How is a platysmaplasty done in a 40 year old vs older patient?

A

-Isolated platysmaplasty can be done in patients under 40
-In older patients should be done in combo with a facelift

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70
Q

What are the neck boundaries for a platysmaplasty?

A

-Submental Incision

-Inferior border of mandible superiorly
-Suprasternal notch inferiorly
-Anterior border of SCM laterally

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71
Q

What are the layers of the neck in relation to a platysmaplasty?

A

Skin
Superficial fat layer (removed via liposuction/kybella)
Superficial cervical fascia (SMAS), contains platysma muscle
Deep areolar fat
Deep cervical fascia
Cervical muscles

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72
Q

What are the characteristics of a youthful attractive neck?

A

-Cervical-submental angle 115 degrees
-No folds or bands
-Distinct inferior border of mandible
-Distinct edges of SCM
-Appropriate length of neck
-Skin free of aging stigmata

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73
Q

Describe your evaluation of a neck.

A

-Dedo classification of facial laxity
-Skin condition (firmness important for success)
-Fat location (pinch and roll technique, subplatysmal fat is firmer, liposuction won’t address subplatysmal fat)
-Integrity of platysma (clench teeth to eval midline dehiscence of the medial borders of platysma)
-Check for ptotic submandibular glands

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74
Q

What is the surgical technique for a neck liposuction/submentoplasty?

A

-Mark patient awake and sitting/standing, mark anterior borders of SCM, inferior border of mandible, thyroid notch
-Mark incision (3-4 cm incision that is 2-3 mm posterior to the submental crease
-Local anesthetic with epi infiltrated into the region of subcutaneous dissection. Tumescent anesthesia can also be used. Use 22 gauge spinal needle, allow 5-7 minutes for vasoconstriction
-Incision with #15 blade through skin and subcutaneous tissue. Sharp dissection for 1 cm in subcutaneous plane
-Subcutaneous dissection leaving 3-5 mm of fat attached to dermis
-Complete open liposuction with direct visualization using a 1-2 mm liposuction cannula with tip open to platysma. Do not cross inferior border of the mandible
-Amount of central laxity of platysma or fascia excised (determined by picking up tissue with forceps
-Suture edges of platysma with running locking 3-0 long lasting absorbable sutures (superior to inferior back to superior)
-Skin incision closed
-Cervical dressing applied

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75
Q

How is over resection of fat treated s/p liposuction/submentoplasty?

A

-Avoided by using micro liposuction cannulas 1-2 mm
-Treated with fat injections harvested from thigh or abdomen

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76
Q

How is exposure of platysmal bands w/o platysmaplasty treated s/p liposuction/submentoplasty?

A

-Botox injections
-Platysmaplasty better treatment

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77
Q

How is a cobra neck deformity avoided and managed s/p liposuction/submentoplasty?

A

-Avoid overaggresive lipectomy (subplatysmal) or uneven fat removal laterally
-May plicate platysma muscle

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78
Q

How is post-op submandibular gland ptosis treated s/p liposuciton/submentoplasty?

A

-Descent with age or prominent gland
-Can treat with suture suspension (limited success)
-Can do a superficial transection of the gland

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79
Q

How is a post-op sialocele managed s/p liposuction/submentoplasty?

A

-Can occur from parotid or submandibular gland
-Parotid damage more common during facelift and submandibular more common with neck recountouring
-Treatment is serial aspirations with fluid tested for high level of amylace (10,000 u/L)
-Treat with antisialogogues or botulism toxin A to glands

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80
Q

What is tumescent anesthesia?

A

-Technique of infiltrating large volumes of subcutaneous fluids in order to produce anesthesia, tissue distention and hydrodissection
-Typically lidocaine, saline, and epinephrine
-Inject with a 22 gauge spinal needle

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81
Q

What is the dose of tumescent anesthesia and why does that concentration not cause toxicity?

A

-35-45 mg/kg (max 55 mg/kg). Lidocaine max dose 7 mg/kg for local infiltration

-Allows higher max dose because of large volume of saline and dilute epinephrine. Fluid is pushed interstitially. This slows systemic absorption and reduces serum lidocaine concentration
-Absorption in face is different than body
-Levels only reached 0.8-2.7 mcg/mL post-op
-20% of lidocaine is removed during liposuction

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82
Q

What are important considerations with use of tumescent anesthesia?

A

-Medications that inhibit CYP3A4 can cause lidocaine toxicity: Benzos, TCAs, SSRIs, antifungals, CCBs, cimetidine

-Large volumes can cause pulmonary edema, keep IV fluids to a minimum

83
Q

What is the formulation of Klein’s formula?

A

-1L normal saline
-1% lidocaine 50 ml (500 mg)
-1:1000 epi (1ml for 1 mg)
-NaHCO3 10 ml (10 mEq)

84
Q

What are symptoms of lidocaine toxicity?

A

-Mild symptoms: lightheadedness, headaches, visual distrubances, confusion, metallic taste, circumoral numbness, hypotension, sleepiness, nausea/vomiting

-Moderate symptoms: Muscle twitching, tinnitus, seizures, loss of consciousness

-Severe symptoms: Bradycardia, significant hypotension, arrhythmias, asystole, cardiac arrest

85
Q

How is lidocaine toxicity managed?

A

-Airway maintenance, oxygen, IV fluids, benzodiazepines (to control seizures), vasopressors

-20% intralipid infusion
-Initial bolus of 1.5 mL/kg followed by infusion of 0.25 mL/kg/min with max dose 8 mL/kg

86
Q

What is the innervation of the obicularis oculi?

A

-CN VII

87
Q

What is the orbital septum?

A

-Thin fibrous tissue arising from the arcus marginalis from orbital rims

-Fuses with levator aponeurosis 2-5 mm above the tarsus.

-Seperates preseptal tissue from orbit

88
Q

How many orbital fat pads are in the upper and lower eyelid?

A

-Upper eyelid 2 fat pads

-Lower eyelid 3 fat pads

89
Q

What is the innervation, orgin and function of the levator muscle?

A

-Innervated by CN III
-Originates above annulus of Zinn near the orbital apex
-Inserts onto tarsus and pretarsal skin creating supra-tarsal lid crease

90
Q

What is muller’s muscle?

A

-Sympathetic innervation
-Originates undersurface of levator muscle and inserts at superior border of tarsus

91
Q

What is the function and size of the tarsus?

A

-Upper tarsus 8-10 mm
-Lower tarsus 4-6 mm

-Composed of dense connective tissue that maintains structural stability

92
Q

What is the pathophysiology of aging in the eyelids?

A

-Aging and actinic changes lead to degeneration of elastin and collagen resulting in lax skin
-Weakening of orbital septum results in fat prolapse (steatoblepharon)
-Stretching or weakening of levator muscle can result in involutional ptosis (droopy eyelid)

93
Q

Describe your initial cosmetic eye evaluation.

A

-Baseline visual acuity and ocular motility exam
-Brow exam (contour, symmetry, ideal brow location)
-Ocular motility and alignment (check bell’s phenomenon, strabismus)
-Tear function (Schrimer test)
-Visual field testing (w/ and w/o lid elevation)
-Slit lamp examinatino
-Photo documentation

94
Q

What is the ideal brow location for males/females?

A

-Female brow above orbital rim (1-2 mm superior at medial, 5-6 mm superior at middle, 8-10 mm at arch, 10-15 mm superior at tail)

-Male brow should be at orbital rim. 1-2 mm above orbital rim for all segments

95
Q

What is Bell’s phenomenon?

A

-Upward rotation of the eye with ipsilateral obicularis contraction

(Eye rolls up when you close your eye)

96
Q

How is Schrimers test conducted?

A

-Patient looks up and a Schrimer strip is placed in the temporal portion of the lower fornix
-Normal wetting of the strip should advanace 10-15 mm. Less than 10 mm is abnormal

97
Q

Why is it important to check for tear function prior to blephroplasty?

A

-If abnormal (deficient tear production), blephroplasty is not advised
-Lagophthalmos may not be tolerated by patients with a history of dry eyes

98
Q

Describe the pre-op evaluation of a patient for upper lid blephroplasty.

A

-Rule out blepharoptosis and brow ptosis
-Measure upper lid height (MRD1)
-Lid function to test for ptosis
-Look for fat prolapse
-Examine each elid creasey

99
Q

What is MRD1 and what is the normal distance?

A

-MRD1 (margin reflex distance- from central corneal reflex to eyelid margin)
-Typically 4-4.5 mm

-Lower numbers usually means eyelid ptosis

100
Q

How is lid function tested for ptosis prior to a blephroplasty?

A

-Levator excursion test: Investigates distance from extreme upward to downward gaze with brow immobilizied
-Normally 13-16 mm

-Obicularis strength (forced resistance to closure, subjective)

101
Q

What is the normal eyelid crease distance?

A

-Normal is 9-11 mm superior to the eyelid margin
-Have patient look down as the eyelid fold is elevated

102
Q

What are the indications for upper lid blepharoplasty?

A

-Redundant or lax eyelid skin (dermatochalasis)
-With or without fat herniation (steatoblepharon)

-Results in functional visual obstruction or cosmetic concerns

103
Q

What is the surgical technique for an upper lid blepharoplasty?

A

-In sitting position, mark natural eyelid crease (for inferior edge of resection)
-If no crease go 8-10 mm (female) or 6-8 mm (male) from the edge of the eyelid
-Identify superior edge with a pinch test to determine the amount of skin resection with sligh eversion of eyelashes
-Need to leave 20 mm between margin and eyelid-brow junction

-Anesthesia: Sedation, topical anesthesia, corneal shield, local anesthesia in subcutaneous tissue)

-Skin incision with #15 blade, electro-cautery
-Layered dissection: Skin only followed by small layer of obicularis excision centrally only to preserve eyelid closure
-Incision over septum to allow fat prolapse, conservative removal)
-Suspend lacrimal gland if prolapse noted with mattress sutures
-Adequate hemostasis
-Skin closure

104
Q

What is the post-op care for a blepharoplasty?

A

-Topical antibiotic ointment (opthalmic)
-Prophylactic antibiotics (keflex x7 days)
-Cold compress x2 days
-Follow-up within 1 week for suture removal

105
Q

What is the pre-op evaluation for a lower blepharoplasty?

A

-Lid function (obicularis strength, eyelid position, entropion, ectropion)
-MRD2
-Lateral canthal position
-Test for tone (snap back test)
-Test for laxity (globe distraction test)
-Check for lower lid dermatochalasis
-Fat prolapse
-Rule out thyroid eye disease, high myopia, bone asymmetry

106
Q

What is MRD2?

A

-Distance from light reflex to lower lid margin. If greater than 5.5 mm it can be a sign of lower eyelid retraction

107
Q

What is the ideal location of the lateral canthus compared to medial canthus?

A

-Lateral canthus is 2-3 mm above medial canthus

108
Q

What is the snap-back test?

A

-To test tone of eyelid
-Gently pull eyelid inferiorly and release. Normal tone will result in return to baseline position immediately without blinking

109
Q

What is the globe distraction test?

A

-Gently pull eyelid inferiorly. If able to pull lower eyelid greater than 8 mm, then it is excessively laxed. Would need lid-tightening procedures to avoid malposition

110
Q

What is the surgical technique for a lower eyelid blepharoplasty?

A

-IV sedation, topical anesthesia, corneal shield, local anesthetic to inferior fornix, infraorbital nerve block

-Transconjunctival approach: Incision 4-5 mm below tarsus along the entire lid length, incision through conjunctiva
-Blunt dissection through the capsulopalpebral fascia to expose orbital septum
-Gently press on globe to reveal lower fat pads
-Small incision made through septum over each fat pad (3)
-Conservative removal of fat (avoid hollowed appearance)
-Hemostasis
-Skin only closure

111
Q

How is a retrobulbar hematoma/hemorrhage managed s/p blepharoplasty?

A

-Cause: Bleeding vessel from fat pad that retracts posteriorly or from bleeding edges of obicularis muscle
-Symptoms: Eye pain with progressive proptosis, opthalmoplegia and visual disturbance

-Treat: Remove sutures and possible lateral canthotomy with inferior cantholysis
-Medical management: Hypotensive/osmotic agents (acetazolamide, mannitol), topical beta blockers, oxygen therapy and high dose steroids

112
Q

How is post-op lagophthalmos treated s/p blepharoplasty?

A

-Treatment initially with lubricant eye drops with taping of eyelid at night
-After 2 weeks, may initiate lid massage and stretch
-If no resolution after 3 months, consider full thickness skin grafting from preauricular region or contralateral eyelid

113
Q

What do you do if there is excessive skin or fat remnant s/p blepharoplasty?

A

-Allow 6 weeks for edema to resolve
-Remove any remaining fat/skin

114
Q

How is post-op lower lid hollowing treated s/p blepharoplasty?

A

-Autologous fat injection or dermal filler (hyaluronic acid)

115
Q

How is lacrimal gland prolapse treated s/p blepharoplasty?

A

-Reposition with a 5/0 non-absorbable suture passed through gland capsule to the periosteum of the anterior tip of the lacrimal gland fossa)

116
Q

How is post-op suture granuloma treated s/p blepharoplasty?

A

-Focal inflammation around the suture
-Most resolve overtime
-If persists, inject steroids, topical steroid application or excision

117
Q

Why is eyebrow location important in cosmetic evaluation?

A

-Helps frame the eye and perception of eyelids
-Eyebrow ptosis (especially laterally), gives appearance of excess eyelid skin

118
Q

Describe the ideal eyebrow position.

A

-Starts at line from ala of nose to medial canthus.
-Ends at imaginary line from ala of nose to lateral canthus
-Apex at or just lateral to the lateral limbus

-Males at supraorbital rim
-Females several mm above supraorbital rim

119
Q

Where does eyebrow ptosis usually start and why?

A

-Typically starts laterally and progresses medially

-Frontalis has diminished activity laterally. The effect of gravity set in

120
Q

What is the effect of pretrichial and coronal lifts on the length of the forehead?

A

-Pretrichial lifts: Shortens forehead

-Coronal lifts: Lengthen forehead

121
Q

Describe an indirect brow lift.

A

-Performed through an open blepharoplasty incision. Periosteum is exposed at the superior orbital rim
-Retaining s=ligaments are released and the brown fat pad sutured to the periosteum with 4/0 or 5/0 absorbable sutures above the orbital rim

-Can be combined with a corrugator myotomy medially

122
Q

Describe a direct brow lift.

A

-Offers bet control of brow contour, most technically simple and shortest
-Mark redundant skin to be removed pre-operatively. Follow contour of the margins of the upper eyebrow
-Incisions are beveled in the direction of the eyebrow hairs to avoid damage to the follicles

-Deep closure with 4/0 or 5/0 polyglactin sutures
-Skin closure with running 5/0 nylon or polypopylene

123
Q

What are the danger areas of the direct brow lift?

A

-Supratrochlear and supraorbital neurovascular bundle is 1.7 cm and 2.7 cm from a midline mark along anterior aspect of frontalis
-This will cause scalp numbness

124
Q

What are the benefits to a pretrichial and trichophytic brow lift?

A

-Raises eybrows and lowers hairline
-Effective in patients with a high or long forehead

125
Q

How is an endoscopic forehead lift completed?

A

-Raises eybrows and lengthens forehead through 5 small incisions within the hairline
-Not good for patients with high hairlines or males with severe brow ptosis

126
Q

What are the causes of excessive otic projection (prominauris)?

A

-Lack of a well defined antihelical fold (correct with mustarde sutures)
-Excessive conchal bowl depth (correct with Davis technique)

-Or combination of both

127
Q

What is the ideal age for otoplasty?

A

-5-6 years old
-Roughly 85% of ear growth completed by 3 years old

128
Q

Describe the technique for an otoplasty.

A

-Draw the proposed antihelix
-Mark proposed placement for Mustarde sutures
-Mark conchal bowl (8 mm depth from antihelix) and in a kidney bean shape
-Mark posterior auricular incision (2-3 mm lateral to the sulcus, fusiform)
-Tattoo cartilage with methylene blue
-Excise posterior auricular incision
-Subperichondrial dissection completed until markings are visualized
-Complete mustarde sutures to create a crease in the cartilage
-Excise cartilage to form new conchal bowl
-Mattress sutures at superior, middle and inferior aspects
-Close skin with 5/0 fast gut
-Blsters applied

129
Q

What is the post-op care for an otoplasty?

A

-Head wrap placed, antibiotics, NSAIDs, steroids
-Head wrap removed POD #1 and inspected for hematomas, headband is then placed (wear 24h x2 weeks followed by nightly x2 weeks)
-Pt to clean incisions with 50:50 hydrogen peroxide/H20 and apply topical antibiotic ointment x4-5 days

130
Q

What is the most common microorganism in a post-op infection and how is it treated s/p otoplasty?

A

-Staph aureus (Cefazolin)
-Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Ciprofloxacin)

-I&D as needed, cultures and sensitivity

131
Q

How is a post-op hematoma treated s/p otoplasty?

A

-Bolster dressing, xeroform gauze, head wrap
-Follow-up 1 day
-Drain as needed, open incision, localize bleeding vessel, consider return to OR

-Early intervention and frequent follow-up to prevent perichondritis

132
Q

How is post-op cauliflower ear treated s/p otoplasty?

A

-Caused by untreated hematoma or fluid collection

-Prevention is key

133
Q

How is post-op wound dehiscence treated s/p otoplasty?

A

-Keep wound clean with 50:50 hydrogen peroxide and water cleanses
-Cover wound with xeroform wet to dry packing
-Consider re-approximation for large, non-healing wounds

134
Q

How is post-op tissue sloughing or necrosis treated s/p otoplasty?

A

-Topical vasodilators such as nitro paste or hyperbaric oxygen

135
Q

How is perforation into the external auditory canal treated during or s/p otoplasty?

A

-Primary closure with gut suture and otic antibiotic drops

136
Q

How is EAC stenosis treated s/p otoplasty?

A

-Very hard to correct, try to avoid problem
-Ensure bowl is set back

137
Q

What is telephone ear deformity and how is it treated s/p otoplasty?

A

-Over-tightening or over-resection of the middle third antihelical region

-Treat by removing offending suture, scoring cartilage and suspending appropriately

138
Q

What is reverse telephone ear deformity and how is it treated s/p otoplasty?

A

-Over-tightening or over resection of superior and inferior antihelical regions

-Treat by removing offending suture, scoring cartilage and suspending appropriately

139
Q

What is the pre-op skin preparation prior to chemical skin resurfacing?

A

-Tretinoin (Retin-A) 0.05% twice daily for 2-4 weeks (compacts stratum corneum)
-Glycolic Acid 5-10% 4-6 weeks (reduces thickness and increases penetration)
-Herpetic Prophylaxis (acyclovir 400 mg TID), start 3 days prior and continue for 10 days post-op
-Hydroquinone 4% (Reduces post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation), used BID
-Sunscreen (start 3 months prior), to lessen hyperpigmentation, allow skin to rest

140
Q

What medications is a contraindication to chemical skin resurfacing?

A

-Isotretinoin (acutane). Is contraindicated 1 year prior to treatment

141
Q

What are the indications for chemical skin resurfacing?

A

-Extensive passive rhytids, seborrheic or actinic keratosis, acne vulgaris, melasma, post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation

142
Q

What Fizpatrick skin types are candidates for chemical skin resurfacing?

A

-Fitzpatrick 1 and 2
-Fitzpatrick 3-6 have higher risk for post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation

143
Q

What are the layers of the skin?

A

-Stratum corneum (Most superficial)
-Stratum granulosum
-Stratum spinosum
-Stratum basal
-Papillary dermis
-Upper reticular dermis
-Mid-reticular dermis
-Lower reticular dermis
-Fat

144
Q

How do chemical peels work?

A

-Causes keratolysis and keratocoagulation
-Pilosebaceous units provide progenitors of new epithelium

145
Q

What are examples of superficial, medium and deep chemical peels?

A

-Superficial: Less than 0.45 mm. TCA 10-30, Jessner, Glycolic acid 70%

-Medium depth: .45-.6 mm. TCA 35-50, Jessner and TCA 35, Multiple Jessner coats, Phenol 88%

-Deep: .6-.8: Bakers or Litton Phenol, TCA 50%

146
Q

What causes the frosting after a chemical peel?

A

-Precipitation of salts. Get more frost the deeper the peel

147
Q

What is the technique of a chemical peel?

A

-Mark mandibular border prior to laying patient supine
-Anesthetize with local blocks or sedation, handheld fan can help cool
-Prep skin to remove oil/dirt with acetone or alcohol gauze pad
-Apply peel of choice with cotton tip applicator
-Monitor for level of frost for desired penetration
-Have neutralizing agent and water (for dilution) for spills available
-Wash chemical off with water/neutralizing agent and cleanse skin
-Apply petroleum jelly to face

148
Q

What is the post-op care for a chemical peel?

A

-Facial rinse with tepid water QID x10 days and application of petroleum jelly
-Return to maintenance program with cleanser, sunscreen and topical steroid

149
Q

How is post-op hyperpigmentation treated s/p chemical peel?

A

-Hydroquinone 4% and tretinoin treatments
-Usually seen after 30 days

150
Q

How is post-op hypopigmentation treated s/p chemical peel?

A

-Can blend in with CO2 laser
-Topical 1% oxsoralen cream weekly

-Usually seen 6-12 months after treatment

151
Q

How is post-op infection treated s/p chemical peel?

A

-Herpes simplex treated with double the acyclovir prophylactic regimen (800 mg TID)

-Candida albicans: Examine with KOH to confirm. Treat with topical antifungals and discontinue petroleum jelly dressing

-Bacterial: Cultured and treat with parental or topical antibiotics

152
Q

How is post-op milia treated s/p chemical peel?

A

-Clogged hair follicles may form cyst-like structure
-Normally resolve with skin hygiene
-May treat with needle evacuation or topical tretinoin

153
Q

How is post-op scarring treated s/p chemical peel?

A

-Treated with injection of corticosteroids
-Can treat with laser
-Apply occlusive silicone strips

154
Q

How is persistent erythema treated s/p chemical peel?

A

-Erythema lasting over 6 months, most redness should resolve by month 3 after treatment

-Have patient stop all skin care
-Question patient about sun exposure and sunblock use
-Examine for potassium hydroxide test for subclinical fungal infection

-If all negative, treat with topical steroid cream and expect resolve in 12 weeks

155
Q

What are the skin pretreatments prior to laser resurfacing?

A

-Similar to chemical peel
-Skin cleansers
-Moisturizer
-Sun protection
-Topical retinoids

156
Q

What does LASER stand for?

A

Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

157
Q

What is a MAC (laser)?

A

-Micro-ablative colums
-Area under laser that is vaporized

158
Q

What is the energy (laser)?

A

Amount of energy delivered to each MAC per pulse

159
Q

What is the spot size?

A

-Diameter of each MAC

160
Q

What is the fluence (laser)?

A

ENergy per MAC divided by spot size (J/cm2)

161
Q

What are the specifications of a CO2 laser?

A

-Infrared energy at 10600 nm that is specific for water. Need fluence of 4-5 J/cm2

162
Q

What is post-op care from a laser resurfacing?

A

-Dilute vinegar soaks
-Antibacterial and antifungal
-Aquaphor or vaseline

163
Q

How does botulinum toxin work?

A

-Inhibits the release of neurotransmitter acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction causing temporary paralysis

164
Q

What is the only approved botulinum toxin approved for the face and where on the face is it approved?

A

-Botulinum toxin A (Botox)
-Approved for forehead lines, crows feet and glabellar lines)

-Not approved for eyelids, nasal, cervical and perioral areas under FDA

165
Q

How long do the paralytic effect last?

A

-3-6 months
-Recovery is based on new axonal sprouting and new SNAP production

166
Q

When are results usually noted after botox?

A

-48h
-Peak is 14 days

167
Q

What is the lethal dose of botox?

A

-2500-3000 units (40 U/kg)

168
Q

What are medication contraindications to botox?

A

-Curare-type medications, aminoglycosides, muscle relaxants or anticholinergics may potentiate botox effects
-Allergy to albumin may cause antigenicity and render botox ineffective

169
Q

What medical conditions are contraindications to botox?

A

-Myasthenia gravis
-ALS
-MS
-Eaton-Lambert syndrome

(Botox can exacerbate a pre-existing condition)

170
Q

How is botox reconstituted?

A

-Store refrigerated (stores up to 24 months)
-Once opened, use within 4 hours

-Reconstitute with sterile, preservative free saline
-1.25 mL saline per 50U vial= 4 U/0.1 mL
-2.5 mL saline per 100U vial= 4 U/0.1 mL

171
Q

Which muscle causes crow’s feet?

A

-Orbicularis oculi

172
Q

What muscle causes ‘11’ lines?

A

-Corrugator supercilli

173
Q

What muscle causes bunny lines (horizontal furrows above the nose)

A

-Procerus

174
Q

What muscle creates horizontal forehead furrows?

A

-Frontalis

175
Q

What muscle causes vertical lip lines?

A

Obicularis oris

176
Q

What muscle causes marionette lines?

A

Depressor labii inferioris, depressor anguli oris

177
Q

What layer is botox injected to?

A

-Directly to muscle
-Crow’s feet injected subdermally

178
Q

How many units are typically injected to the frontalis, glabella, and crows feet?

A

-Frontalis: 2-4 units per injection site
-Glabella (procerus and corrugator): 5-7 units per injection site
-Crow’s feet (lateral obicularis): 3-5 units per injection site

179
Q

What are your post-op instructions/expectations s/p botox?

A

-Don’t disturb area x4 hours to prevent unwanted spread
-Expect skin wheals to resolve within 20-30 minutes
-Ice area
-Remain upright x4 hours
-Exercise can be resumed next da
-Effects take 3-5 days to work with peak at 30 days

180
Q

How is post-op bleeding and hematoma treated s/p botox?

A

-Apply pressure, don’t rub area
-Hematoma usually self resolving

181
Q

How is chemodenervation of an unwanted muscle treated s/p botox?

A

-Levator palpebrae superioris (causing blepharoptosis): Can use alpha-adrenergic agonist drops (apraclonidine 0.5%), lasts about 3 weeks
-Chemodenervation of zygomaticus muscle can create lip asymmetry

182
Q

How would you treat inability to close eye s/p botox?

A

-Paralysis of orbicularis oculi.
-Tape eye shut and place eye lubricant until paralysis resolves

183
Q

How is post-op diplopia treated s/p botox?

A

-From undesired entry of botulinum around extraocular muscles
-Lead to binocular diplopia
-Usually transient
-Refer to ophthalmologist for possible prism lenses

184
Q

How is post-op xerophthalmia treated s/p botox?

A

-Botulinum affecting lacrimal gland, diminished tear production
-Supportive care with lubricating eyedrops
-Usually resolves in 3-6 months

185
Q

What should you do if there is a short duration of desired effect s/p botox?

A

-Some patients develop antibodies if given injections within 1 month time period
-Best to allow 3 months between injections and less than 400 unites
-May use botulinum toxin B as alternative

186
Q

What is the most common type of filler?

A

-Hyaluronic acid (linear polysaccharide of repeating disaccharide units of glucuronic acid and N-acetylglucosamine)

187
Q

What is the MOA of hyaluronic acid?

A

-Ability to bind 1000x its weight in water. Thus ballooning and increasing volume in atrophied areas

188
Q

How long does it take fillers to work and how long do they work for?

A

-Work immediately
-Can last on average 6-12 months (due to process of isovolumetric degradation, filler draws water as it degrades)

189
Q

Where are fillers FDA approved?

A

-Injection into mid-deep dermis (superficial) for correction of moderate to severe facial wrinkles and folds (nasolabial folds, marionette lines)
-Juvederm Voluma (approved for cheek injection)

190
Q

How are HA fillers reversed?

A

-Injection of hyaluronidase

191
Q

What are common areas/uses of dermal fillers?

A

-Nasolabial folds (parentheses lines between corner of nose and mouth)
-Marionette lines (Vertical lines that laterally circumscribe chin)
-Tear troughs (shallow area underneath eyes)
-Nasojugal fold (groove in skin extends downward and lateral from medial canthus
-Lips
-Chin
-Cheek (malar volume)
-Glabellar region (augment neurotoxin)
-Pre-jowl area

192
Q

What is the technique for filler treatment?

A

-Mark intended injection sites
-Local if needed
-Position patient in upright position
-Inject into subdermal plane in the predetermined marked areas
-Aspirate prior to injection to ensure avoidance of intravascular deposition
-Massage injected area manually
-Apply ice

193
Q

How is the tyndall effect treated s/p filler?

A

-Superficial injection of HA, treat with 15-50 Iu of hyaluronidase

194
Q

How is tissue necrosis due to vascular compromise treated s/p filler?

A

-Apply 2% nitroglycerin paste immediately, then q5m x 2 hr
-Prescribe ASA 325 mg sublingual immediately then 1 tab po daily
-Prednisone 24-40 mg for 3-5 days
-Reverse with hyaluronidase
-Warm compress
-Consider hyperbaric oxygen
-Cover wounds with topical antibiotics

195
Q

How are volume irregularities treated s/p filler?

A

-Treat with massage to redistribute filler
-Add additional filler if indicated
-Consider hyaluronidase

196
Q

How is blindness treated s/p filler?

A

-Highest risk in glabella region
-Immediate injection of hyaluronidase into the treated area
-Referral to opthalmologist

197
Q

How is herpes simplex infection treated s/p filler?

A

-Typically reactivation of infection, especially in lip area
-If h/o HSV infection, give prophylactic valacyclovir 500 mg BID starting 2 days prior to treatment

198
Q

How is a foreign body granuloma treated s/p filler?

A

-Chronic inflammatory reaction
-Treat with hyaluronidase or intralesional corticosteroids.

199
Q

What depth do you inject dermal fillers?

A

-Intradermal plane
-Insert needle in skin, when you can no longer see bevel you are at right plane

200
Q

What are the two techniques to injecting filler?

A

-Serial puncture: Multiple punctures placing a small amount each time
-Linear threading: Continuous deposition of filler through one subcutaneous entry point

201
Q

What comprises the internal and external nasal valve?

A

-Internal: Septum medially, caudal end of the upper lateral cartilage laterally and anterior end of the inferior turbinate inferolaterally

-External: Lower lateral cartilage, nasal septum and the nasal floor

202
Q

What is external nasal valve collapse and how is this normally fixed?

A

-Collapse of the ring of cartilage around the nostril

-Corrected with alar batten grafts

203
Q

What is the course of the temporal branch of the facial nerve?

A

-Superiorly and medially from 0.5 cm below the tragus to 1.5 cm above the lateral eyebrow in the temporoparietal fascia just deep to the SMAS