Corrections 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Systemic vascular resistance in septic shock?

A

Low

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2
Q

What are the main indications for placing a chest tube in suspected pleural infection? (3)

A

1) Patients with frankly purulent or turbid/cloudy pleural fluid on sampling

2) The presence of organisms identified by Gram stain and/or culture from a non-purulent pleural fluid sample

3) Pleural fluid pH <7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection

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3
Q

What is the treatment of choice for small bowel overgrowth syndrome?

A

Rifaximin

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4
Q

What are the most common medications assoicated with erythema nodosum?

A

1) penicillins
2) sulfonamides e.g. sulfalazine
3) COCP

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5
Q

What type of diabetes insipidus can CKD cause?

A

Nephrogenic

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6
Q

What is oral (pollen) allergy syndrome?

A

A hypersensitivity reaction to raw plant-based foods which usually causes rapid onset of mild symptoms such as itching.

It is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation.

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7
Q

In DIC, what blood products should be given 1st?

A

FFP and cryoprecipitate may be given whilst awaiting the results of the coagulation studies.

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8
Q

Mx of euvolemic and hypervolemic hyponatraemic patients who don’t have severe symptoms?

A

Fluid restriction

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9
Q

What are some causes of a false-negative Mantoux test?

A

1) Immunosuppression e.g. miliary TB, AIDS, steroids

2) Sarcoidosis

3) Lymphoma

4) Extremes of age

5) Fever

6) Hypoalbuminaemia, anaemia

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10
Q

Mx of APS in pregnancy?

A

1) low dose aspirin: commenced once the pregnancy is confirmed on urine testing

2) LMWH: once a fetal heart is seen on US

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11
Q

The mean +/- 2 standard deviations contains what % of the values?

A

95.4%

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12
Q

what is De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?

A

A common condition in which the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons is inflamed.

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13
Q

Features of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?

A

1) pain on the radial side of the wrist

2) tenderness over the radial styloid process

3) abduction of the thumb against resistance is painful

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14
Q

What test can be used in the dx of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?

A

Finkelstein’s test

The examiner pulls the thumb of the patient in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction. In a patient with tenosynovitis this action causes pain over the radial styloid process and along the length of extensor pollisis brevis and abductor pollicis longus.

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15
Q

What is iliotibial band syndrome?

A

A common cause of lateral knee pain, particularly in runners.

Features: tenderness 2-3cm above the lateral joint line

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16
Q

What is the most common type of renal stone?

A

Calcium oxalate

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17
Q

CT features in SAH?

A

Acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, fissures, and in severe cases the ventricular system.

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18
Q

Echo findings in Takotsubo cardiomyopathy?

A

Apical ballooning of the myocardium (resembling an octopus pot)

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19
Q

What is the ECG finding of deeply inverted or biphasic waves in V2-3 in a person with the previous history of angina is characteristic of?

A

Wellen’s syndrome.

This is highly specific for a critical stenosis of the LAD artery.

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20
Q

In the 1ary prevention of CVD, the use of statins aims for what % reduction in non-HDL cholesterol?

A

> 40%

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21
Q

What is the imaging of choice in suspected renal colic?

A

Non-contrast CT-KUB

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22
Q

Mx of inguinal vs umbilical hernias in paeds?

A

Inguinal: repair ASAP

Umbilical: manage conservatively (most resolve by age 4-5y)

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23
Q

What is cryptosporidium?

A

A protozoan parasite

Most common cause of diarrhoea in an HIV patient

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24
Q

Amitriptyline vs duloxetine in eGFR <30?

A

Amitriptyline > duloxetine

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25
Q

Location of narrowing in adult coarctation of the aorta?

A

Just distal to the origin of the L subclavian artery.

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26
Q

What is granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)?

A

Small and medium sized blood vessel vasculitis.

It is an ANCA-associated systemic vasculitis.

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27
Q

What triad of features is seen in GPA?

A

1) URT: sinusitis, epistaxis, nasal crusting, saddle nose deformity

2) LRT: SOB, cough, haemoptysis, pulmonary nodules

3) Glomerulonephritis: microscopic haematuria

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28
Q

What ocular manifestation can GPA cause?

A

Scleritis/episcleritis

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29
Q

What antibody is positive in >90% of patients with GPA?

A

cANCA (pANCA is positive in 25%)

30
Q

PTH level in sarcoidosis?

A

Suppressed (due to hypercalcaemia)

Hypercalcaemia is 2ary to increased vitamin D activation

31
Q

What is impetigo?

A

A superficial bacterial skin infection caused by Staph. aureus or Strep. pyogenes (GAS).

Can be a 1ary infection or a complication of an existing skin condition e.g. eczema, scabies, insect bites.

32
Q

Spread of impetigo?

A

Direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person.

33
Q

Features of impetigo?

A
  • ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth
  • very contagious
34
Q

Mx of limited, localised impetigo?

A

Hydrogen peroxide 1% cream –> for people who are not systemically unwell or at a high risk of complications.

35
Q

Mx of extensive/systemic imeptigo?

A

oral flucloxacillin (or erythromycin if penicillin allergic)

36
Q

School exclusion in impetigo?

A

until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment

37
Q

What are the 2 types of impetigo?

A

1) bullous
2) non-bullous (most common)

38
Q

When should you offer a referral for bariatric surgery assessment?

A

1) BMI ≥40

or

2) BMI ≥35 with comorbidies e.g. OA, diabetes, HTN (that would improve with bariatric surgery)

39
Q

What surgery is indicated in chronic distal aortic & bilateral common iliac occlusive disease?

A

Aorto-bifemoral bypass graft

40
Q

What are 3 options for restoration of blood flow to the affected limb in limb ischaemia?

A

Revascularisation processes:

1) thrombolysis
2) angioplasty
3) surgical bypass

41
Q

Folliculitis can be a symptom of what condition?

A

Advanced HIV

42
Q

What is the usual limit for termination of pregnancy?

43
Q

Define idealist health theory

A

Suggests that individual’s construction of health is different in different groups, so they might define health differently

44
Q

1st line mx of pelvic organ prolapse?

A

Conservative: weight loss 7 pelvic floor exercises

45
Q

Formula for number needed to treat?

A

NNT = 1/absolute risk reduction

46
Q

Formula for absolute risk reduction?

A

ARR = risk in control group - risk in treatment group

47
Q

Under what age are tetracyclines (e.g. doxycycline) contraindicated?

A

<12 y/o due to tooth discolouration

48
Q

Continuous vs discrete vs nominal vs categorical variables?

A

Continuous: Can take any value within a range of values (e.g. 18.5 to 50 in BMI)

Discrete: can only take certain values e.g. number of children (1, 2, 3)

Categorical: can be grouped into categories e.g. blood type, race

Nominal: have no intrinsic order or ranking e.g. hair colour, occupation

49
Q

Mx of a submassive PE in patients at risk of haemorrhage (e.g. peptic ulcer disease)?

A

IV heparin –> can be stopped and reversed in the event of recurrent bleeding.

50
Q

When there is a unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, what is it vital to rule out?

A

Presence of a vestibular schwannoma or other neoplasma of VIII nerve or brainstem.

Get an MRI scan of the interal acoustic meatus.

51
Q

What is the method for confirming norovirus?

52
Q

Mx of hypoglycaemia:

1) In patients who are conscious, orientated & able to swallow (mild)

2) In patients who are conscious and able to swallow but are confused, disorientated or aggressive (moderate)

3) In patients who are unconscious/fitting or very aggressive or NBM (severe)

A

1) Glucose tablets

2) Glucogel

3) IV glucose 75ml 20%

53
Q

What investigation is regularly required in Guillain-Barre?

A

FVC to monitor respiratory function

54
Q

Mx of TIA in patients already taking low dose aspirin?

A

Advise them to take as normal - do NOT give 300mg aspirin

55
Q

Why are steroids given in a thyroid storm?

A

Steroids reduce the conversion of T4 to T3

56
Q

1st line imaging in PAD?

57
Q

What investigation should be performed prior to any intervention in PAD?

A

magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)

58
Q

What medication can reduce renal complications in systemic sclerosis?

A

ACEi (preferably captopril)

59
Q

Features of Strep. pneumoniae pneumonia?

A
  • rapid onset
  • high fever
  • pleuritic chest pain
  • herpes labialis (cold sores)
60
Q

What types of pneumonia can cause cavitating lesions?

A
  1. Klebsiella
  2. Staph. aureus
61
Q

What may be a useful treatment for keloid scarring?

A

Intra-lesional steroids

62
Q

1st line mx of acute pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs & colchicine

63
Q

Diagnosis of shingles?

64
Q

What should be added in the mx of diabetes if CVD, high-risk of CVD or chronic heart failure?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors

65
Q

What may posterior shoulder dislocations be associated with?

A
  • electricution
  • seizures
66
Q

What structure is divided in surgical management of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Flexor retinaculum

67
Q

Mx of myasthenia crisis?

A

IVIG & plasmapheresis

68
Q

In valve replacement, at what age are you typically given a bioprosthetic vs mechanical valve?

A

> 65 y/o for aortic and >70 y/o for mitral valves –> bioprosthetic

Younger patients typically receive a mechanical valve.

69
Q

Do port wine stains (birthmarks) typically resolve?

A

No

Often darken and become raised over tim

70
Q

New asthma guidelines (2024):

A
  1. Low dose ICS/formoterol combination inhaler used as needed
  2. Regular low dose ICS/formoterol combination inhlaer (MART)
  3. Regular moderate-dose MART
  4. Check FeNO and eosinophil levels:
    a) if either raised –> refer to asthma specialist
    b) if neither raised –> consider LTRA or LAMA in addition to moderate dose MART
  5. Refer to asthma specialist
71
Q

When should treatment be offered in subclinical hypothyroidism?

A

If TSH level is 5.5-10mU/L –> offer patients <65 y/o a 6 month trial of levothyroxine if TSH remains at that level on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart and they have hypothyroidism symptoms.