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Yr 5 - Passmed Corrections > Corrections 1 > Flashcards

Corrections 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 top organisms causing post-splenectomy sepsis?

A

1) H. influenzae

2) Strep. pneumoniae

3) Meningococci

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2
Q

What is actinic keratoses considered a precursor to?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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3
Q

Cause of actinic keratoses?

A

Chronic UV exposure

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4
Q

Features of actinic keratoses?

A

Rough, scaly patches or papules on sun-exposed skin, predominantly in fair-skinned, elderly individuals.

Google it!

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5
Q

Mx of actinic keratoses?

A

1) prevention of further risk e.g. sun avoidance

2) fluorouracil cream

3) topical diclofenac

4) topical imiquimod

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6
Q

What is Bowen’s disease considered a precursor to?

A

SCC

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7
Q

Mx of Bowen’s disease?

A

Topical 5-fluorouracil

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8
Q

Bowen’s disease vs actinic keratoses?

A

Bowen’s disease tends to be isolated and well demarcated.

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9
Q

How do neuromuscular disorders present on pulmonary function tests?

A

Restrictive pattern

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10
Q

How does bronchiectasis present on pulmonary function tests?

A

Obstructive pattern

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11
Q

What score is used to identify patients at risk of pressure sores?

A

Waterlow score

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12
Q

What are flame and blot haemorrhages on fundoscopy characteristic of?

A

Central retinal vein occlusion

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13
Q

When using an inhaler, how long should you wait for before repeating the second dose?

A

30 seconds

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14
Q

MSM should be offered which vaccination?

A

Hep A

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15
Q

Mx of anterior uveitis?

A

Steroid & cycloplegic eye drops

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16
Q

Role of steroid eye drops in anterior uveitis?

A

Reduce inflammation

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17
Q

Role of cycloplegic eye drops in anterior uveitis?

A

Dilate the pupil which helps with pain relief and photophobia.

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18
Q

example of cycloplegic eye drops?

A

1) atropine
2) cyclopentolate

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19
Q

In anal fissures, what can be considered for cases that don’t respond to conservative management?

A

Sphincterotomy

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20
Q

What does a loop ileostomy involve?

A

Taking a loop of the ileum, performing a horizontal incision and bring it up to the skin.

21
Q

Indication for a loop ileostomy?

A

It is indicated to defunction the colon, for example, after rectal cancer surgery.

Eventually, it can be reversed.

22
Q

What is the key diagnostic test in Guillain Barre?

A

LP –> elevated protein with normal WCC

23
Q

Mx of human bites that have broken the skin and drawn blood?

A

Treat as animal bites –> co-amoxiclav

24
Q

Mx of human bites that have broken the skin and NOT drawn blood but are in a high risk area (e.g. hands, feet, face, genitals, skin overlying cartilaginous structures or an area of poor circulation)?

A

Treat as animal bites –> co-amoxiclav

25
Q

Mx of human bites that have broken the skin and NOT drawn blood but patient is immunocompromised?

A

Treat as animal bites –> co-amoxiclav

26
Q

In the emergency setting where the bowel has perforated, the risk of colon-colon anastomosis is much greater.

Why is this?

What should be used instead?

A

As it may lead to an anastomotic leak, resulting in the release of the bowel contents into the intraabdominal space.

End colostomy should be used instead.

27
Q

Location of Wernicke’s area?

A

Temporal lobe

28
Q

Location of Broca’s area?

A

Frontal lobe

29
Q

Features of Broca’s dysphasia?

A
  • speech non-fluent
  • comprehension normal
  • repetition impaired
30
Q

1st line mx of acute angle-closure glaucoma?

A

Combination eye drops:
- direct parasympathomimetic eyedrops e.g. pilocarpine
- beta blocker eye drops

31
Q

Role of pilocarpine eye drops in AACG?

A

Induce pupillary constriction –> widens the iridocorneal angle and allows for humour to drain (reduce IOP)

32
Q

Role of beta blocker eye drops in AACG?

A

Reduce aqueous humour production (reduce IOP)

33
Q

What class of medication should be avoided in myasthenia gravis?

A

Beta blockers –> cause a worsening of myasthenia gravis and result in reduced FVC

34
Q

When should patients with CKD be commenced on ramipril?

A

ACR >30 mg/mmol

35
Q

When can patients with COPD be considered for LTOT?

A

pO2 <7.3

or 7.3 - 8 kPa plus:
- 2ary polycythaemia
- peripheral oedema
- pulmonary HTN

36
Q

What is the most common cause of peritonitis secondary to peritoneal dialysis?

A

Coagulase negative Staphyloccocus e.g. Staph. epidermis

37
Q

Following ACS, what should all patients be offered?

A

1) Dual antiplatelet therapy
2) ACEi
3) Beta blocker
4) Statin

38
Q

Alzheimer’s disease causes widespread cerebral atrophy mainly involving which areas of the brain?

A

Cortex & hippocampus

39
Q

How to differentiate between acute and chronic Hep B infection on serology?

A

Acute & chronic –> positive HBsAg

Acute only –> positive anti-HBc IgM

40
Q

What marker would be positive on Hep B serology in previous vaccination?

A

anti-HBs

41
Q

1st line mx of rosacea for patients with severe papules and/or pustules (e.g. evidence of scarring)?

A

Topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline

42
Q

1st line mx of mild-mod rosacea?

A

Topical ivermectin only

43
Q

Prior to discharge, following an acute asthma attack, what should a patient’s PEFR be?

A

> 75% of best/predicted

44
Q

Mx of patients with obstructive urinary calculi and signs of infection?

A

Urgent renal decompression + IV abx (high risk of sepsis)

45
Q

What imaging is used to diagnose dementia?

A

MRI head

46
Q

1st line investigation if vascular dementia is suspected?

A

MRI head

47
Q

How long may treatment of BPH with finasteride take before results are seen?

A

6 months

48
Q
A

Yr 5 - Passmed Corrections (1 decks)

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