Corrections 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 top organisms causing post-splenectomy sepsis?

A

1) H. influenzae

2) Strep. pneumoniae

3) Meningococci

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2
Q

What is actinic keratoses considered a precursor to?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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3
Q

Cause of actinic keratoses?

A

Chronic UV exposure

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4
Q

Features of actinic keratoses?

A

Rough, scaly patches or papules on sun-exposed skin, predominantly in fair-skinned, elderly individuals.

Google it!

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5
Q

Mx of actinic keratoses?

A

1) prevention of further risk e.g. sun avoidance

2) fluorouracil cream

3) topical diclofenac

4) topical imiquimod

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6
Q

What is Bowen’s disease considered a precursor to?

A

SCC

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7
Q

Mx of Bowen’s disease?

A

Topical 5-fluorouracil

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8
Q

Bowen’s disease vs actinic keratoses?

A

Bowen’s disease tends to be isolated and well demarcated.

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9
Q

How do neuromuscular disorders present on pulmonary function tests?

A

Restrictive pattern

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10
Q

How does bronchiectasis present on pulmonary function tests?

A

Obstructive pattern

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11
Q

What score is used to identify patients at risk of pressure sores?

A

Waterlow score

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12
Q

What are flame and blot haemorrhages on fundoscopy characteristic of?

A

Central retinal vein occlusion

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13
Q

When using an inhaler, how long should you wait for before repeating the second dose?

A

30 seconds

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14
Q

MSM should be offered which vaccination?

A

Hep A

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15
Q

Mx of anterior uveitis?

A

Steroid & cycloplegic eye drops

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16
Q

Role of steroid eye drops in anterior uveitis?

A

Reduce inflammation

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17
Q

Role of cycloplegic eye drops in anterior uveitis?

A

Dilate the pupil which helps with pain relief and photophobia.

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18
Q

example of cycloplegic eye drops?

A

1) atropine
2) cyclopentolate

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19
Q

In anal fissures, what can be considered for cases that don’t respond to conservative management?

A

Sphincterotomy

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20
Q

What does a loop ileostomy involve?

A

Taking a loop of the ileum, performing a horizontal incision and bring it up to the skin.

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21
Q

Indication for a loop ileostomy?

A

It is indicated to defunction the colon, for example, after rectal cancer surgery.

Eventually, it can be reversed.

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22
Q

What is the key diagnostic test in Guillain Barre?

A

LP –> elevated protein with normal WCC

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23
Q

Mx of human bites that have broken the skin and drawn blood?

A

Treat as animal bites –> co-amoxiclav

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24
Q

Mx of human bites that have broken the skin and NOT drawn blood but are in a high risk area (e.g. hands, feet, face, genitals, skin overlying cartilaginous structures or an area of poor circulation)?

A

Treat as animal bites –> co-amoxiclav

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25
Q

Mx of human bites that have broken the skin and NOT drawn blood but patient is immunocompromised?

A

Treat as animal bites –> co-amoxiclav

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26
Q

In the emergency setting where the bowel has perforated, the risk of colon-colon anastomosis is much greater.

Why is this?

What should be used instead?

A

As it may lead to an anastomotic leak, resulting in the release of the bowel contents into the intraabdominal space.

End colostomy should be used instead.

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27
Q

Location of Wernicke’s area?

A

Temporal lobe

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28
Q

Location of Broca’s area?

A

Frontal lobe

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29
Q

Features of Broca’s dysphasia?

A
  • speech non-fluent
  • comprehension normal
  • repetition impaired
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30
Q

1st line mx of acute angle-closure glaucoma?

A

Combination eye drops:
- direct parasympathomimetic eyedrops e.g. pilocarpine
- beta blocker eye drops

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31
Q

Role of pilocarpine eye drops in AACG?

A

Induce pupillary constriction –> widens the iridocorneal angle and allows for humour to drain (reduce IOP)

32
Q

Role of beta blocker eye drops in AACG?

A

Reduce aqueous humour production (reduce IOP)

33
Q

What class of medication should be avoided in myasthenia gravis?

A

Beta blockers –> cause a worsening of myasthenia gravis and result in reduced FVC

34
Q

When should patients with CKD be commenced on ramipril?

A

ACR >30 mg/mmol

35
Q

When can patients with COPD be considered for LTOT?

A

pO2 <7.3

or 7.3 - 8 kPa plus:
- 2ary polycythaemia
- peripheral oedema
- pulmonary HTN

36
Q

What is the most common cause of peritonitis secondary to peritoneal dialysis?

A

Coagulase negative Staphyloccocus e.g. Staph. epidermis

37
Q

Following ACS, what should all patients be offered?

A

1) Dual antiplatelet therapy
2) ACEi
3) Beta blocker
4) Statin

38
Q

Alzheimer’s disease causes widespread cerebral atrophy mainly involving which areas of the brain?

A

Cortex & hippocampus

39
Q

How to differentiate between acute and chronic Hep B infection on serology?

A

Acute & chronic –> positive HBsAg

Acute only –> positive anti-HBc IgM

40
Q

What marker would be positive on Hep B serology in previous vaccination?

41
Q

1st line mx of rosacea for patients with severe papules and/or pustules (e.g. evidence of scarring)?

A

Topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline

42
Q

1st line mx of mild-mod rosacea?

A

Topical ivermectin only

43
Q

Prior to discharge, following an acute asthma attack, what should a patient’s PEFR be?

A

> 75% of best/predicted

44
Q

Mx of patients with obstructive urinary calculi and signs of infection?

A

Urgent renal decompression + IV abx (high risk of sepsis)

45
Q

What imaging is used to diagnose dementia?

46
Q

1st line investigation if vascular dementia is suspected?

47
Q

How long may treatment of BPH with finasteride take before results are seen?

48
Q

1st line medication for intractable hiccups in palliative care?

A

Chlorpromazine

49
Q

What movement in lateral epicondylitis makes the pain worse?

A

Wrist extension whilst elbow extended

50
Q

What movement is painful in supraspinatus tendonitis?

A

1) Painful arc of abduction between 60 and 120 degrees

2) Tenderness over anterior acromion

51
Q

When is the peak incidence of delirium tremens following alcohol withdrawal?

52
Q

When should you consider a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for laryngeal cancer?

A

People aged 45 and over with:

a) persistent unexplained hoarseness or

b) an unexplained lump in the neck

53
Q

When should you consider a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for oral cancer?

A

In people with either:

a) unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than 3 weeks or

b) a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck.

54
Q

Mx of a perforated tympanic membrane caused by barotrauma?

A

Reassurance - will likely resolve after 6-8 weeks.

55
Q

Mx of an acute flare of RA?

A

Oral or IM steroids (prednisolone oral or methylprednisolone IM)

56
Q

What should be co-prescribed when starting allopurinol?

A

NSAID or colchicine cover (to prevent an acute flare up of gout)

57
Q

When is cervical screening in pregnancy delayed until?

A

3m post partum

58
Q

What do all proximal scaphoid pole fractures require?

A

Surgical fixation

59
Q

Mx of acute otitis media with perforation?

A

Oral abx (5-7 day course of amoxicillin)

60
Q

What should be used 1st line for acute stress disorders?

A

Trauma focused CBT

61
Q

What is the preferred method of induction of labour if the Bishop score is ≤ 6?

A

Vaginal prostagladins or oral misoprostol

62
Q

Mx of CML?

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors e.g. imatinib

63
Q

Mx of transverse lie before vs after 36 weeks gestation?

A

<36w gestation: no mx required (most foetuses will spontaneously move into longitudinal lie during pregnancy)

> 36w gestation: appt to discuss e.g. ECV, elective c-section

64
Q

What are some contraindications to ECV?

A

1) maternal rupture in the last 7 days

2) multiple pregnancy (except for the 2nd twin)

3) major uterine abnormality

65
Q

Success rate of ECV?

66
Q

How long should patients with schizophrenia not drive for?

A

Must notify the DVLA, until stable and well for 3 months and following a suitable psychiatristy report

67
Q

What is the SSRI of choice in children and adolescents?

A

Fluoxetine

68
Q

What 2 tests can be used to assess ACL injuries?

A

1) Lachman’s test (superior)

2) Anterior draw test

69
Q

What is an exchange transfusion?

A

This is the process of removing the patient’s blood and replacing it with non-sickle donor red cells, in order to support oxygenation and reduce tissue destruction due to the sickle cell crisis.

70
Q

Mx of SCFE?

A

Internal fixation

71
Q

S1 lesion causes weakness in what movement?

A

Plantarflexion of the foot

72
Q

What reflex is reduced in an S1 lesion?

A

reduced ankle reflex

73
Q

What is a positive sciatic nerve stretch test?

A

If the pain is reproduced by elevation of a straight leg and incremented by dorsiflexion at the point of pain.

74
Q

Mx of Pxseudomonas aeruginosa in CF?

A

Oral ciprofloxacin + inhaled abx

75
Q

What is the preferred treatment for chronic symptoms in vestibular neuronitis?

A

Vestibular rehabilitation exercises