Corporations Flashcards

1
Q

A C Corp is taxed _____, an S Corp is taxed _____

A

Double taxation - both on profits and distributions

Pass through tax - only taxed at owner level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

S Corp Requirements

A

-No more than 100 shareholders
-Shareholders must be humans
-Only one class of stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

De Jure v. De Facto Corp

A

De jure - properly formed under law

De facto - corporation that failed requirements, but may be treated as a corp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Filing required for a corporation is a ______, info required is:

A

Articles of Incorporation - filed with the state, begins the existence of the corp.

-Name of Corp
-Registered agent/office
-Corporations stock info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The organizational meeting happens ____ and involves _____

A

post filing of Arts of Incorp (Run by directors if named in AOI or by incorporators)

-Adopt bylaws
-Appoint officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Internal affairs doctrine states that

A

the internal affairs of a corp are governed by the law of the state of incorp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Benefit corps are

A

formed for profit AND to pursue a broader social policy cause

They can pursue without violating Fid Duties so long as they file as a B Corp and provide annual benefit report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A de facto corp may exist if it meets the following requirements:

A

-Relevant incorporation statute (always met)
-Good faith, colorable attempt to comply
-Act as a corporation
-No knowledge of failure to properly incorporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Effect of de facto corp status

A

Treated as a corp for all purposes except in an action by the state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

To be a de facto corporation or to qualify for corporation by estoppel, you cannot

A

Know that the incorporation was invalid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Corporation by estoppel applies in ____

A

Contract cases to bar avoidance of liability based on improper formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Promoter liability states that

A

A promoter entering a K on behalf of an unformed corporation does NOT bind the corporation unless it adopts the K

The Promoter is personally liable, even after the corporation forms and adopts the K

Only loses liability if a novation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Any out of state corporation must register if they

A

conduct regular intrastate business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A subscription is

A

An offer to buy stock from a corporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Subscription revocability is based on

A

-Pre-incorporation, it is irrevocable for 6 months

-Post-incorporation - revocable until accepted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Consideration necessary for issuance of stock is

A

Any tangible or intangible property or benefit to the corporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Par stock is _____. Watered stock is ____

A

Par = minim issuance price

Watered = issuance below par

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

For a shareholder to have preemptive rights, they must be _____ and are triggered only in _____

A

Express in Articles of Incorp

Issuance of stock for money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Directors are appointed by

A

The articles or incorporators initially, then the shareholders elect them annually (unless otherwise specified)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Directors can be removed by

A

Shareholders with or without cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vacancies of directors are filled by

A

If resigned - Board or shareholders

If removed - Shareholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Board action must act

A

As a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The board can act in two ways:

A

Unanimous agreement in writing (email/separate docs are suff)

At a meeting w/ quorum and voting reqs met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For special board meetings, notice requirements are

For regular board meetings advance notice is

A

Two days notice is Required and failure renders any acts voidable or void, if the absent directors do not waived

Not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
For a meeting of the board, quorum requires
A majority of all directors, unless otherwise stated (can't be less than 1/3 of board)
26
A board meeting can approve action by a vote of
a majority of those present
27
If quorum is lost
Then the board cannot take any further action
28
Board of directors responsibilities include
Sets policy, supervises officers, declares distributions, determines when stock will be issued, recommends fundamental corporation changes to shareholders Can create committees, but can't delegate declaring distribution, filling board vacancy, or recommending fundamental change
29
The fiduciary duties owed are
Duty of loyalty and Duty of Care They are owed to the corporation.
30
For the duty of care, the burden is on
The person challenging the director's action
31
Two common scenarios for breach of the duty of care
Nonfeasance - does nothing (requires showing that the failure to act caused harm) Misfeasance - hurts the business (harm met)
32
The business judgment rule applies to _____ and its effect is to provide ____
Duty of care claims A presumption that any decision is not a breach if it is made (1) in good faith, (2) with reasonable care (3) and the reasonable belief that it is in the best interests of the corporation.
33
Directors charged with breach of the duty of care may claim the defense of
good faith reliance on information provided by (1) corporate officers or employees (2) legal counsel, accountants (3) a committee
34
The standard that must be met to prevent breach of fiduciary duties is:
All acts must be reasonably believed to be in the best interest of the corporation.
35
The burden for a breach of duty of loyalty claim is on
The defendant
36
Common scenarios of breach of duty of loyalty
Self-dealing Competing ventures Corporate opportunity
37
Self dealing claims may be cleansed by
With disclosure of all material facts: -a majority of disinterested directors approve -a majority of disinterested shareholders approve -OR Judged by circumstances when self-dealing occurred, it was fair to the corporation
38
Corporate opportunity breach occurs when
A director takes an opportunity without giving first right of refusal to the corporation Applies to any opportunity in the line of business of the corporation and lack of financial ability is not a defense.
39
A corporation can make loans to directors if
reasonably expected to benefit the corporation.
40
A director is presumed to concur with board action unless dissent/abstention noted:
-in the minutes -delivered at the meeting -filed immediately after the meeting (Doesn't apply if absent)
41
Officers are ____ of the corporation
Agents Whether the officer can bind the corporation is determined by whether she has agency authority to do so
42
Officers in a corporation can be selected and removed by
the board with or without cause
43
A suit against an officer or director may require indemnity based on:
-No indemnification allowed - for someone who was found liable or received an improper benefit -Mandatory indem - for someone who successfully defended such a claim -Permissive indem - allowed where unsuccessful defense if the person (1) acted in good faith and (2) believed that her conduct was in the best interests of the corporation
44
Close corporations features include
-Few shareholders -Not publicly traded -Only version of a Corp where shareholders can be the managers (shareholder management agreement or AoI)
45
Liability for breaches can be eliminated only for
Breach of the duty of care Never for breach of the duty of loyalty
46
In a close corp, fiduciary duties are owed to
every other shareholder
47
Suits for oppression are allowed in closely held corps because
there is no public market for the stock
48
Shareholders can only be held liable for corporate debts through
Piercing the corporate veil
49
Piercing the corporate veil requires
-Shareholders have abused the privilege of incorporation -Fairness requires holding them liable
50
Examples warranting Piercing the Corporate Veil
-Alter Ego - Shareholder uses corp funds as their own (only offending shareholders are liable) -Under Capitalization - corp is under cap'd at time of formation (debts/liabilities outweigh capital) -Fraud - corp formed to avoid obligations
51
Derivative suits are brought by a _____ to enforce ____
Shareholder Rights of the corporation
52
The key question in determining if a suit is derivative is:
Could this suit have been brought by the corporation
53
The recovery of a derivative suit goes to
the corp, costs covered to shareholder
54
Requirements for bringing a derivative suit
-Stock ownership at time of wrong OR ownership by operation of law (inheritance/divorce decree) -Shareholder adequately represents -Shareholder made written demand first UNLESS futile
55
The corporation's motion to dismiss in a derivative suit will be granted if
An independent investigation concludes the suit is not in the Corp's best interest
56
The record holder at the record date is
The person who was registered as owning the stock at the record date, set in advance of a meeting Note: -Corp's reacquisition of stock does not allow it to be voted (only outstanding shares can vote) -Death of a shareholder after record date doesn't bar estate from voting on their behalf
57
Proxy voting is allowed if ____ and the requirements are ____
The shareholder was the record holder on the date -Created in signed writing -to the secretary of the corp -Authorizing voting of the shares
58
The revocation rules on proxy votes are
Generally revocable unless expressly irrevocable AND -coupled with an interest OR -Given as a security Also limited to 11 months or less
59
A voting trust requires:
-Written trust agreement -Copy of the agreement to corp -Legal title transferred to trustee -OG shareholders retain all other rights and keep trust certificates
60
voting pools require
A signed writing Enforceable in many, not all states
61
Shareholder action takes place through
-Meeting w/ notice -Unanimous written consent (email suff)
62
Shareholders get to vote on
-Election/removal of directors -Fundamental corp changes -Anything else requested by the board
63
Quorum for a shareholder vote requires
A majority of outstanding shares (regardless of shareholders) Unless AOI or Bylaws require more
64
If people leave, quorum for a shareholder meeting will
not be lost
65
For a shareholder special meeting can be called by
-Board -President -Holders of 10% of the outstanding shares -Anyone else authorized in Bylaws or AOI
66
For the different shareholder actions to pass there must be ____ vote on which actions
Election of director - plurality Removal of director - -(Traditional view) Majority of outstanding shares -(Modern view) majority of shares actually voting
67
Cumulative voting is allowed ____ and features ____. To determine voting share _____
For electing directors One at large election Multiply number of directors to be elected by the number of shares to be voted.
68
Shareholder demands for information are required for
Non-controversial things (shareholder meeting notes, info) - 5 days in advance Controversial things (board mtg mins, corp records) - 5 days in advance w/ Proper purpose stated
69
A restriction on alienation of shares are valid if
reasonable Only first right of refusal to corp is reasonable
70
The only people with the right to determine whether a distribution should be made are
The board of directors Shareholder action would have to show extreme abuse of discretion in direct suit
71
Preferred stock is _____ and common stock ______
Paid out first with any amount rights attached Splits whatever remains
72
For an improper distribution, ____ is liable
The directors are J&S liable (can use good faith reliance on info from others) Shareholders are liable only if they knew it was improper when received
73
Fundamental changes to the corp include _____ and require _____
Merger, Amending AOI, Dissolving, Selling substantially all assets -BoD action -Written notice to shareholders -Vote from shareholders (traditional/modern view) -Filing w/ Sec of State
74
In a close corp, dissenting shareholders may have an action for ____ allowing them to _____
Dissenting shareholder right of appraisal Force corp to buy shares at FMV in the event of a fundamental corporate change (other than amending articles)
75
Exerting the dissenting shareholder's right of appraisal requires
All the following -Written notice of objection -Abstention/objection at vote -Post vote written demand -Depositing shares with corp (Only applies in close corp)
76
Amending the articles requires
-Maj vote of outstanding shares (traditional view) shares actually voting (modern view) -BOD Action -Notice
77
Merger/consolidation requires
-Maj vote of outstanding shares (traditional view) shares actually voting (modern view) -BOD Action of both corps -Notice -Filing with SoS Surviving corp has successor liability
78
Transfer of all/substantially all assets reqs
-BoD action from both -Notice to SH -Vote of SH (trad/modern) This is a fundamental action only for the selling corp
79
Conversion into another organization requires
-BoD action -Notice to SH -Vote of SH (trad/modern) -Delivery to SoS
80
For a corporation to dissolve there must be
-BoD action -Notice to SH -Vote of SH (trad/modern) -Notice to SoS
81
When the articles and bylaws conflict
The articles prevail
82
A director only has actual authority if there is either
1. A meeting with quorum and approval by a majority of the directors OR 2. Written unanimous consent of the directors