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AJT CORE > CORE - Reproductive > Flashcards

CORE - Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

Linea terminalis

A

separates the true and false pelvis

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2
Q

Varicocele measurement

A

> 2 mm

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3
Q

Most common mets to testis

A

RCC, prostate

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4
Q

Upper limit of normal epididymis

A

10 mm

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5
Q

Most common extra-testicular mass (adult)

A

spermatic cord lipoma

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6
Q

Most common extra-testicular mass (child)

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

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7
Q

Most common epididymal neoplasm

A

adenomatoid tumor of the tunica albuginea (benign)

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8
Q

Tunical cyst (or tunica albuginea cyst)

A

small, anechoic; located eccentrically along the capsule of the testis; often p/w palpable nodule

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9
Q

Bilateral testicular masses DDx

A

lymphoma, mets, sarcoid, adrenal rests

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10
Q

T2 hypointense lesion in prostate DDx

A

prostate cancer, hemorrhage, prostatitis

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11
Q

Chorioadenoma destruens

A

complete mole that invades the myometrium

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12
Q

Fetal cystic pelvic mass with a “daughter cyst”

A

pathognomonic for an ovarian cyst

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13
Q

Prosencephalon

A

forebrain

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14
Q

Rhombencephalon

A

hindbrain

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15
Q

Progression of incompetent cervix shape

A

T => Y => V => U

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16
Q

Pediatric ovarian neoplasms

A

GCTs are most common regardless of age (also most common amongst malignant ovarian tumors)

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17
Q

Serous cystadenoma (ovary) - unilocular or multilocular?

A

unilocular, often bilateral

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18
Q

Mucinous cystadenoma (ovary) - unilocular or multilocular?

A

multilocular, unilateral; assoc. with smoking

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19
Q

Fetal ventriculomegaly

A

> 10 mm across the atria of the ventricles, or >3 mm of separation between choroid plexus and medial wall of the lateral ventricle

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20
Q

Uterus-cervix ratio (by age)

A

0.5 at birth (cervix 2x as large), 1.0 at puberty, 2.0 in adults

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21
Q

Turner syndrome (GU findings)

A

streak ovaries, 0.5 uterus-to-cervix ratio, horseshoe kidney

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22
Q

Mullerian ducts

A

forms uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper 2/3 of vagina

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23
Q

Urogenital sinus

A

forms lower 1/3 of vagina and prostate

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24
Q

Wolffian ducts

A

forms seminal vesicles, epididymis, and vas deferens

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25
Q

Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome

A

Mullerian agenesis

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26
Q

Mullerian agenesis (3 features)

A

rudimentary uterus, vaginal atresia, normal ovaries; assoc. with renal agenesis or ectopia

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27
Q

Unicollis vs. bicollis bicornuate uterus

A

refers to number of cervices (1 or 2)

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28
Q

Stuff that can be shown on HSG

A

adenomyosis, Asherman syndrome, salpingitis isthmica nodosa, uterine anomalies, tubal sclerosing devices

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29
Q

Contraindications to HSG

A

active infection (PID), contrast allergy, active bleeding, pregnancy

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30
Q

Ideal timing of HSG (menstrual cycle)

A

days 7-10

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31
Q

Asherman syndrome

A

a.k.a. intrauterine adhesions; due to prior infection, D&C, or pregnancy

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32
Q

Venetian blind sign

A

uterine fibroid

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33
Q

MRI characteristic of fibroids associated with a better IR treatment prognosis

A

increased T2 signal, enhancing

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34
Q

Fibroid degeneration types

A

hyaline (most common), red/carneous (pregnancy), myxoid, cystic

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35
Q

Fibroid with peripheral rim of high T1 signal

A

red/carneous type of degeneration; during pregnancy

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36
Q

Fibroid with high T2 signal

A

myxoid type of degeneration

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37
Q

Fibroid with low T2 signal

A

hyaline type of degeneration (most common)

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38
Q

Rapidly enlarging fibroid

A

suspicious for malignant transformation (leiomyosarcoma); may also see areas of necrosis

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39
Q

Thickened junctional zone with scattered T2 bright foci

A

adenomyosis (foci represent cystic change)

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40
Q

Endometrial thickening + ovarian mass

A

granulosa-theca cell tumor, or endometroid carcinoma (ovary) + endometrial cancer

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41
Q

Endometrial thickness necessitating biopsy

A

> 5 mm + PMB, or >8 mm (no PMB)

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42
Q

Syndrome associated with increased risk of endometrial cancer

A

HNPCC (30-50x)

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43
Q

Tamoxifen changes (uterus)

A

subendometrial cysts, endometrial polyps; increased risk of endometrial cancer

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44
Q

Endometrial fluid in a post-menopausal patient

A

cervical stenosis or an obstructing mass

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45
Q

Work-up for post-menopausal uterine bleeding

A

US => if endometrium is too thick => biopsy => if concern for higher stage disease => MRI for extent

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46
Q

Enhancement of endometrial cancer

A

homogeneous, but LESS than the adjacent myometrium; mildly T2 hyperintense, restricts on DWI

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47
Q

Critical stage for endometrial cancer

A

stage 2 (cervical stromal invasion); change to pre-operative radiation and from TAH => radical hysterectomy

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48
Q

Most important MR sequence for staging of endometrial cancer

A

post-gad

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49
Q

Critical stage for cervical cancer

A

stage 2B (parametrial invasion = disruption of T2 hypo ring); change from surgical resection to chemoradiation

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50
Q

Phase of menstrual cycle assoc. with trilaminar appearance of the endometrium

A

late proliferative (days 10-14)

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51
Q

Most common cancer of vagina

A

squamous cell carcinoma (related to HPV)

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52
Q

Met to anterior wall of upper 1/3 of the vagina

A

from upper genitourinary tract (90%)

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53
Q

Met to posterior wall of lower 1/3 of the vagina

A

from GI tract (90%)

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54
Q

Cyst in anterior-lateral wall of upper vagina

A

Gartner duct cyst; due to incomplete regression of Wolffian ducts

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55
Q

Cyst below pubic symphysis near anus (females)

A

Bartholin cyst (‘B’ for Butthole and Below pubic symphysis)

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56
Q

Cyst below pubic symphysis between urethra and vagina canal

A

Skene gland cyst; may cause recurrent UTI or urethral obstruction

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57
Q

Segments of fallopian tube

A

from medial to lateral: intersitium&raquo_space; isthmus&raquo_space; ampulla&raquo_space; infundibulum

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58
Q

Ovaries with multiple large cysts

A

theca-lutein cysts due to increased hCG; multiple, bilateral

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59
Q

Causes of theca-lutein cysts

A

multiple gestations, molar pregnancy, clomiphene or gonadotropins

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60
Q

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

due to fertility treatment; abdominal pain, ovary >5 cm, ascites or hydrothorax; may see theca-lutein cysts

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61
Q

Maximum ovarian volume in a post-menopausal patient

A

6 cc

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62
Q

Ovarian simple cyst - indication for annual US follow-up

A

> 5 cm in pre-menopause, >1 cm in post-menopause

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63
Q

Ovarian simple cyst - indication for MRI or surgical evaluation

A

> 7 cm in pre or post-menopause

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64
Q

Physiologic cyst (ovary)

A

simple cyst <3 cm; represents a normal follicle (or corpus luteum)

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65
Q

Follicular cyst (ovary)

A

simple cyst >3 cm; follicle that did not undergo ovulation; resolves in 2-3 cycles usually

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66
Q

Corpus luteum cyst (ovary)

A

when corpus luteum fails to regress

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67
Q

Hemorrhagic cyst (ovary)

A

hemorrhage into a functional cyst (most commonly a corpus luteum cyst); resolves in 2-3 cycles usually

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68
Q

Most common location for ectopic pregnancy

A

tubal (ampullary segment most commonly)

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69
Q

Ovarian cyst with internal echoes and echogenic foci along wall

A

endometrioma

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70
Q

Malignant transformation in ovaries + risk factors

A

endometrioma => clear cell or endometroid, mature cystic teratoma => SCC; risk factors for both are size and age

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71
Q

Decidualized endometrioma

A

solid nodule with internal flow in an endometrioma; seen in pregnancy; mimic for malignant degeneration

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72
Q

MRI characteristics of endometrioma vs. teratoma

A

endometrioma is T1 bright, T2 dark (“shading”); teratoma is T1/T2 bright (dark on fat sat)

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73
Q

Hemorrhagic cyst in a 70 y/o

A

cancer until proven otherwise (old people shouldn’t have cysts to hemorrhage into)

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74
Q

Ovarian cysts that resolve in 2-3 cycles (typically)

A

follicular cysts, hemorrhagic cysts

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75
Q

PCOS numbers

A

> 12 follicles per ovary, each <9 mm, ovarian volume >10 cc

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76
Q

Most common type of ovarian malignancy

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

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77
Q

Cystic ovarian mass with papillary projections

A

malignancy (serous > mucinous)

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78
Q

Endometroid carcinoma of the ovary

A

2nd most common ovarian malignancy; large solid and cystic mass; may arise from an endometrioma; 25% also have endometrial cancer; 15% bilateral

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79
Q

B.F.M. (adult)

A

ovarian masses (serous or mucinous), desmoid, sarcoma

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80
Q

T1/T2 dark ovarian mass (no calcification)

A

fibroma/fibrothecoma (benign); middle-aged women

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81
Q

T2 dark ovarian mass with calcification

A

Brenner tumor (benign); 50-70 y/o

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82
Q

Meigs syndrome

A

benign ovarian tumor (fibroma most commonly), ascites, pleural effusion; treatment is resection only

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83
Q

Ovarian fibromatosis

A

tumor-like enlargement of ovaries due to fibrosis (T1/T2 dark); assoc. with omental fibrosis and sclerosing mesenteritis

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84
Q

Ovarian transitional cell carcinoma

A

a.k.a. Brenner tumor

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85
Q

Bilateral solid ovarian masses

A

consider mets

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86
Q

Ovarian size suggestive of torsion

A

> 4 cm (unilateral)

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87
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

hydrosalpinx, thickened tube, +/- internal debris; may progress to TOA

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88
Q

Paraovarian cyst

A

congenital, remnant of Wolffian duct; separate from ovary; followed if >5 cm

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89
Q

Most common side for ovarian vein thrombophlebitis

A

right (80%); typically postpartum; may cause PE; treatment with antibiotics + heparin

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90
Q

Peritoneal inclusion cyst

A

adhesions (prior surgery or inflammatory disease) encapsulate an ovary => secretions result in cystic collection

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91
Q

Complete mole

A

46XX, no fetal parts, “snowstorm”, cysts within molar tissue; more common type of hydatidiform mole

92
Q

Partial mole

A

69XXX, fetal parts; thickened cystic placenta

93
Q

Invasive mole

A

typically after treatment of a hydatidiform mole; invasion into myometrium

94
Q

Penile fracture is defined by…

A

disruption of corpora cavernosa and tunica albuginea

95
Q

Main sequences for evaluation of the peripheral and transitional zones (prostate)

A

ADC/DWI for peripheral zone, T2 for transitional zone (both start with ‘T’)

96
Q

Median lobe hypertrophy

A

protrusion of median lobe of prostate into bladder base

97
Q

BPH volume

A

> 30 cc

98
Q

Indications for prostate MRI

A

high risk screening (high PSA or rising PSA with negative bx), staging

99
Q

Most common zone for prostate cancer

A

peripheral zone (70%)

100
Q

Zone involved in BPH

A

transitional zone (most commonly)

101
Q

MRI characteristics of prostate cancer

A

low T2, low ADC, restricts on DWI +/- early enhancement

102
Q

Best study to look for prostate mets

A

bone scan

103
Q

Prostate cancer staging - confined to prostate

A

T2/stage 2 or lower (lots of factors involved in deciding between stage 1 & 2)

104
Q

Prostate cancer staging - extracapsular extension

A

T3 => stage 3

105
Q

Prostate cancer staging - seminal vesicle invasion

A

T3 => stage 3

106
Q

Peripheral zone focus with low T2 and high T1 signal (prostate)

A

post-biopsy hemorrhage; prostate cancer is not T1 bright

107
Q

Prostatic utricle cyst associations

A

hypospadia, prune belly syndrome, Down syndrome, unilateral renal agenesis, imperforate anus

108
Q

Mullerian duct cyst complication

A

may develop cancer

109
Q

Congenital seminal vesicle cyst associations

A

ADPKD, unilateral renal agenesis, ureteral ectopia

110
Q

Acquired seminal vesicle cyst associations

A

related to BPH, post-surgical, or post-infectious

111
Q

Midline male pelvic cyst DDx

A

Mullerian duct cyst, prostatic utricle cyst, ejaculatory duct cyst

112
Q

Midline male pelvic cyst extending above the prostate

A

Mullerian duct cyst (prostatic utricle cysts rarely extend above the prostate)

113
Q

Testicular fracture vs. rupture

A

rupture is assocated with disruption of tunica albuginea and goes to surgery

114
Q

Congenital abnormality associated with testicular torsion

A

bell clapper deformity

115
Q

Isolated orchitis

A

mumps

116
Q

Epidermoid cyst + treatment (testis)

A

“onion skin” appearance, relatively hypovascular, benign; Tx enucleation or orchiectomy

117
Q

Calcified vas deferens

A

seen in diabetics and hyperparathyroidism

118
Q

Male urethra runs within the cavernosa or spongiosum

A

corpus spongiosum

119
Q

Peyronie’s disease

A

penile fracture => scarring => deformity/curvature

120
Q

Testicular malignancy that mets hematogenously

A

choriocarcinoma (other testicular malignancies met via lymphatics); elevated hCG

121
Q

Increased risk of testicular cancer

A

cryptorchidism, gonadal dysgenesis, Klinefelter’s, orchitis, caucasian

122
Q

Most common testicular tumor

A

seminoma (radiosensitive => best prognosis)

123
Q

Homogeneously hypoechoic testicular mass without calcifications

A

seminoma (radiosensitive => best prognosis)

124
Q

Heterogeneously hypoechoic testicular mass with calcifications

A

NSGCT; may also contain cystic components

125
Q

Older male with multiple hypoechoic testicular masses

A

lymphoma

126
Q

African-American male with hypoechoic testicular mass

A

sarcoid; must also consider testicular cancer, but consider sarcoid if race is mentioned

127
Q

Nodal mets in testicular cancer

A

retroperitoneal nodes are considered regional (N), however pelvic, external iliac, and inguinal nodes are metastatic (M)

128
Q

Testicular tumor associated with gynecomastia

A

Leydig cell tumor

129
Q

Sertoli cell tumor associations (males)

A

Peutz-Jegher, Klinefelter’s

130
Q

Bilateral absence of vas deferens

A

cystic fibrosis

131
Q

Complications of cryptorchidism

A

malignancy, infertility, torsion, bowel incarceration (due to hernia)

132
Q

Infertile male with anosmia

A

Kallman syndrome

133
Q

Infertile tall male with gynecomastia

A

Klinefelter syndrome

134
Q

Infertile male with lactation

A

pituitary adenoma

135
Q

Embryo vs. fetus (by week)

A

embryo <10 weeks, fetus >10 weeks

136
Q

OB - bleeding with closed cervix, no passage of products

A

threatened abortion

137
Q

OB - bleeding with open cervix, no passage of products

A

inevitable abortion

138
Q

Significance of double decidual sac sign

A

signifies an intra-uterine pregnancy

139
Q

MSD when yolk sac should be seen

A

> 8 mm; no yolk sac => guarded prognosis

140
Q

MSD when embryo should be seen

A

> 25 mm; no embryo => failed pregnancy

141
Q

CRL when heart beat should be seen

A

> 7 mm; no heart beat => failed pregnancy

142
Q

Situations where pregnancy can be declared “failed”

A

MSD >25 mm without an embryo, CRL >7 mm without a heart beat; also two additional situations based on follow-up

143
Q

Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy

A

h/o PID, tubal surgery, endometriosis, ovulation induction, previous ectopic, use of IUD

144
Q

Risk of interstitial ectopic

A

catastrophic hemorrhage

145
Q

Gestational sac should be seen at what hCG level on TV US?

A

hCG >2000

146
Q

Elevated hCG + moderate free fluid (no other findings)

A

70% PPV for ectopic

147
Q

Risks associated with IUDs

A

increased risk of infection (esp. actinomyces), ectopic, and uterine perforation

148
Q

BPD and HC are recorded at what level?

A

level of the thalami; BPD is outer to inner

149
Q

Femur length technique

A

longest dimension of femur; epiphysis is NOT included

150
Q

Abdominal circumference is recorded at what level?

A

junction of umbilical vein and PV; stomach should also be visible

151
Q

Estimated fetal weight

A

calculated by machine based on BPD+AC or AC+FL

152
Q

Findings suggestive of IUGR

A

EFW below 10th percentile, FL/AC ratio >23.5, umbilical artery systolic/diastolic ratio >4.0

153
Q

Most common cause for development of oligohydramnios in 3rd TM

A

IUGR associated with placental insufficiency

154
Q

Causes of asymmetric IUGR

A

HTN, severe malnutrition, Ehlers-Danlos

155
Q

Causes of symmetric IUGR

A

TORCH, fetal alcohol syndrome, maternal drug abuse, chromosomal abnormalities, anemia

156
Q

High umbilical artery systolic/diastolic ratio

A

seen in IUGR and pre-eclampsia; normal ratio is 2-3 at 32 weeks

157
Q

Components of biophysical profile

A

amniotic fluid, fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, non-stress test; score of 8-10 is ‘normal’

158
Q

Macrosomia

A

large baby (>90th percentile); most commonly due to maternal diabetes

159
Q

Complications of macrosomia

A

shoulder dystocia, brachial plexus injury, meconium aspiration, neonatal hypoglycemia

160
Q

Erb’s palsy

A

injury to upper trunk of brachial plexus (C5-6); most commonly from shoulder dystocia; aplastic or hypoplastic humeral head

161
Q

Criteria for oligohydramnios

A

AFI <5 cm

162
Q

Criteria for polyhydramnios

A

AFI >20 cm or single pocket >8 cm

163
Q

Normal cisterna magna measurement

A

2-10 mm; if too large => Dandy-Walker

164
Q

Echogenic focus in the ventricle

A

calcified papillary muscle; assoc. with increased risk of Down syndrome

165
Q

Single artery adjacent to bladder (fetal ultrasound)

A

2-vessel cord

166
Q

Echogenic bowel (greater than bone) + associations

A

assoc. with increased risk of Down syndrome, TORCH, CF; may also be a normal finding

167
Q

Omphalocele or gastroschisis should not be diagnosed before…

A

13 weeks (due to physiologic midgut herniation)

168
Q

Venous lake

A

normal finding in placenta; hypoechoic +/- slow flow

169
Q

Placental thickness in fetal hydrops

A

thickened placenta (>4 cm)

170
Q

Placental thickness in placental insufficiency

A

thinned placenta (<1 cm)

171
Q

Bilobed placenta

A

two near equal-sized lobes

172
Q

Succenturiate placenta

A

one or more small accessory lobes

173
Q

Risks associated with bilobed or succenturiate placenta

A

type 2 vasa previa, postpartum hemorrhage from retained placental tissue, velamentous insertion of cord (bilobed only)

174
Q

Circumvallate placenta

A

rolled edges with smaller chorionic plate

175
Q

Risks associated with circumvallate placenta

A

IUGR, placental abruption

176
Q

Painless vaginal bleeding in 3rd trimester

A

placenta previa; treatment is C-section

177
Q

Risk factors for placental abruption

A

hypertension, cocaine

178
Q

“Moth-eaten” or “swiss cheese” placenta

A

placenta accreta; vascular channels may extend into myometrium (myometrium may be thinned)

179
Q

Risk factors for placenta accreta

A

prior C-section, placenta previa, advanced maternal age

180
Q

Anterior placenta with history of C-section

A

consider placenta accreta

181
Q

Most common benign tumor of placenta

A

chorangioma (well-circumscribed hypoechoic mass near cord insertion)

182
Q

Normal umbilical cord vessels

A

2 arteries, 1 vein

183
Q

Significance of two-vessel cord

A

normal variant, with an association with chromosomal anomalies (need to look for them)

184
Q

Velamentous cord insertion

A

cord inserts into fetal membranes outside placental margin; seen more in twins with increased risk of IUGR and growth discordance

185
Q

Marginal cord insertion

A

within 2 cm of placental margin

186
Q

Vasa previa - type 1 vs. type 2

A

type 1 = velamentous cord insertion; type 2 = bilobed or succenturiate placenta

187
Q

Umbilical cord cysts (2 types)

A

omphalomesenteric duct cyst (peripheral), allantoic cyst (central)

188
Q

Fetal ultrasound findings associated with Down syndrome

A

endocardial cushion defect, duodenal atresia, echogenic bowel, calcified papillary muscle, nuchal translucency, nuchal fold thickening, absent nasal bone, sandal toe gap

189
Q

Choroid plexus cyst (antenatal)

A

trisomy 18 > trisomy 21, Klinefelter’s

190
Q

Correct positioning for nuchal translucency

A

tip of nose, nasal bone, hard palate, and diencephalon should be visible; neck in neutral position

191
Q

Increased nuchal translucency measurement

A

> 3 mm; measured in late 1st

192
Q

Correct positioning for nuchal fold thickness

A

at level of thalami, cavum septum pallucidum, and cerebellar hemispheres

193
Q

Increased nuchal fold thickness measurement

A

> 6 mm

194
Q

Most common cause of fetal hydrops

A

non-immune (TORCH, twin-related stuff, cardiovascular anomalies, chromosomal abnormalities); immune type is caused by Rh sensitization (from prior pregnancy)

195
Q

Diagnosis of fetal hydrops

A

2 of ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, subcutaneous edema; may also have polyhydramnios

196
Q

Lemon-shaped skull

A

Chiari II; resolves in 3rd trimester

197
Q

Cerebral findings in Chiari II (not exhaustive)

A

small posterior fossa, obstructive hydrocephalus, callosal dysgenesis, tectal beaking, absent septum pallicidum

198
Q

Most common cause of congenital obstructive hydrocephalus

A

aqueductal stenosis

199
Q

Cystic hygroma + associations

A

congenital lymphangioma in posterior neck; Turner’s > Down’s

200
Q

Most common neural tube defect

A

anencephaly

201
Q

Most common tumor of the fetus or infant

A

sacrococcygeal teratoma (posterior > dumbbell > anterior)

202
Q

Short femur length

A

consider skeletal dysplasia (especially achondroplasia)

203
Q

Criteria for cervical incompetence

A

<3 cm in length; increased risk of premature delivery

204
Q

Treatment for cervical incompetence

A

cerclage before 24 weeks, bedrest after 24 weeks

205
Q

Stuff that grows during pregnancy

A

baby, splenic artery aneurysms, renal AMLs, fibroids

206
Q

Risk factors for uterine rupture

A

prior C-section, unicornuate uterus, prior uterine currettage, interstitial implantation, “trapped uterus”

207
Q

Subcapsular hepatic hematoma in pregnant woman

A

HELLP syndrome (most severe form of pre-eclampsia)

208
Q

Sheehan syndrome + findings

A

pituitary apoplexy (necrosis) following large volume hemorrhage; T1 bright, rim enhancement

209
Q

RPOC associations

A

medical abortion, 2nd trimester miscarriage, placenta accreta

210
Q

Absent cavum septum pellicidum DDx (between weeks 18-37)

A

callosal agenesis, holoprosencephaly, septo-optic dysplasia; normal finding <18 or >37 weeks

211
Q

Twin peak sign

A

dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy

212
Q

T sign

A

monochorionic pregnancy

213
Q

Twin-twin transfusion

A

in monochorionic pregnancies; donor does better, recipient develops hydrops

214
Q

Stuck twin

A

donor twin in twin-twin transfusion (due to oligohydramnios)

215
Q

Reversal of umbilical arterial and venous flow in one twin

A

TRAP; normal flow pattern in “pump” twin, reversal of flow in acardiac twin

216
Q

Fetal hydronephrosis measurement

A

≥10 mm axial diameter of renal pelvis (always abnormal); <4 mm is normal

217
Q

Chorionicity is deteremined at __ days and amnionicity at __ days

A

4 days and 8 days, respectively

218
Q

Twin reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP)

A

acardiac twin and “pump” twin; only occurs in monochorionic pregnancies

219
Q

Scrotal pearl

A

from prior torsion of appendix testis

220
Q

Testicular adrenal rests association

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

221
Q

Most common testicular malignancy of 2nd decade

A

choriocarcinoma

222
Q

Normal placental thickness

A

1-4 cm

223
Q

Diagnostic criteria for microlithiasis (testis)

A

5 or more microcalcifications PER FIELD

224
Q

Granulosa-theca cell tumor (ovary)

A

releases estrogen => precocious puberty

225
Q

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor (ovary)

A

releases androgens => virilization

226
Q

Cystic rhombencephalon

A

normal between weeks 6-8 of gestation

AJT CORE (12 decks)

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