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AJT CORE > CORE - Peds > Flashcards

CORE - Peds Flashcards

1
Q

Telephone receiver femurs

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

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2
Q

Cloverleaf skull

A

thanatophoric dysplasia, severe Apert syndrome, severe Crouzon syndrome

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3
Q

Platyspondyly

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

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4
Q

Anterior beaking of mid vertebral body

A

Morquio’s

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5
Q

Anterior beaking of inferior vertebral body

A

Hurler’s

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6
Q

Banana sign

A

Chiari II - appearance of the cerebellum

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7
Q

Lemon sign

A

Chiari II - appearance of the skull shape

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8
Q

Luckenschadel skull

A

associated with Chiari II - dysplasia of the skull with multiple rounded lytic defects; affects inner table

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9
Q

Hair-on-end skull

A

thalassemia, sickle cell disease

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10
Q

Most common cause of cyanosis in newborn

A

Transposition of the great arteries

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11
Q

Wimberger sign

A

Congenital syphilis

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12
Q

Celery stalk metaphyses

A

Congenital rubella

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13
Q

Floating tooth in the mandible

A

Eosinophilic granuloma

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14
Q

Wide angled mandible and dwarfism

A

pycnodysostosis

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15
Q

Osteonecrosis of the mandible (peds)

A

OI on bisphosphonates

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16
Q

Wimberger ring sign

A

Circular calcification surrounding the osteoporotic epiphyseal center of ossificatoin in scurvy - may result from bleeding

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17
Q

Subperiosteal hemorrhage

A

Scurvy

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18
Q

Gingival bleeding

A

Scurvy

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19
Q

Intralobar sequestration, most common location

A

LLL

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20
Q

Congenital lobar emphysema, most common location

A

LUL

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21
Q

Bronchial atresia, most common location

A

LUL

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22
Q

Elevated endothelial growth factor (EGF)

A

Hemangioendothelioma; follows peripheral nodular discontinuous enhancement pattern

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23
Q

Elevated AFP DDx

A

Hepatoblastoma, HCC, gastroschisis, yolk sac tumor (testes), pancreatoblastoma, anencephaly

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24
Q

Subglottic hemangioma

A

assoc. with PHACES syndrome (P = Dandy-Walker), cutaneous hemangiomas; most commonly left-sided

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25
Q

Cutaneous hemangioma

A

assoc. with PHACES syndrome (P = Dandy-Walker)

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26
Q

Ropy opacities

A

Meconium aspiration

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27
Q

Pneumothorax (neonate)

A

Meconium aspiration

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28
Q

Fluid in the fissures (neonate)

A

TTN

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29
Q

Granular opacities, premature, low lung volumes

A

RDS

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30
Q

Granular opacities, normal/increased lung volumes

A

PNA

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31
Q

Granular opacities, low lung volumes, pleural effusion

A

B-hemolytic strep PNA

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32
Q

Band-like opacites (neonate)

A

CLD/BPD

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33
Q

Non-bilious vomiting (3 weeks to 3 months) + NEXT STEP

A

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis; next step is ultrasound

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34
Q

Paradoxical aciduria

A

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

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35
Q

Thickness and length hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

4 mm and 14 mm

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36
Q

Posterior mediastinal mass <2 y/o

A

Neuroblastoma

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37
Q

Absent or hypoplastic GB

A

Biliary atresia

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38
Q

Triangle cord sign

A

Biliary atresia - triangular or tubular echogenic cord of fibrous tissue seen in the porta hepatis at ultrasonography

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39
Q

Asplenia

A

Congenital heart disease

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40
Q

Splenic infarct

A

SCD

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41
Q

Gallstones

A

SCD

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42
Q

Fishmouth or H-shaped vertebrae

A

SCD, Gaucher’s

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43
Q

Hand or foot pain/swelling (infant)

A

Hand-foot syndrome (dactylitis in SCD)

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44
Q

Short microcolon

A

Mid to distal colonic atresia, Hirschsprung’s (dependent on length of involvement)

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45
Q

Long microcolon

A

Meconium ileus, ileal/proximal colonic atresia, total colonic Hirschsprung’s

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46
Q

Calcified abdominal mass in newborn

A

Meconium peritonitis

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47
Q

Meconium ileus equivalent

A

DIOS

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48
Q

Abrupt caliber change of aorta below celiac origin

A

Hepatic hemangioendothelioma (shunt)

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49
Q

Cystic mass in liver of newborn

A

Mesenchymal hamartoma

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50
Q

Unilateral renal agenesis

A

Unicornuate uterus (females); absent vas deferens/epididymis, seminal vesicle cysts (males)

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51
Q

Neonatal renal vein thrombosis

A

Maternal diabetes

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52
Q

Neonatal renal artery thrombosis

A

Misplaced umbilical artery catheter (should be at T8-10 or L3-5)

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53
Q

Hydronephrosis on fetal MRI

A

Posterior urethral valve

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54
Q

Urachal anomaly assoc. malignancy

A

Adenocarcinoma

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55
Q

Solid renal tumor in <3 month old

A

Mesoblastic nephroma

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56
Q

Solid renal tumor of childhood

A

Wilms

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57
Q

Midline pelvic mass in female

A

Hydrometrocolpos

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58
Q

Blue dot sign

A

Torsion of testicular appendage (>5 mm)

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59
Q

Extratesticular scrotal mass

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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60
Q

Narrowing of interpedicular distance

A

Achondroplasia

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61
Q

Tombstone iliacs

A

Achondroplasia

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62
Q

Champagne glass pelvic inlet

A

Achondroplasia

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63
Q

Trident hands

A

Achondroplasia; short fingers with a separation between the 3rd and 4th digits

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64
Q

Posterior vertebral scalloping

A

Achondroplasia, NF1, Marfan’s, Ehlers-Danlos, intraspinal mass, mucopolysaccharidoses

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65
Q

Idiopathic scrotal edema

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

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66
Q

Acute scrotal pain age 7-14

A

Torsion of testicular appendage (most common), testicular torsion, epididymitis

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67
Q

Physiologic periostitis of the newborn

A

1-4 months; femur before tibia, always diaphyseal

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68
Q

Acetabular angle should be

A

<30

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69
Q

Alpha angle should be

A

> 60

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70
Q

Klein’s line

A

along lateral femoral neck; for SCFE

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71
Q

Hilgenreiner line

A

drawn through triradiate cartilage; ‘H’ for horizontal

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72
Q

Perkins line

A

drawn through lateral acetabulum; ‘P’ for perpendicular to Hilgenreiner line

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73
Q

Most common symptomatic vascular ring

A

Double aortic arch

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74
Q

Neonatal infection with frontal lobe atrophy

A

HIV

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75
Q

Dolicocephaly

A

Sagittal suture fusion

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76
Q

Brachycephaly

A

Bilateral coronal or lambdoid suture fusion

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77
Q

Plagiocephaly

A

Unilateral coronal or lambdoid suture fusion

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78
Q

Trigonocephaly

A

Metopic suture fusion

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79
Q

Turricephaly

A

Sagittal, coronal, and lambdoid suture fusion

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80
Q

Right-sided heterotaxia

A

bilateral major/minor fissures, asplenia, more cardiac malformations, aorta on the right side of the spine

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81
Q

Left-sided heterotaxia

A

bilateral single fissures, polysplenia, fewer cardiac malformations, azygous continuation

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82
Q

Congenital CMV (CNS)

A

periventricular calcifications, pachygyria-lissencephaly, hydrocephalus

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83
Q

Congenital toxoplasmosis (CNS)

A

basal ganglia calcifications, hydrocephalus

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84
Q

Congenital HSV (CNS)

A

hermorrhagic infarction => bad encephalomalacia

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85
Q

Congenital HIV (CNS)

A

frontal lobe atrophy

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86
Q

Caffey disease

A

<6 m/o, self-limited; periosteal reaction, soft-tissue swelling, irritability; affects mandible, ulna, and clavicle; hot on bone scan

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87
Q

Wormian bones DDx

A

Pycnodysostosis, OI, Rickets, Kinky hair syndrome, Cleidocranial dysostosis, Hajdu-Cheney, Syndrome of Downs

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88
Q

Differential for high output cardiac failure in pediatric patient

A

Hepatic hemagnioendothelioma, vein of Galen malformation, sacrococcygeal teratoma

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89
Q

Grade 1 VUR

A

reflux into ureter only

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90
Q

Grade 2 VUR

A

reflux into renal pelvis, no dilation

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91
Q

Grade 3 VUR

A

mild dilation of ureter and pelvicalyceal system

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92
Q

Grade 4 VUR

A

tortuous ureter with moderate dilation, pelvicalyceal blunting with preserved papillary impressions

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93
Q

Grade 5 VUR

A

tortuous ureter with severe dilation of the ureter and pelvicalyceal system, loss of fornices and papillary impressions

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94
Q

VUR treatment

A

grades 1-3 with antibiotics only, grades 4-5 with antibiotics +/- reimplantation

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95
Q

Rhizomelic

A

Proximal limb shortening

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96
Q

Mesomelic

A

Mid limb shortening

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97
Q

Acromelic

A

Distal limb shortening

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98
Q

Most common congenital heart disease

A

Bicuspid aortic valve or VSD (depends on wording)

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99
Q

Aortic coarctation associations

A

assoc. with Turners, bicuspid aortic valve

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100
Q

Extra-cardiac shunts

A

hepatic hemangioendothelioma, vein of galen malformation, sacrococcygeal teratoma

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101
Q

type 1 TAPVR

A

Supracardiac (50%) - snowman sign

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102
Q

type 2 TAPVR

A

Cardiac (30%)

103
Q

type 3 TAPVR

A

Infracardiac (20%) - veins drain below the diaphragm (hepatic or IVC); often causes pulmonary edema in newborns

104
Q

Double aortic arch

A

right arch is classically higher and larger compared to the left arch

105
Q

Risk factors for germinal matrix hemorrhage

A

prematurity, multiple gestations, birth trauma, prolonged labor

106
Q

Pectus excavatum

A

Haller index = transverse diameter / AP diameter; >3.25 => surgical correction

107
Q

Causes of pulmonary hypoplasia

A

CDH, Potter sequence, decreased vascular supply

108
Q

CCAM types

A

1 = cystic; 2 = mixed; 3 = solid; treatment is resection

109
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

Bochdalek hernia most commonly; almost all are malrotated; when right-sided assoc. with GBS pneumonia

110
Q

Bronchiolitis obliterans

A

air trapping, mosaic attenuation, bronchiectasis, bronchial wall thickening

111
Q

Pleuropulmonary blastoma

A

1-2 y/o, usually right-sided, mixed cystic and solid, no calcifications or rib invasion

112
Q

UVC position

A

cavoatrial junction

113
Q

UAC position

A

high position (T8-10) or low position (L3-5)

114
Q

SMA on ultrasound

A

echogenic halo of fat

115
Q

Malrotation associations

A

heterotaxy, omphalocele, CDH

116
Q

Small left colon syndrome associations

A

pre-term delivery, diabetic mothers, mag sulfate

117
Q

High obstruction in a neonate - NEXT STEP

A

Upper GI series to exclude midgut volvulus (emergency)

118
Q

Low obstruction in a neonate - NEXT STEP

A

Contrast enema to exclude surgical causes (Hirschsprung’s, colonic/ileal atresia) from non-surgical causes (small left colon syndrome, meconium ileus)

119
Q

Imperforate anus associations

A

VACTERL, caudal regression syndrome; may need to assess for GU fistula

120
Q

Contraindications to air/contrast enema for intussusception

A

peritoneal signs or free air (should go straight to surgery)

121
Q

Increased risk of NEC

A

pre-term delivery, low birth weight, congenital heart disease, Hirschsprung’s, hyperosmolar feeds

122
Q

Omphalocele associations

A

trisomy 18, allantoic cysts, cardiac anomalies, Beckwith-Wiedemann, caudal regression syndrome, malrotation

123
Q

Dorsal pancreatic agenesis

A

increased risk of diabetes; associated with polysplenia

124
Q

Biliary atresia associations

A

polysplenia, trisomy 18, Alagille syndrome

125
Q

Retrocaval ureter

A

fishhook or J-shaped

126
Q

Allantois

A

becomes urachus (which is between the bladder and umbilicus)

127
Q

Omphalomesenteric duct

A

a.k.a. vitelline duct; fetal connection between umbilical cord and midgut; persistence is a Meckel’s

128
Q

Bladder exstrophy associated malignancy

A

increased risk of adenocarcinoma

129
Q

Wilms tumor associations

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann, WAGR, horseshoe kidney, trisomy 18, Denys-Drash

130
Q

Neuroblastoma - stage 4S

A

<1 y/o, confined to skin, liver, and bone marrow; excellent prognosis

131
Q

Hydrometrocolpos association

A

didelphyc uterus

132
Q

Hydrocele with septations

A

hematocele or pyocele

133
Q

Isolated orchitis

A

mumps

134
Q

Paratesticular mass

A

rhabdomyosarcoma or hematoma (with h/o trauma)

135
Q

Pediatric elbow fracture prevalence

A

supracondylar fracture > lateral condylar fracture > medial epicondylar fracture/avulsion

136
Q

Little league elbow

A

medial epicondylar fracture/avulsion

137
Q

Neonatal periosteal reaction

A

physiologic, prostaglandins, rubella, syphilis, neuroblastoma mets, Caffey disease

138
Q

Fracture(s) with hyperplastic callus

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

139
Q

“Bone-in-bone” appearance of carpals or vertebral bodies

A

osteopetrosis

140
Q

Small, skinny vertebral bodies

A

Klippel-Feil syndrome; with cervical fusion anomalies

141
Q

Hindfoot valgus

A

flat foot, a.k.a. pes planus; talocalcaneal angle >40 degrees

142
Q

Hindfoot varus

A

club foot, a.k.a. talipes equino varus; talocalcaneal angle <25 degrees

143
Q

Increased risk of DDH

A

girls, breech birth, oligohydramnios, first born, family history

144
Q

Rickets in a newborn

A

hypophosphatasia (deficient alkaline phosphatase)

145
Q

Stippled epiphyses DDx

A

chondrodysplasia punctata, maternal coumadin use, hypothyroidism, Fairbank disease

146
Q

Tethered cord associations

A

caudal regression syndrome, VACTERL, most open or closed spinal dysraphisms

147
Q

Absent thumb and radius DDx

A

VACTERL, Holt-Oram, Fanconi anemia

148
Q

Surfactant replacement therapy

A

increased risk of pulmonary hemorrhage and PDA; can mimic PIE

149
Q

Recurrent pneumonia in same location

A

intralobar sequestration

150
Q

Absent vas deferens

A

unilateral renal agenesis or cystic fibrosis

151
Q

Spinnaker sail sign

A

pneumomediastinum

152
Q

Mediastinal mass with calcification DDx (peds)

A

neuroblastoma, treated lymphoma, teratoma

153
Q

Increased risk of extra-gonadal germ cell tumors

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome (specifically NSGCT)

154
Q

Increased risk of male breast cancer

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

155
Q

Most common type of TEF

A

N-type (blind-ending esophagus with TE fistula to distal esophagus)

156
Q

Criteria for VACTERL diagnosis

A

3 or more anomalies

157
Q

Duodenal atresia associations

A

prematurity, Down syndrome, polyhydramnios

158
Q

“Double bubble” with distal bowel gas

A

midgut volvulus, duodenal stenosis, duodenal web, annular pancreas

159
Q

Ladds bands

A

cause obstruction in the setting of malrotation

160
Q

Organoaxial gastric volvulus

A

old ladies with paraesophageal hernias

161
Q

Mesenteroaxial gastric volvulus

A

peds, may cause ischemia and/or obstruction

162
Q

Annular pancreas (peds)

A

duodenal obstruction

163
Q

Annular pancreas (adults)

A

pancreatitis

164
Q

Treatment for meconium ileus and small left colon syndrome

A

enema

165
Q

Cutoff for small vs. large bowel intussusception

A

2.5 cm

166
Q

Lead points for intussusception

A

lymph nodes, HSP, Meckel’s, enteric duplication cysts

167
Q

Most common cause of pancreatitis (peds)

A

trauma

168
Q

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome

A

assoc. with hemangioendothelioma

169
Q

Hepatoblastoma associations

A

Wilms, Beckwith-Wiedemann, hemi-hypertrophy

170
Q

Caroli’s disease associations

A

polycystic kidney disease (AR > AD), medullary sponge kidney

171
Q

Diffuse liver metastases (infant or toddler)

A

neuroblastoma or Wilms; if <6 m/o => neuroblastoma

172
Q

High imperforate anus fistula

A

vesicorectal (males) or vaginorectal (females)

173
Q

Low imperforate anus fistula

A

perineal fistula

174
Q

“Pancake adrenal gland”

A

congenitally absent kidney

175
Q

Most common congenital GU anomaly

A

UPJ obstruction

176
Q

Whitaker test

A

to differentiate UPJ from an extra-renal pelvis; urodynamics + antegrade pyelogram

177
Q

No urine in bladder in utero

A

bilateral renal agenesis, ARPKD

178
Q

Causes of primary megaureter

A

idiopathic, distal adynamic segment, reflux at UVJ

179
Q

Obstructive causes of hydronephrosis in male neonates

A

UPJ obstruction, PUV, ureteral ectopia (obstructs)

180
Q

Non-obstructive causes of hydronephrosis in male neonates

A

VUR, primary megaureter, prune belly syndrome

181
Q

Most common complication of a urachal remnant

A

infection

182
Q

Screening for Wilms in nephroblastomatosis

A

q3 months until age 7

183
Q

Renal scintigraphy with no excretory function (neonate)

A

renal agenesis, MCDK

184
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann (3 associations)

A

Wilms, hepatoblastoma, omphalocele

185
Q

WAGR syndrome

A

Wilms, Aniridia, Genital anomalies, Retardation of growth

186
Q

Wilms-like tumor + bone mets

A

clear cell sarcoma; regular Wilms most commonly mets to lungs

187
Q

“Bunch of grapes” in the pelvis

A

Botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma; this variant occurs in the bladder and vagina most commonly

188
Q

Neuroblastoma associations

A

NF-1, Hirschsprung’s, DiGeorge syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann

189
Q

Scrotal hemorrhage (neonate)

A

assoc. with adrenal hemorrhage

190
Q

“Cerebriform” adrenal gland

A

adrenal hyperplasia

191
Q

Ovarian torsion

A

swollen ovary, peripheral follicles, no flow

192
Q

Most common cause of painless scrotal swelling

A

hydrocele

193
Q

Large or coarse testicular calfications

A

NSGCT

194
Q

Most common testicular tumors in 1st decade

A

yolk sac tumor, teratoma

195
Q

Sertoli cell tumor associations

A

Peutz-Jeghers, Klinefelter’s

196
Q

5+ y/o elbow

A

“Where is the medial epicondylar ossification center?”

197
Q

Lucent skull lesions (peds)

A

EG, neuroblastoma mets, Luckenshadel skull (Chiari II)

198
Q

Fibula longer than tibia

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

199
Q

Wormian bones, acroosteolysis, osteosclerosis

A

pycnodysostosis

200
Q

Sprengel deformity (high-riding scapula)

A

Klippel-Feil syndrome; assoc. with an omovertebral bone

201
Q

Caudal regression syndrome associations

A

VACTERL, Currarino triad

202
Q

Currarino triad

A

anorectal malformation, sacrococcygeal osseous defect, presacral mass (meningocele, teratoma, hamartoma)

203
Q

Presacral mass DDx

A

sacrococcygeal teratoma, meningocele, rectal duplication cyst

204
Q

Absent radius DDx

A

VACTERL, Holt-Oram, Fanconi anemia, thrombocytopenia absent radius (TAR)

205
Q

Medial subluxation of the navicular

A

club foot (talipes equinovarus)

206
Q

Hip pain with with widened joint space - NEXT STEP

A

septic arthritis must be excluded

207
Q

Kocher criteria

A

fever, inability to bear weight, elevated ESR/CRP, WBC >12; 3 or more is positive for septic arthritis

208
Q

Duodenal hematoma (infant)

A

NAT

209
Q

Pancreatitis (infant)

A

NAT

210
Q

Piriform aperture stenosis associations + NEXT STEP

A

central mega-incisor, agenesis of the corpus callosum, holoprosencephaly; next step is image the brain

211
Q

Dimple screening

A

high dimples (above gluteal crease) are screened; low dimples are not

212
Q

Excessive expiratory airway collapse (>50%)

A

tracheobronchomalacia

213
Q

Massive perinatal pericardial effusion

A

pericardial teratoma

214
Q

Soap bubble luciences in RLQ (x-ray)

A

meconium ileus

215
Q

Simple renal cyst(s) associations

A

tuberous sclerosis, VHL

216
Q

Abnormal anterior humeral line

A

supracondylar fracture

217
Q

Abnormal radiocapitellar line

A

elbow dislocation

218
Q

Salter-Harris type of an avulsion injury

A

Salter-Harris type 1

219
Q

Skeletal survey

A

frontal view of all long bones, rib views with obliques, skull, pelvis, hands/feet, entire spine

220
Q

J-shaped sella

A

mucopolysaccharidoses, achondroplasia, NF1

221
Q

Madelung deformity associations

A

prior trauma, Turner syndrome, Hurler’s, achondroplasia, multiple hereditary exostoses

222
Q

Oncogenic rickets

A

seen with hemangiopericytoma or non-ossifying fibroma

223
Q

Alagille syndrome

A

intrahepatic biliary atresia, peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis

224
Q

Salter-Harris type for a lateral condylar fracture

A

Salter-Harris type 4

225
Q

Cyst with trilaminar wall

A

enteric duplication cyst

226
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

renal failure, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia; enlarged echogenic kidneys; due to E. coli most commonly

227
Q

Echogenic chest mass (neonate)

A

CLE, CDH, sequestration, CCAM

228
Q

Congenital venolobar syndrome

A

a.k.a. scimitar syndrome (RLL PAPVR + pulmonary hypoplasia)

229
Q

Work-up for pediatric bone tumor (any)

A

MRI of affected limb, CT chest, whole body surveillance (skeletal survey, bone scan, or MIBG)

230
Q

Small thorax with a distended abdomen

A

consider renal issues (Potter sequence)

231
Q

Age for ganglioneuroma

A

> 10 y/o

232
Q

Echogenic pulvinar

A

seen in DDH; femoral heads will be displaced

233
Q

Pediatric ovarian neoplasms

A

GCTs are most common regardless of age (also most common amongst malignant ovarian tumors)

234
Q

Infant with UTI by urinalysis - NEXT STEP

A

renal ultrasound to evaluate for pyelo or structural anomalies

235
Q

Indication for VCUG in an infant

A

recurrent UTI or abnormal renal ultrasound

236
Q

% SCFE is bilateral

A

25%; Tx for SCFE is surgical pinning

237
Q

Complications of SCFE

A

FAI, chondrolysis, avascular necrosis

238
Q

Renal mass with a subcapsular fluid collection

A

rhabdoid tumor of the kidney

239
Q

Anterior mediastinal mass DDx (peds)

A

lymphoma, leukemia, GCT (teratoma, seminoma, NSGCT), thymic rebound, normal thymus

240
Q

Most common extra-ocular orbital malignancy (peds)

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

241
Q

Lytic lesion of bony pelvis DDx (peds)

A

Ewing’s, osteosarcoma, EG, neuroblastoma met, lymphoma/leukemia, osteomyelitis

242
Q

Diffusely sclerotic bones DDx

A

osteopetrosis, pycnodysostosis, hypervitaminosis A, renal osteodystrophy, fluorosis

243
Q

Age when DDH screening shifts from US to x-ray

A

6 months (when femoral heads ossify)

244
Q

Situs solitus

A

normal position of chest and abdominal organs

245
Q

Copper-beaten skull

A

hydrocephalus

246
Q

ARPKD types

A

infantile = worse renal disease, less hepatic fibrosis; juvenile = less renal disease, more hepatic fibrosis

247
Q

Short femurs

A

skeletal dysplasia (especially achondroplasia)

248
Q

Criteria for BPD

A

abnormal CXR + persistent need for oxygen at 36 post-conceptual weeks or at 28 days of life

249
Q

Most common benign liver tumor (peds)

A

infantile hepatic hemangioma

250
Q

Bony findings in achondroplasia

A

bullet-shaped VBs, posterior VB scalloping, decreasing interpedicular distance, horizontal acetabular roofs, tombstone iliac bones, exaggerated lumbar lordosis

251
Q

Diabetic mother associations

A

TGA, TTN, small left colon, renal vein thrombosis, caudal regression syndrome

252
Q

Intussusception reduction procedure

A

surgeon present, large bore needle available, large enema tip, up to 120 mmHg; up to 3 attempts up to 3 minutes each

253
Q

High vs. low imperforate anus landmark

A

puborectalis sling

254
Q

Physiologic jaundice of the newborn

A

unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia; note that conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is never normal

AJT CORE (12 decks)

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