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AJT CORE > CORE - Mammo > Flashcards

CORE - Mammo Flashcards

1
Q

Screening women from 40-49 is classified as ___ by USPSTF

A

Class C - based on individual factors

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2
Q

MLO imaging plane

A

40-60 degrees from the axial plane; parallel to the pectoralis major; may exclude superior-medial tissue

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3
Q

“Dashes but not dots”

A

secretory calcifications (plasma cell mastitis); typically bilateral

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4
Q

Cigar-shaped calcifications

A

secretory calcifications (plasma cell mastitis); typically bilateral

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5
Q

Large rod-like calcifications

A

secretory calcifications (plasma cell mastitis); typically bilateral

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6
Q

Popcorn calcifications

A

fibroadenoma

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7
Q

Eggshell or rim calcifications

A

oil cyst

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8
Q

“Breast within a breast”

A

hamartoma

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9
Q

Powdered sugar calcifications

A

amorphous

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10
Q

Coarse heterogeneous calcifications

A

irregular, >0.5 mm (but smaller than dystrophic calcifications); may be assoc. with malignancy; biopsy is warranted

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11
Q

Dot-dash calcifications

A

fine pleomorphic (<0.5 mm)

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12
Q

Most suspicious type of calcifications

A

fine linear-branching (BR-4c) > fine pleomorphic (BR-4b)

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13
Q

Suspicious calcification distributions

A

segmental (most suspicious) > linear > grouped

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14
Q

BI-RADS for suspicious calcification types

A

BR-4, unless other suspicious findings are identified on mammo/US (e.g. an associated mass)

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15
Q

Suspected dermal calcifications

A

tangential view to prove skin location

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16
Q

Tattoo sign

A

dermal calcifications; fixed relationship between calcifications across different views

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17
Q

Regional distribution of calcifications

A

distributed over >2 cm; malignancy less likely

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18
Q

Grouped distribution of calcifications

A

> 5 small calcifications within <2 cm; suspicious

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19
Q

Bilateral flame shaped subareolar masses (male)

A

gynecomastia

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20
Q

Shrinking breast

A

ILC

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21
Q

Fat-fluid level

A

galactocele

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22
Q

Rapidly-growing fibroadenoma

A

phyllodes tumor

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23
Q

Mastitis refractory to antibiotics

A

inflammatory breast cancer

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24
Q

Architectural distortion with calcifications

A

IDC + DCIS

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25
Q

Architectural distortion without calcifications

A

ILC

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26
Q

Type of DCIS associated with highest rate of recurrence

A

micropapillary

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27
Q

Snowstorm appearance on US

A

extracapsular silicone

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28
Q

Stepladder sign on US

A

intracapsular rupture

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29
Q

Linguine sign on MRI

A

intracapsular rupture

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30
Q

Calcifications in lumpectomy bed

A

must exclude residual or recurrent disease

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31
Q

Biopsied calcifications absent from mammo but not in core specimen

A

likely milk of calcium calcifications; use polarized light

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32
Q

Nipple enhancement on MRI

A

normal

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33
Q

Darkening of areola

A

normal with puberty and parity

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34
Q

Breast tenderness peak during cycle

A

day 27-30

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35
Q

Most comprehensive breast cancer risk model

A

Tyrer Cuzick (does not include breast density); Gail model is the worst (does not include genetics)

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36
Q

BRCA type most assoc. with male breast cancer

A

BRCA2

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37
Q

BRCA type more likely to have triple negative cancer

A

BRCA1

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38
Q

Surgical scars should get lighter over time

A

If getting darker or focal nodular, consider local recurrence

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39
Q

Silicone in a lymph node on US - NEXT STEP

A

MRI to evaluate for implant rupture

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40
Q

Biggest risk factor for implant rupture

A

age of implant

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41
Q

Invasive lobular carcinoma represents ____ of breast cancer

A

5-10%

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42
Q

Tumor invasion of dermal lymphatics

A

inflammatory breast cancer

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43
Q

Prognosis for ER/PR positive cancers

A

good prognosis (better than negative types)

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44
Q

Most common pathogen causing of mastitis

A

S. aureus; seen in nursing mothers and diabetics

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45
Q

Mondor disease + treatment

A

thrombophlebitis of a superficial vein; tender; Tx NSAIDs + warm compresses

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46
Q

BI-RADS 3

A

<2% chance of malignancy; gets 2 year diagnostic follow-up (6-6-12)

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47
Q

BI-RADS 4

A

2-95% chance of malignancy; benign path result is ok

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48
Q

BI-RADS 5

A

> 95% chance of malignancy; CANNOT accept a benign path result

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49
Q

BI-RADS 6

A

biopsy-proven malignancy

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50
Q

Women with extremely dense breasts have a ____ increased risk of cancer compared with almost entirely fatty breasts

A

5x

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51
Q

Lesion movement based on location - CC => MLO => ML

A

“Muffins rise, lead falls.” Medial lesions will move up from CC to lateral. Lateral lesions will move down.

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52
Q

New mass on screening mammogram (any characteristics) - NEXT STEP

A

ultrasound; cannot call any mass benign on screening mammo alone

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53
Q

Pathologic nipple discharge

A

unilateral; clear or bloody; often spontaneous

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54
Q

Non-pathologic nipple discharge

A

bilateral; green, brown, or milky

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55
Q

Most common cause of pathologic nipple discharge

A

papilloma

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56
Q

Clustered microcysts

A

due to apocrine metaplasia or fibrocystic changes; BR-3 (if no solid component)

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57
Q

ILC (compared to IDC)

A

more often multifocal and bilateral

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58
Q

Most common type of lymphoma involving the breast

A

B-cell lymphoma

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59
Q

Non-mammo finding in Poland syndrome

A

ipsilateral syndactyly; more common in males; often absence of breast tissue as well

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60
Q

Definition of focus on MRI

A

focal enhancement <5 mm, round/oval, well-circumscribed; no mass effect, no pre-contrast correlate

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61
Q

Normal enhancement at a lumpectomy site can be seen up to

A

6-18 months, due to granulation tissue; enhancement should not recur after it subsides

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62
Q

Post-radiation therapy increased breast density and skin thickening should peak at…

A

6 months; beyond 12 months post-radiation it should be considered recurrence until proven otherwise

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63
Q

Eklund view (mammo)

A

implant-displaced view

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64
Q

Implant type with a valve

A

saline

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65
Q

Implant type that is semi-lucent

A

saline

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66
Q

US-guided core biopsy needle characteristics

A

14G, spring-loaded

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67
Q

Standard breast biopsy needle advances approximately ___ when fired

A

2 cm

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68
Q

US-guided cyst aspiration needle characteristics

A

18G or 20G needle (FNA)

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69
Q

Cyst aspirate should be sent for cytology if…

A

bloody; may discard clear, green, grey, yellow, or cloudy fluid (benign)

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70
Q

Complex cystic mass biopsy - FNA or core

A

core needle biopsy

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71
Q

Stereotactic biopsy needle characteristics

A

11G, vacuum-assisted

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72
Q

Components of the mammographic report

A

history/indication/risk factors, comparison studies, breast composition, findings, impression/BI-RADS/recommendation

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73
Q

Required annotation for US image

A

side (left/right), clock face position, distance from nipple, orientation of probe

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74
Q

Indications for breast MRI

A

high risk screening (>20-25% lifetime risk), extent of disease, axillary mets with unknown primary, diagnostic dilemmas, suspected silicone implant rupture, evaluate for recurrence, evaluate for margins after resection, follow response after neoadjuvant chemo

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75
Q

Triple negative cancers

A

ER, PR, and her2/neu negative; aggressive, bad prognosis; may show paradoxically benign features

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76
Q

Bilateral axillary lymphadenopathy DDx

A

collagen vascular disease, lymphoma, leukemia, rheumatoid arthritis, HIV

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77
Q

Multiple intraductal papillomas

A

tend to occur in younger patients than solitary papillomas; not typically assoc. with nipple discharge; increased risk of breast cancer

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78
Q

Multiple skin masses DDx

A

neurofibromas (NF1), steatocystoma multiplex

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79
Q

Angiosarcoma MRI characteristics

A

T2 hyperintense, intense enhancement

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80
Q

Mets to the breast

A

most frequently from melanoma > RCC; also consider contralateral breast cancer if that is an option on multiple choice

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81
Q

Contraindications to stereotactic needle biopsy

A

<3 cm breast tissue when compressed, far posterior or subareolar location, inability to be positioned on table, uncontrolled coagulopathy

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82
Q

Complicated cyst

A

contains low-level echoes or layering debris; can perform aspiration or follow with US (BR-3)

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83
Q

Complex cyst

A

cystic and solid components; solid component needs to be biopsied (BR-4)

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84
Q

Sclerosing adenosis

A

benign; diffusely scattered microcalcifications

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85
Q

Tail of Spence

A

axillary extension of breast tissue

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86
Q

Quadrant most breast cancers arise from

A

upper-outer (most densely populated with fibroglandular tissue)

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87
Q

Regions of breast with least fibroglandular tissues

A

lower-inner and retroglandular regions (“danger zones” = areas where cancer hides)

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88
Q

Breast asymmetry

A

normal, but consider a “shrinking breast” (ILC)

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89
Q

Where do most breast cancers start?

A

TDLU

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90
Q

Lactiferous sinus

A

dilated portion of major duct just deep to nipple

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91
Q

Major blood supply to the breast

A

internal mammary artery (medial)

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92
Q

Major lymphatic drainage of the breast

A

axillary (97% of drainage)

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93
Q

Level 1 axillary nodes

A

inferior-lateral to pectoralis minor

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94
Q

Level 2 axillary nodes

A

deep to pectoralis minor

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95
Q

Level 3 axillary nodes

A

superior-medial to pectoralis minor

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96
Q

Rotter nodes

A

between pectoralis major and minor

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97
Q

Sternalis muscle

A

5% of population, usually unilateral; seen on CC view only

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98
Q

Most common location for ectopic breast tissue

A

axilla > inframammary fold

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99
Q

Most common location for polythelia

A

axilla > inframammary fold

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100
Q

Best time in cycle for mammogram and MRI

A

day 7-14 (follicular phase); lowest BPE for MRI

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101
Q

Increased breast density - when?

A

luteal phase, 3rd trimester, HRT, prolactinoma, antipsychotics, weight loss, hypothyroidism, young age, diabetic mastopathy

102
Q

Lipoma appearance on US

A

appears isoechoic relative to fatty breast tissue

103
Q

Mets to internal mammary node

A

consider a medial breast cancer

104
Q

Peak time for breast pain and cyst formation (during life)

A

perimenopause

105
Q

Risk of breast biopsy while lactating

A

milk fistula; must stop breast feeding if fistula forms

106
Q

Technical adequacy

A

posterior nipple line touches pectoralis on MLO and within 1 cm on CC, no blur, nipple in profile on 1 view, inframammary fold should be seen

107
Q

Indications for LMO view

A

pacemaker/central line, pectus excavatum, kyphosis

108
Q

Which view includes the most breast tissue?

A

MLO

109
Q

Collimation on spot compression views?

A

leave the collimator open (for wide FOV)

110
Q

Choosing between an ML vs. LM view

A

last letter (detector side) should match lesion location on screening study; lateral => ML, medial => LM

111
Q

Skin thickening + trabecular thickening DDx

A

edema (CHF, renal failure, liver failure), radiation, mastitis, lymphatic obstruction, inflammatory breast cancer

112
Q

Recall rate benchmark

A

10%

113
Q

PPV1 benchmark

A

cancers in patients called back (BR-0, BR-3, BR-4, or BR-5); 4%

114
Q

PPV2 benchmark

A

cancers in patients recommended for biopsy (BR-4 or BR-5); 25%

115
Q

PPV3 benchmark

A

cancers in patients who underwent biopsy; 31%

116
Q

BI-RADS 4a

A

low suspicion for malignancy, >2 to ≤10%

117
Q

BI-RADS 4b

A

moderate suspicion for malignancy, >10 to ≤50%

118
Q

BI-RADS 4c

A

high suspicion for malignancy, >50 to <95%

119
Q

Multiple bilateral masses + NEXT STEP

A

BR-2; at least 2 in one breast and 1 in the other breast; do not need to US unless palpable

120
Q

Findings that can be BR-3 (mammo)

A

classic appearance for fibroadenoma, focal asymmetry, grouped punctate round calcifications; must be on baseline exam (NOT new)

121
Q

Breast composition (mammo)

A

entirely fat, scattered fibroglandular, heterogeneously dense, extremely dense

122
Q

Shape (mammo)

A

ROI - round, oval, irregular

123
Q

Margins (mammo)

A

COMIS - circumscribed, obscured, microlobulated, indistinct, spiculated

124
Q

Density (mammo)

A

fat density, hypodense, isodense, hyperdense; relative to breast parenchyma

125
Q

Global asymmetry

A

asymmetric amount of breast tissue density in only one breast; must involve >1 quadrant

126
Q

Developing asymmetry

A

focal asymmetry that is new or increased in size; at least BR-4 if it persists on compression and no benign US correlate

127
Q

Shape (US)

A

ROI - round, oval, irregular

128
Q

Margins (US)

A

CAMIS - circumscribed, angular, microlobulated, indistinct, spiculated

129
Q

Orientation (US)

A

parallel or anti-parallel

130
Q

Echo pattern (US)

A

anechoic, hypoechoic, isoechoic, hyperechoic, complex (cystic & solid), heterogeneous; relative to subcutaneous fat

131
Q

Posterior features (US)

A

none, shadowing, enhancement, combined pattern

132
Q

Background parenchymal enhancement (MRI)

A

minimal, mild, moderate, marked; based on first post-gad sequence

133
Q

NME - distribution (MRI)

A

focal, linear, segmental, regional, multi-regional, diffuse

134
Q

NME - enhancement pattern (MRI)

A

homogeneous, heterogeneous, clumped, clustered ring

135
Q

Mass - shape (MRI)

A

ROI - round, oval, irregular

136
Q

Mass - margins (MRI)

A

CIS - circumscribed, irregular, spiculated

137
Q

Mass - enhancement (MRI)

A

homogeneous, heterogeneous, rim enhancement, dark internal septations

138
Q

High density foci in axilla

A

deodorant

139
Q

Parallel linear calcifications

A

vascular calcifications

140
Q

DDx for amorphous calcifications

A

fibrocystic change, sclerosing adenosis, DCIS (low grade), columnar cell change

141
Q

DDx for coarse heterogeneous calcifications

A

fibroadenoma, papilloma, fibrocystic change, DCIS (low to intermediate grade)

142
Q

DDx for fine pleomorphic calcifications

A

DCIS (high grade), fibrocystic change, fibroadenoma, papilloma

143
Q

Enlarging lipoma - NEXT STEP

A

biopsy

144
Q

Steatocystoma multiplex

A

multiple oil cysts (intradermal)

145
Q

Do fat-containing lesions (on mammo) get an US?

A

no

146
Q

Benign myofibroblastic hyperplasia

A

a.k.a. PASH; well-circumscribed, solid mass

147
Q

Fibroadenoma MRI characteristics

A

T2 bright, dark internal septations, type I enhancement

148
Q

Breast mass that mets hematogenously

A

phyllodes tumor; 10% chance of malignant degeneration

149
Q

IDC subtype associated with radial scar

A

tubular (presents as a small spiculated mass)

150
Q

IDC subtype that is T2 bright

A

mucinous (a.k.a. colloid)

151
Q

IDC subtype that is complex cystic and solid

A

papillary; 2nd most common subtype (IDC NOS is 1st)

152
Q

IDC subtype associated with BRCA1

A

medullary; 25% have BRCA1

153
Q

Multifocal breast cancer

A

within same quadrant or within 5 cm

154
Q

Multicentric breast cancer

A

different quadrants AND >5 cm apart

155
Q

3 ways to show DCIS

A

fine linear branching or fine pleomorphic calcifications, NME on MRI, or multiple intraductal masses on galactography

156
Q

Architectural distortion without a central mass DDx

A

ILC, radial scar, surgical scar, IDC-NOS

157
Q

Inflammatory breast cancer

A

bad prognosis; dermal biopsy if not identifiable mass; Tx chemo/radiation before surgery

158
Q

Paget’s disease of the breast association

A

high-grade DCIS; NOT T4 (despite nipple involvement)

159
Q

Indications for MRI screening

A

BRCA mutation, 1st degree relative with BRCA but untested, lifetime risk >20-25%; radiation to chest b/w 10-30 y/o (>20 Gy), Li Fraumeni/Cowden/Bannayan-Riley syndrome + 1st degree relatives

160
Q

Reduction mammoplasty

A

nipple moves superiorly, glandular tissue moves inferior (with swirling)

161
Q

Age to start screening for BRCA patients

A

25-30 years old (varies based on guidelines)

162
Q

Age to start screening for patient with 1st degree relative with breast cancer

A

10 years before relative developed cancer or age 30, whichever comes LATER

163
Q

Age to start screening after chest radiation (b/w 10-30 y/o)

A

8 years after radiation treatment or at 25 y/o, whichever comes LATER

164
Q

Clinical symptoms worrisome for breast cancer

A

skin dimpling, focal skin thickening, nipple retraction

165
Q

Bilateral skin thickening

A

CHF, renal failure, liver failure

166
Q

Unilateral skin thickening

A

inflammatory breast cancer, prior radiation, lymphatic obstruction, mastitis/abscess

167
Q

Risk factors for mastitis

A

breastfeeding, smoking, diabetics

168
Q

Causes of milky discharge

A

thyroid issues, prolactinoma, antidepressants/neuroleptics/reglan

169
Q

Most common cause of benign nipple discharge in postmenopausal women

A

ductal ectasia; dilated ducts in subareolar region

170
Q

Contraindications to galactography

A

active infection, unable to express discharge at time of exam, contrast allergy, prior surgery to nipple-areola complex

171
Q

BI-RADS for architectural distortion

A

BR-4 (or BR-5 if other suspicious findings, e.g. mass); always biopsied

172
Q

Suspicious mass identified on US - NEXT STEP

A

scan the remainder of the radian and the axilla

173
Q

Indications for lymph node biopsy

A

cortical thickness of 3 mm or greater, loss of fatty hilum, irregular cortex or focal bulge, round shape

174
Q

High density material in lymph nodes

A

gold (prior TB Tx), tattoo, sarcoidosis, nodal met

175
Q

Most common pattern of gynecomastia

A

nodular (flame-shaped); others are dendritic and diffuse glandular

176
Q

Most common palpable findings in men

A

gynecomastia > lipoma

177
Q

Risk factors for male breast cancer

A

BRCA, Klinefelter’s, cirrhosis, chronic alcoholism

178
Q

Most common complication of implants

A

capsular contracture; contraction of fibrous capsule => cosmetic deformity; most common in pre-pectoral implants

179
Q

Gel bleed

A

“leakage” of silicone through implant (not ruptured); seen as snowstorm in a lymph node

180
Q

Keyhole sign

A

intracapsular implant rupture

181
Q

Mastopexy

A

breast lift (removal of skin)

182
Q

Peak time for recurrence after resection

A

4 years; occurs in 6-8% of patients following breast conservation therapy (higher without radiation)

183
Q

Specimen radiograph evaluation

A
  1. Are the mass/calcifications present? 2. Are the mass/calcifications at the edge?
184
Q

Breast cancer T-staging

A

T1 = <2 cm, T2 = 2-5 cm, T3 = >5 cm, T4 = any size with chest wall fixation, skin involvement, or inflammatory carcinoma

185
Q

Most important predictor of overall survival in breast cancer

A

axillary node status at diagnosis

186
Q

Most common met to breast

A

melanoma

187
Q

Contraindications to breast conservation therapy (lumpectomy + radiation)

A

inflammatory carcinoma, large size relative to breast, multicentric disease, prior radiation to same breast, contraindication to radiation (connective tissue diseases), early pregnancy, positive margins after reasonable surgical attempt

188
Q

Breast cancer types that present as a well-circumscribed mass

A

papillary, mucinous, medullary (“Peanut M&M’s”)

189
Q

Causes of gynecomastia

A

hormone-producing tumor (especially testicular), cirrhosis, marijuana, spironolactone, pituitary hormone dysfunction, anti-depressants

190
Q

New mass on MRI

A

BR-4 or BR-5 depending on characteristics => MR-guided biopsy

191
Q

New NME on MRI

A

BR-4 => MR-guided biopsy

192
Q

Second-look US

A

use US to search for finding identified on MRI prior to proceeding to MR-guided biopsy; US-guided biopsy preferred to MR-guided biopsy

193
Q

Amount of chest radiation between 10-30 y/o to justify MRI screening

A

20 Gy

194
Q

Effect of tamoxifen on breast MRI

A

decreased BPE, with rebound increased BPE after cessation

195
Q

Timing of early phase of enhancement (MRI)

A

within the first 2 minutes; slow, medium, rapid

196
Q

Timing of delayed phase of enhancement (MRI)

A

2-6 minutes; persistent (type I), plateau (type II), washout (type III)

197
Q

Enhancement kinetics warranting biopsy

A

type II or III

198
Q

Most predictive feature of malignancy (MRI)

A

spiculated margins

199
Q

Bilateral disease is more common with…

A

BRCA, ILC, multicentric disease

200
Q

Patient on HRT needing breast MRI

A

discontinue HRT for 1-3 months prior

201
Q

Multiple foci (MRI)

A

report as BPE (not a separate finding)

202
Q

ACS screening guidelines

A

annually from 45-55 y/o, every 2 years starting at 55 y/o; should continue while in good health and life expectancy is >10 years

203
Q

USPSTF screening guidelines

A

every 2 years starting at 50 y/o; continue until 74 y/o

204
Q

ACR screening guidelines

A

annually starting at 40 y/o; continue until life expectancy is less than 5-7 years

205
Q

BI-RADS meaning

A

Breast Imaging Reporting And Data System

206
Q

BRCA1 chromosome

A

17; most common type of BRCA

207
Q

BRCA2 chromosome

A

13

208
Q

Men should be evaluated with US before age…

A

25 y/o; mammo for older males

209
Q

Women should be evaluated with US before age…

A

30 y/o; mammo or US for women 30-39 y/o; mammo for women 40+ y/o

210
Q

Paget disease represents what histologically?

A

DCIS

211
Q

HER2/neu-specific treatment agents

A

trastuzumab, lapatinib

212
Q

Granulomatous mastitis

A

occurs after childbirth, non-infectious inflammation

213
Q

Periductal mastitis

A

a.k.a. plasma cell mastitis; produces secretory calcifications in post-menopausal women

214
Q

Diabetic mastopathy

A

sequelae of insulin-dependent diabetes; ill-defined, asymmetric increased density

215
Q

Definition of a mass (mammo)

A

space-occupying lesion with convex borders seen on two different projections

216
Q

BI-RADS for diffusely distributed punctate calcifications

A

BR-2

217
Q

Reduced compression view

A

for far posterior lesions that “slip out” of view with full compression

218
Q

Superficial cysts

A

epidermal inclusion cyst, sebaceous cyst; located completely within the echogenic dermis, may communicate with skin surface

219
Q

Findings that can be BR-3 (US)

A

complicated cyst, clustered microcysts, mass with fibroadenoma characteristics, hyperechoic mass with central hypoechogenicity (fat necrosis)

220
Q

Fibroadenolipoma

A

a.k.a. hamartoma

221
Q

Known lymphoma diagnosis + new breast mass

A

primary consideration is still breast cancer

222
Q

Male with clinical gynecomastia - NEXT STEP

A

nothing; no imaging required

223
Q

Benign lesions with type 3 kinetics

A

lymph nodes, adenosis, papillomas

224
Q

Rim enhancement

A

descriptor for masses in MRI; highly suspicious; benign mimics include peripheral enhancement of inflammatory cyst or fat necrosis

225
Q

Most common NME distribution of DCIS

A

segmental (triangular-shaped pointing towards nipple)

226
Q

Most common NME internal enhancement of DCIS

A

clumped (cobblestone pattern or “bunch of grapes”), especially in a linear or segmental distribution

227
Q

Susceptibility artifact on T1

A

calcifications, biopsy clips

228
Q

BI-RADS for mass or NME with benign morphology and enhancement kinetics (MRI)

A

BR-3

229
Q

Mass adjacent to vessel with type II or III enhancement kinetics

A

likely an intra-mammary lymph node (reniform shape)

230
Q

Syndromes assoc. with a high risk of breast cancer

A

BRCA 1/2, Li Fraumeni, Cowden, Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba, ataxia telangiectasia

231
Q

Lay report due within…

A

30 days

232
Q

MQSA requirements - CME

A

15 credit hours with last 3 years, 960 studies during the last 2 years

233
Q

MQSA requirements - initial certification (residency)

A

240 studies within a 6 month period during the last 2 years, 12 weeks of formal training, 60 hours of education

234
Q

Needle angle for US-guided biopsy

A

parallel to chest well

235
Q

Negative stroke margin + NEXT STEP

A

insufficient tissue thickness for stereotactic biopsy (<3 cm); next step is needle localization for excisional biopsy

236
Q

Breast phantom characteristics

A

50% glandular, 4.2 cm thick, 6 fibers/5 masses/5 specks

237
Q

Biopsy samples obtained - NEXT STEP

A

place marker clip then obtain orthogonal views to verify clip position

238
Q

Gad or no gad for MRI-guided biopsy?

A

almost always requires gadolinium

239
Q

Best approach for needle localization

A

shortest approach should be used

240
Q

Amount of contrast used in galactography

A

0.2-0.3 cc

241
Q

IDC subtype with best prognosis

A

tubular

242
Q

Digital mammo is superior to film screen for which patient groups?

A

women <50 y/o, women with dense breasts, peri-menopausal women

243
Q

Abscess treatment

A

aspiration + antibiotics

244
Q

Stuff males do NOT get

A

ILC/LCIS/ALH, fibroadenoma, phyllodes

245
Q

Complex sclerosing lesion definition

A

radial scar >1 cm

246
Q

Palpable diagnostic mammography views

A

CC + MLO + spot tangential, then US

247
Q

Minimum ultrasound probe frequency

A

10 MHz

248
Q

Benefits of tomosynthesis

A

decreases recall rate, increases sensitivity for small masses

249
Q

Stroke margin (definition)

A

distance from image receptor to tip of needle (post-fire); negative stroke margin => needle loc for excision

250
Q

Breast cancers detected from screening

A

2-8 cancers per 1000 women screened

AJT CORE (12 decks)

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