Control of gene expression Flashcards
a) What do aminoacyl tRNA synthetases catalyse
b) What do almost all transcripts in eukaryotic genes contain
c) In mRNA translation, where are peptide bonds formed
d) Give an example of a ribozyme
e) What do alternative splicing pathways generate
a) Catalyse the covalent attachment of amino acids to their corresponding tRNA molecules
b) Contain 5’ and 3’ untranslated regions
c) Formed at the A-site of the ribosome
d) Peptidyl transferase
e) Generate different mRNAs encoding distinct polypeptides
a) What can the activation domain of a transcription factor interact with
b) What do snRNPs contain
c) How are introns released
d) What are the splice site consensus sequences
e) In mRNA translation, what are amino acids activated by
a) Can interact with other transcription factors
b) Contain abundant small U-rich nuclear RNAs
c) Released as a lariat which is degraded
d) Consensus sequences are exon|GU…A…AG|exon
e) Activated by specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
a) Does accurate initiation require general transcription factors
b) What do co-activators do in transcriptional activation
c) What does DNA bending facilitate
d) How can histone modification regulate transcription
e) Is the TATA box sufficient for efficient transcription in vivo
a) Yes
b) Regulate transcription but do not bind directly to DNA
c) Facilitates control by elements located many kilobases from the promoter
d) Post-translational modification of histones regulates transcription
e) No
a) What can directly regulate gene expression (4)
b) Does the heat shock protein 90 kDa (HSP90) regulate gene expression
c) What experimental approach is most suitable to identify all DNA binding sites for a specific DNA-binding protein in the genome
d) What are riboswitches
e) How does the core RNA polymerase enzyme terminate transcription at rho-independent sites in prokaryotes
a) Enhancers, histone acetylases (HATs), histone deacetylases (HDACs), upstream regulatory elements (UREs)
b) No
c) Chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP)
d) RNA sequences that directly interact with small molecules to control translation
e) Core RNA polymerase enzyme terminates transcription due to a GC-rich hairpin and a run of Us in the RNA
a) In eukaryotes, what is transcription termination coupled to
b) In prokaryotes, what is the Pribnow box at -10 important for
c) What is TFIID
d) How does the glucocorticoid receptor bind to promoters
e) What occurs shortly after initiation of transcription by RNA polymerase II in the processing of eukaryotic mRNA
a) Coupled to mRNA polyadenylation
b) Is an important determinant of the start site of transcription
c) TFIID is a complex of TATA binding protein (TBP) and a number of other general transcription factors called TAFs
d) Binds to promoters as a dimer
e) 5’ addition of 7-methylguanosine
a) In the processing of eukaryotic mRNA, what is a key step for cleavage of pre-mRNA followed by polyadenylation
b) What is involved in splicing exons in pre-mRNA
c) What inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the 30S ribosomal subunit
d) What inhibits transcription by intercalating between the base pairs of double stranded DNA
e) What is linked to e-NH2 groups on lysines and enhances the rate of protein degradation
a) Protein binding to an AAUAAA sequence and a GU- or U-rich sequence
b) Attack by a branch point adenosine on a phosphate at the 5’ end of an intron
c) Tetracycline
d) Actinomycin D
e) Ubiquitin
a) What sort of element is TFIID
b) What is required for the synthesis of most rRNA precursors
c) What is a core promoter element
d) What function is activated by protein kinase A-mediated phosphorylation, initiated by elevated levels of cAMP
e) What is involved in initiation of transcription through formation of a pre-initiation complex (PIC)
a) General transcription factor
b) RNA polymerase I
c) TATA box
d) CREB
e) TFIID
a) Mutations in what transcription factor may inactivate its DNA-binding and tumour suppressor activity
b) What mediates binding of aminoacyl-tRNAs to the A-site
c) What is the consensus sequence in bacterial mRNAs recognised by the 30S ribosomal subunit
d) What permits one tRNA to read more than one codon
e) What is the initial step in mRNA degradation in eukaryotes
a) p53
b) Elongation factor protein Tu
c) Shine-Dalgarno motif
d) The wobble position
e) Deadenylation
a) What is the feature of the looped lariat in splicing
b) What is the nucleotide conversion in RNA editing reactions
c) In prokaryotic transcription, what is a group of genes controlled by the same regulatory sequences
d) What is the 5’ end of mRNA in prokaryotes
e) What is a lactose-responsive transcriptional regulator in prokaryotes
a) 2’-5’ phosphodiester bond
b) Hydrolytic deamination
c) Operon
d) 5’pppN
e) Lac repressor
a) What is a distinguishing feature of a lariat
b) What is the catalytic core of the spliceosome
c) What is the U1 snRNA binding site
a) 2’-5’ phosphodiester bond
b) U2 and U6 snRNAs
c) 5’ splice site
