Contract Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 elements need to be present for a binding contract?

A

Offer and acceptance

Intention to create legal relations

Consideration

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2
Q

What 2 elements need to be satisfied to show offer and acceptance?

A

Clear and certain offer displaying intention to be bound

Unequivocal acceptance

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3
Q

What test is applied to determine if there is an agreement between an offeror and offeree?

A

Objectively, what would the reasonable person say was the intention of the parties having regard to all circumstances

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4
Q

When is a unilateral contract deemed to be accepted?

A

When the act is performed

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5
Q

If a shop advertises saying special offer will that be an offer or invitation to treat?

A

Invitation to treat

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6
Q

Are goods displayed on shelves of a self-service store offers or invitation to treat?

A

Invitations

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7
Q

Are website displays offers or invitations to treat?

A

Invitations to treat

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8
Q

Is the act of inviting to tender an offer or an invitation?

A

Invitation

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9
Q

Is an invitation to tender, promising to accept the highest/lowest bid an offer or invitation?

A

Offer – it is a unilateral contract

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10
Q

What 3 conditions can be satisfied to show that an invitation to tender is actually an offer?

A
  1. Tenders are solicited from specified parties known to the requesting party
  2. Absolute deadline for submission
  3. Party requesting tenders had laid down absolute and non-negotiable conditions for submission
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11
Q

In auctions, when is the bidders offer deemed accepted?

A

Fall of hammer

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12
Q

In auctions, when can an offer be revoked?

A

Before the fall of the hammer

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13
Q

How many contracts are there in an auction without reserve and what are they?

A
  1. Bidder makes offer, accepted by hammer
  2. Unilateral contract based on promise that auction is without reserve and goods go to highest bona fide bidder (no matter how low)
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14
Q

What is a bidder entitled to if it is an auction without reserve and the auctioneer does not give them the goods/say there is an offer?

A

Damages from auctioneer

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15
Q

How can offers come to an end?

A

Rejected

Lapses

Revoked

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16
Q

What happens if there is no counter offer but an acceptance of an offer on an offerees terms?

A

It will be deemed a counter-offer and will still negate the OG offer

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17
Q

When does revocation of an offer take effect?

A

When the offeree has actual notice

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17
Q

Is an offer revoked in communication by a third party valid?

A

Yes

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17
Q

When will death lapse an offer?

A

If the offeree knows the offeror has died

The death of the offeree – offer can’t be accepted by oferee’s representatives

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18
Q

When can a unilateral offer be revoked?

A

B4 act is complete

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19
Q

What happens if a unilateral offer has been part-performed?

A

It’ll probably be upheld and there is an implied obligation not to revoke the offer once performance has commenced

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20
Q

How can revocation be effected for a unilateral offer if its impossible to know who all the offerees are?

A

Must take reasonable steps to bring to the attention of all those who have read the offer

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21
Q

What are the 4 elements for defining whether there has been a valid acceptance?

A

Acceptance is in response to the offer

Acceptance is unqualified

Necessary prescribed mode of acceptance is followed

Acceptance must be communicated

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22
Q

Can you accept an offer that was not addressed to you?

A

No

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23
Q

What will a qualified offer likely be?

A

A counter offer

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24
Q

What is needed to make a prescribed mode of acceptance hold?

A

It has to be very clearly mandatory or else any mode of acceptance that is no less advantageous to the offeror will bind them

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25
Q

Can silence indicate acceptance if the offer indicates that it will?

A

No

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26
Q

When does acceptance take place under the postal rule?

A

The moment the letter is properly posted

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27
Q

In what circumstances are there exceptions to the postal rule?

A

Is not contemplated that post would be used

Letter is incorrectly addressed

Offeror disapplied the postal rule

To letters revoking offers

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28
Q

When is acceptance effective with instant communications?

A

When received by the offeror

Offeror can be prevented from denying receipt of communication if they are at fault for the non-receipt

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29
Q

When can a third party accept an offer for the offeree?

A

With authority of the offeree

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30
Q

When is a letter properly posted?

A

When in the official letter box or the hands of the postal operative

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31
Q

Does the postal rule apply if the letter is lost in the post?

A

Yes

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32
Q

When will it not be contemplated that post would be used?

A

If using the post was not reasonable

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33
Q

When is an email deemed received?

A

When in the server of the other person during their ordinary office hours

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34
Q

What is the requirement of certainty?

A

Only contracts where the material terms are certain and complete can be binding

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35
Q

What is the test to establish certainty?

A

In all circumstances, have the parties agreed all the terms they considered to be a precondition to creating legal relations

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36
Q

What does it mean that consideration must not be past?

A

Cannot generally have taken place prior to the promise to pay

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37
Q

What does it mean that consideration must move from the promisee?

A

Party who has not provided consideration may not bring an action to enforce a contract

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38
Q

What does it mean that consideration need not be adequate?

A

Court will not assess adequacy of the consideration

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39
Q

What does it mean that consideration must be sufficient?

A

Must have some value in the eyes of the law

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40
Q

What is executory consideration?

A

Promise to perform something in future, after the contract has been made

Deliver goods and pay on delivery (at time of agreement, neither party has done anything yet)

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41
Q

What is executed consideration?

A

Time of forming contract, consideration has already been performed

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42
Q

What 4 things should you examine when looking at whether there is adequate consideration?

A

Not be past

Need not be adequate

Must move from the promisee

Must be sufficient

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43
Q

What are criteria for the exception to consideration must be past rule?

A
  1. Act was done at promisors request
  2. Parties understood the act was to be rewarded by payment or conferment of some other benefit (AGREED OR IMPLIED)
  3. Payment/benefit would be legally enforceable had it been promised in advance
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44
Q

In what types of context is there an issue with consideration moving from the promisee?

A

When a contract is for the 3rd parties benefit, who then tries to enforce

But they were not party to the original contract that was for their benefit (e.g., parent buying something for their adult child)

A party who has not provided consideration may not bring an action to enforce the contract.

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45
Q

How is a variation of contract effected?

A

Must be the same elements as creating an original contract

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46
Q

Are existing obligations good consideration for a new contract?

A

No

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47
Q

When can existing obligations be good consideration for a new contract?

A

If it confers some practical benefit

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48
Q

Is carrying out a public duty enforced by law good consideration?

A

No

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49
Q

Is a promise to do something which a party is obliged to do pursuant to a contractual obligation to a third party good consideration?

A

Yes

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50
Q

Is agreement to part payment of a debt good consideration?

A

Usually not

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51
Q

What is factual consideration?

A

When nothing new is being promised, but the party is still getting something out of the reshaped deal

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52
Q

What are the 6 criteria for establishing factual consideration?

A
  1. There is an existing contract for goods or services for payment
  2. B has reason to believe A can’t complete his side of the bargain
  3. B promises additional payment to perform contractual obligation on time
  4. B obtains a benefit or obviates a disbenefit
  5. Promise isn’t given under economic duress or fraud
  6. Benefit is capable of being consideration and legally binding
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53
Q

How can you have good consideration for part-payment of a debt?

A

If other things are varied in the contract too to provide additional consideration e.g.,

Pay at different time

Pay with smth different than money

Pay at a different place

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54
Q

Is it enforceable if a creditor accepts a 3rd party payment of a lesser sum in satisfaction of a debtors obligation?

A

Yes, the debtor can then no longer be sued for the difference

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55
Q

What famous case illustrates a departure from Williams/Roffey in terms of a promise to accept less?

A

MWB

Offering delayed rental payments for a tenant because the practical benefit is no vacant property

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56
Q

Is promissory estoppel a defence or cause of action?

A

Defence

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57
Q

What is required for promissory estoppel to operate?

A

Clear and unequivocal promise or representation that existing legal rights will not be fully enforced

Promisee relied on that promise

It would be inequitable for promisor to go back on their promise

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58
Q

Can you sue someone for not keeping their promise?

A

No

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59
Q

Can a promise in promissory estoppel be implied?

A

Yes

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60
Q

When is intention to create legal relations presumed?

A

Commercial contracts

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61
Q

When is there a presumption against intention to create legal relations?

A

Social/domestic agreements

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62
Q

What is the effect of the wording ‘subject to contract’ creating a strong interference for?

A

That parties do not intend to be bound until the formal execution of a contract

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63
Q

Is the presumption of intention to be bound only B2B contracts or also B2C?

A

Also B2C

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64
Q

When do people lack capacity to contract?

A

Drunkenness

Under 18 (*there are exceptions)

Mental capacity act

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65
Q

When are adults lacking capacity still bound by their contracts?

A

Paying a reasonable price for necessaries

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66
Q

What is the sequence to consider when examining whether a minor is bound by a contract?

A
  1. Does the contract concern necessaries?

IF NO

  1. Is it a contract of employment, apprenticeship or education?

IF NO

Child is not bound

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67
Q

How are necessaries defined?

A

Essentials: food, clothes, medicine, accommodation, clothing

For the minors ‘real use’ as long as they are not produces and services for comfort or pleasure only

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68
Q

How does the definition for necessaries vary person to person?

A

Considering age

Considering specific needs and actual requirements

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69
Q

What does it mean that a contract has to be for a minors benefit?

A

It can’t be a disadvantageous contract e.g.,

Onerous

No clear benefit

Restriction of freedom

Ambiguous terms for payment of wages

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70
Q

In what way are contracts with minors that aren’t under an exception enforceable?

A

Minors can enforce against the adult

Adult can’t enforce against the minor

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71
Q

How can a contract with a minor become binding?

A

If they ratify it when 18

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72
Q

Can drunkeness mean lack of capacity?

A

Yes

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73
Q

What 2 criteria must be satisfied for a person claiming lack of capacity to succeed?

A

They did not understand what they were doing

Other party knew that to be the case

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74
Q

What is the effect on the enforceability of a contract entered into under duress?

A

It is voidable

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75
Q

What are the 3 types of duress?

A

To person

To property

Economic duress

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76
Q

What constitutes duress to a person?

A

Actual or threatened violence

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77
Q

What constitutes threat to property?

A

Threat to seize or damage it

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78
Q

What criteria are there for establishing economic duress?

A

Lack of practical choice as to whether to enter/vary the contract

Caused by illegitimate pressure

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79
Q

What is the proper remedy for duress?

A

Voided

Rescission

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80
Q

Who has the burden of proof for duress to the person?

A

The person being accused of duress has to prove that their violence contributed nothing to the victims decision to contract

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81
Q

How much influence does the duress have to have on the influence to enter the contract?

A

It is at least 1 factor influencing the decision

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82
Q

What is the threshold to establish duress for duress to goods?

A

But for the duress, agreement would not have been entered into

Lower than for duress to person

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83
Q

What are the 3 ingredients for actionable economic duress?

A

Illegitimate pressure

Lack of practical choice

Is a significant cause inducing the claimant to enter the contract

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84
Q

What is the remedy for voidable contracts in general?

A

Rescission

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85
Q

When will rescission no longer be available?

A

After duress has ceased, innocent party does not challenge in a timely way or acts in compliance with its terms

Contract is affirmed

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86
Q

What 4 things will the court consider when examining whether there has been economic duress?

A

If there was actual or threatened breach of contract

Where the party exerting the pressure did so in good or bad faith

Whether the victim protested

Whether the victim affirmed after the duress ceased

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87
Q

When does undue influence arise?

A

When there was a relationship of influence or ascendancy and an abuse of that decision

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88
Q

For which relationships is there an irrebuttable presumption of influence?

A

parent/minor child

client/solicitor

trustee/beneficiary

guardian/ward

dr/pt

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89
Q

What characteristic does a transaction have to have to establish undue influence?

A

A transaction that requires explanation

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90
Q

What is the difference between duress and undue influence?

A

Duress developed in common law

Undue influence in equity

Primary difference is relationship of trust

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91
Q

What is the test for undue influence?

A

Transaction was produced in such a way that the consent ought not fairly to be treated as the expression of their free will

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92
Q

What 2 types of pressure can amount to undue influence?

A

Overt acts of improper pressure or coercion

Relationship of influence/ascendancy of which unfair advantage is taken

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93
Q

If there is an overt act of improper pressure that was deceitful/fraudulent, then what is the causation test?

A

Same as duress to person

Only necessary to establish that undue influence was 1 factor

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94
Q

If there is an overt act of improper pressure that is not deceitful/fraudulent then what test applies?

A

But for the behaviour, would the innocent party have entered the contract

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95
Q

What is the most common relationship of ascendancy resulting in undue influence claims?

A

Husband/business owner wants wife to agree to use home as collateral

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96
Q

Who has the burden of proof for undue influence?

A

The party alleging it was a victim

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97
Q

What must the undue influence victim prove?

A

That there was a relationship of trust and confidence

Transaction that requires explanation

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98
Q

When will a gift require explanation?

A

Very large and unreasonable on ground of friendship, relationship, charity or other ordinary motives

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99
Q

When undue influence is exerted by a third-party, when can undue influence render contract set aside?

A

When the contractor had notice of the undue influence

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100
Q

When is a bank deemed to have constructive notice of undue influence?

A

When relationship between the party giving the guarantee and the borrower is non-commercial

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101
Q

How can a bank protect itself when on notice of undue influence?

A

Take reasonable steps to warn the weaker party of the risks

Ensure weak party gets independent advice

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102
Q

When a spouse is offering a guarantee for a matrimonial home, is that a transaction requiring explanation?

A

Not automatically

They have to show how spouses influence was used unduly

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103
Q

When will a creditor be on notice of undue influence?

A

X offers to stand surety for her husbands debts:

  1. transaction does not on the face benefit X
  2. substantial risk that in procuring X to act as surety, husband commits a legal or equitable wrong
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104
Q

What 3 points dictate the banks obligations and rights when working with a solicitor advising the person offering surety in an undue influence case?

A
  1. Can rely on solicitors confirmation that advice was given unless on notice that not true
  2. Must give solicitor enough information that transaction can be fully explained
  3. If creditor is aware of active misleading, must inform the solicitor
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105
Q

What advice does a solicitor have to give a wife in an undue influence scenario?

A

Explanation of documents and consequences - risks

Seriousness of risk, duration and terms of agreement in relation to all assets and means

Fact that the wife has a choice

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106
Q

What are express terms?

A

Statements made

Intention to be bound

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107
Q

What are implied terms?

A

Law determines that these exist

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108
Q

What 3 types of statements can be made when negotiating a contract?

A

Puff

Representations

Terms

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109
Q

What does an untrue statement in a term of a contact amount to?

A

Breach of contract

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110
Q

When will a representation be a term?

A

If the parties consider it binding

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111
Q

What will the courts consider to decide whether a representation is a term?

A

Importance of statement

Timing

Reduction of contract into writing

Special knowledge and skill of person making the statement

Assumption of responsibility by person making the statement

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112
Q

What factor is important in deciding how important a statement was when distinguishing whether it was a representation or term?

A

Whether the contract would have been entered into or not

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113
Q

What factors are considered when examining time for the purposes of distinguishing a term from a representation?

A

Statements made at the time of contracting are more likely terms

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114
Q

How long between the statement and signing has been held to be a representation not a term?

A

A week

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115
Q

Why does reduction to writing make a statement more likely to be a term?

A

Cause if it is important you write it down

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116
Q

How can terms be incorporated into a contract?

A

Notice

Course of dealing

Conversations/emails

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117
Q

What is the main way contracts show intention to be bound?

A

Signing them

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118
Q

What is the effect of an entire agreement clause?

A

Means anything other than what is in the agreement is not in the contract

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119
Q

Does signing a document which wasn’t intended to have contractual effect demonstrate an intention to be bound?

A

No

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120
Q

What must be fulfilled for incorporation by notice to be effective?

A

Reasonable steps have to have been taken to bring the notice to a claimants intention

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121
Q

What threshold of notice is required to incorporate terms which are particularly adverse to the other party?

A

‘Printed in red ink with a red hand pointing to it’

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122
Q

Can a term be incorporated by notice after the contract is made?

A

No

BEFORE OR AT THE TIME OF CONTRACTING

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123
Q

What is the exception to incorporation by notice after the time of contracting?

A

When there was a previous course of dealing if not specified in this particular transaction might be inferred from the past

124
Q

What would violate the incorporation by dealing notice?

A

If dealings in the past were inconsistent

125
Q

Would 3 or 4 transactions over 5 years be sufficiently consistent course of dealing?

126
Q

On what 2 bases can terms be implied?

A

Fact and law

127
Q

When can terms be implied in fact?

A

Basis of custom or course of dealing

To give business efficacy to contract

128
Q

When can terms be implied by law?

A

Common law

Policy

Some relationships

Statutes

129
Q

Will courts imply a term contrary to an express term in the contract?

130
Q

What is the test for implying a term for business efficacy?

A

Without implying the term, the arrangement would be so unworkable that sensible people could not be supposed to have entered into it

131
Q

What terms does the Sale of Goods Act 1979 imply?

A

Seller has the right to sell the goods

Goods comply with description

Goods are of satisfactory quality

Goods are suitable for any purpose made known to the seller

Goods comply with any sample

132
Q

To whom does the Sale of Goods Act 1979 apply?

A

Businesses only

133
Q

What type of term is it in SGA 1979 that the seller has title to sell?

A

A condition

134
Q

What rights are given for breach of condition?

A

Terminate

Affirm and claim damages

135
Q

What type of term is it that goods must comply with their description?

A

A condition

136
Q

What is the test for satisfactory quality?

A

A reasonable person would regard them as satisfactory taking account of any description of the goods, price and other circumstances

137
Q

What factors are considered when examining whether goods are of satisfactory quality?

A

Fitness for purposes which commonly supplied

Appearance and finish

Freedom from minor defects

Safety

Durability

138
Q

What are the exceptions to the implied term of satisfactory quality?

A

Defects drawn to buyers attention before contracting

Buyer examined the goods prior to purchase and the defect ought to have been revealed

139
Q

When is fitness for a particular purpose engaged?

A

When a buyer expressly or impliedly makes their intention with the goods known

140
Q

What are the exceptions to fitness for particular purpose?

A

Circumstances show buyer does not rely, or it is unreasonable for him to rely on the sellers skill or judgement

141
Q

What type of term is it if goods don’t correspond with sample?

142
Q

When will a breach of sample correspondence, match condition and title to sell not bring rights to remedies?

A

If the breach is so slight it would be unreasonable to repudiate the contract

143
Q

Can implied terms in SGA 1979 be excluded?

A

Yes, to the extent not limited

But UCTA significantly limits them

144
Q

How does UCTA limit exclusion of SGA 1979?

A

Title to sell cannot be excluded or restricted

Others can be subject to reasonableness

145
Q

What does s12 say in SGA 1979?

A

Title to sell

146
Q

What does 13(1) say in SGA 1979?

A

Correspond to description

147
Q

What does s14(2) say in SGA 1979?

A

Satisfactory quality

148
Q

What does s14(3) say in SGA 1979?

A

Fit for implied or express purpose

149
Q

What does s 15 SGA 1979 say?

A

Bulk of goods must correspond with sample

150
Q

What terms does the Supply of Goods and Services Act 1982 imply?

A

Services will be carried out with reasonable care and skill

151
Q

What types of transactions does the Supply of Goods and Services 1982 imply terms into?

A

Some contracts for transfer of property in goods

Contract for hire of goods

Contracts for supply of services

152
Q

Does SGSA 1982 apply to consumer contracts?

153
Q

What terms does the SGSA 82 imply into contracts for transfer of property in goods and contracts for hire of goods?

A

Effectively the same as in SGA 79

154
Q

Define contract for transfer of goods under SGSA

A

Ownership of goods is changing hands other than:

Contract for sale of goods
Hire/purchase agreement
Trading goods in exchange for trading stamps
Transfer by deed when there is no consideration other than presumed consideration
Contract intended to operate by way of security

155
Q

What terms are implied into contracts for the hire of goods under SGSA 82?

A

Rights against hirer selling

Hired goods match description

Quality/fitness for purpose

Matching sample

156
Q

What terms are implied for supply of services under SGSA 82?

A

Care and skill

Time of performance (if not fixed in the contract)

Consideration for a reasonable charge (if price left to be determined after performance)

157
Q

What is the difference between sale of goods and contracts for transfer of property in goods?

158
Q

What contracts does CRA 2015 apply to?

A

Consumer:
contracts for goods
contracts for digital content
contracts for services

159
Q

What terms does CRA 2015 imply into goods?

A

quality

fit for known purpose

comply with description

160
Q

What terms does CRA 2015 imply into digital content?

A

quality

purpose

description

161
Q

What term does CRA 2015 imply into contracts for services?

A

care and skill

reasonable time (where hasn’t been fixed)

reasonable price (when one wasn’t agreed)

162
Q

What are the remedies for contracts for goods under CRA 2015?

A

Short term right to reject

Right to repair or replacement

Right to price reduction OR final right to reject

163
Q

How long is the short-term right to reject goods under CRA?

A

30 days from

Ownership passing

Goods being delivered

Goods have been installed and consumer notified

164
Q

When is right to price reduction or final rejection exercisable?

A

After repair/replacement goods still don’t conform

Repair/replacement is not possible/is disproportionate

Consumer required repair/replacement, but trader didn’t do so within significant time or without significant inconvenience to the consumer

165
Q

Under CRA for breach of quality, fitness, description can contract be treated as at an end?

A

No, only to the extent set out in the act (e.g., failed replacement or repair)

166
Q

What remedies are available in CRA for digital content?

A

Repair/replacement

Price reduction

167
Q

When is a price reduction available for digital content under CRA?

A

Consumer cannot require repair or replacement

Trader fails to replace/repair without significant inconvenience to the consumer

168
Q

What is the deadline for a trader to provide a refund under CRA for digital services?

169
Q

Can traders impose a fee for a refund under CRA for digital services?

170
Q

What 4 criteria must be fulfilled to be entitled to repair/compensation for damage caused to device by digital content?

A

Trader supplies content to consumer under contract

Digital content damages the device or other digital content

Device/content damaged belonged to the consumer

Damage would not have occurred if the trader had exercised reasonable care and skill

171
Q

What are the remedial options allowed under CRA for services?

A

Require repeat performance

Price reduction

172
Q

When can a consumer not require repeat performance?

A

If completion in conformity with the contract is impossible

173
Q

What 3 classifications of term is there?

A

Conditions

Warranties

Innominate terms

174
Q

What remedy is available for breach of condition?

A

Terminate contract

175
Q

If the party breaches a warranty, what remedy is available?

A

Sue for damages

176
Q

What is an innominate term?

A

Neither a condition or warranty, is in the middle

177
Q

What remedies are available for innominate term breaches?

A

Minor effect – damages

Serious consequences – repudiate and claim damages

178
Q

Can the innocent party still get damages if they affirm the contract after a breach of condition?

179
Q

What is a condition?

A

Goes to the root of the contract

180
Q

What is the test for deciding if something is a condition?

A

Whether the parties intended, at the time of contracting, that a breach of the relevant term could result in the innocent party terminating

181
Q

What is the test from Hong Kong Fir, to determine whether an innominate term should be treated as a condition or a warranty?

A

Does the breach deprive the party not in default of substantially the whole benefit which it was intended that he should obtain from the contract?

182
Q

What are the steps to the procedure or approach that should be followed when trying to classify terms?

A
  1. Does statute classify it?
  2. Did the parties classify it?
  3. Previous judicial decisions
  4. Apply other tests
    - root of contract
    - hong kong fir
183
Q

What is a repudiatory breach?

A

A breach that is of a condition

184
Q

What 3 points need to be considered when examining whether a party can rely on an exemption clause?

A

Is it properly incorporated?

Construction

Statutory controls

185
Q

What happens if there is ambiguity in the exemption clause?

A

Resolved against the party seeking reliance

186
Q

When is a court less likely to read a clause contra-proferentum?

A

Equal bargaining power

187
Q

What is the most important point of construction when seeking to exclude reliability resulting from own negligence?

A

Clear words, negligence itself is used or a close synonym

188
Q

What must the wording of the exemption clause contain to be valid?

A

Exempt from the BREACH and LOSS

189
Q

What process should be followed to apply UCTA 77?

A

Identify the breach

Identify the relevant section of UCTA

Identify effect on the exemption clause

190
Q

Does UCTA apply to consumers?

191
Q

Does UCTA allow exclusion for death or PI?

192
Q

To what extent does UCTA allow restriction of liability for negligence?

A

Reasonableness

193
Q

To what extent does UCTA allow exclusion/limitation of breaches of S13-15 SGA 79?

A

Reasonableness

194
Q

To what extent does UCTA allow limitations of liability for breach of contract?

A

Negotiated contract: UCTA does not apply

Reference to standard terms: valid if reasonable

195
Q

Where general/standard terms have been negotiated, will the courts treat them as standard or negotiated terms?

A

Standard

Implication is that the exemption clause it self would have to be negotiated

196
Q

What is UCTAs reasonableness test?

A

Fair and reasonable to include having regard to the circumstances which were or ought reasonably to have been known to or in the contemplation of the parties when the contract was made

197
Q

What 5 guidelines to reasonableness does UCTA provide?

A

Bargaining power

Whether customer received an inducement to agree to the term

Customer knew or ought to have known about the existence and extent of the term

If term excludes/restricts liability if the condition was not complied with, whether it was reasonable at the time of contract to** expect that compliance was practicabl**e

Whether goods were manufactured, processed or adapted to the special order of the customer

198
Q

How much precedential value to previous decisions about reasonableness in UCTA have?

A

little, because the tests/factors are so vague

Reasonableness under UCTA is somewhat judicial discretion

199
Q

What limitation of liability terms are not binding on the consumer under CRA?

A

Death/personal injury

Stat implied terms under s9/10/11 (goods), s34,35,36 (digital content), s49 (services)

200
Q

What limitation of liability is allowed about any term that isn’t limitation of stat implied terms, death/PI and transparent terms about contract/price?

A

Not binding if contrary to good faith and causes imbalance in rights and obligations to the detriment of the consumer

201
Q

Can transparent and prominent terms be assessed for fairness by the court?

202
Q

What attempts to limit liability for a service is allowed in CRA?

A

Limitations will not be binding if they prevent the recovery of price paid (refund)

203
Q

What is the effect of an operative mistake?

A

Is void

Had no legal effect from the outset

204
Q

What are the 3 categories of operative mistake?

A

common

mutual

unilateral

205
Q

What are the 2 types of common mistake and their effect on the contract?

A

Both parties suffer from same misapprehension

Existence of the subject matter: void unless contract impliedly/expressly allocates this risk

Fact or quality fundamental to the agreement: void only in the most severe instances

206
Q

What is a mutual mistake and its effect?

A

Both parties are mistaken, as to different things, negotiated at cross purposes

Will be void

207
Q

What is the effect and definition of a unilateral mistake?

A

There is a mistake and one party knows or is deemed to know

Void, but hard to show in face2face transactions

208
Q

Will a mistake as to the quality of goods be an operative mistake?

A

No, not even if utility is effected

209
Q

In what 3 circumstances will mistake not operate?

A

Mistake is not sufficiently fundamental

One party is at fault

Contract makes provision for the issue

210
Q

What is the test for mutual mistake?

A

What a reasonable 3rd party would believe the agreement to be based on the words and conduct of the parties

If you can’t find one, void for mistake

211
Q

When is a unilateral mistake of non est factum arising?

A

Blind, illiterate, senile

Trick, fraudulent misrep to sign, provided all reasonable precautions were taken b4 signing

212
Q

What is the presumption in a face2face contract of unilateral mistake for identity?

A

That the person intended to deal with that person in front of them

213
Q

How is the face2face assumption rebuttable?

A

Identity, not attributes was of vital importance

214
Q

What about parties contracting through correspondence?

A

Mistaken identity likely to be void

215
Q

What is the trio of conditions the court will consider when deciding whether to provide remedies for an illegal contracts?

A

Underlying purpose of the prohibition transgressed and whether purpose is enhanced by denial of claim

Other relevant public policy that denial will have an impact on

Whether denial would be proportionate to the illegality, bearing in mind that punishment is for the criminal courts

216
Q

Can you assign rights, benefits or both under a contract?

A

Benefits, if the contract permits it

217
Q

What should you do if a third-party can’t bring a claim in contract?

A

Consider a claim in tort

218
Q

What are the common law methods of circumventing the doctrine of privity of contract?

A

Agency

Assignment

Collateral contract

Actions in Tort

Other judicial attempts to avoid the doctrine

219
Q

What are the 3 requirements to develop a relationship of agency in contract?

A

Principal named, is clear is acting on somebody else’s behalf

Agent should be authorised to act as agent (frequently scope will be limited)

Consideration has moved from the principal

220
Q

Can a contractual assignee sue the original party for breach?

221
Q

What can an assignee acquire from the contract?

A

No more than the OG benefit

Not the burden

222
Q

What is the collateral contract exception to privity of contract?

A

Court implies a contract between x and a third-party when there are very close ties of benefit and burden

223
Q

Why can a claim in tort instead of contract be a good option for some third parties?

A

DOC can be imposed

224
Q

Under the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999, when will a third party have a right to enforce a term of a contract?

A

Where the contract states it should

Where the contract purports to confer a benefit on it, unless it appears the parties didn’t intend it to be enforceable

225
Q

Does a third party have to exist on creation of the contract for there to be a benefit conferred under statute?

A

No, e.g., unborn child

226
Q

What does the term ‘purports to confer a benefit’ give rise to under statute for third-party enforceability of contracts?

A

An assumption that the third-party can enforce unless this is rebutted by examining the contract

227
Q

Can third parties deriving rights under statute rely on exemption and limitation clauses?

228
Q

How do third-party rights alter the flexibility/variability of a contract?

A

The parties cannot alter the contract in a way that affects the third party without consent if:

Third party has communicated his asset to the term to the promisor

Promisor is aware that the third party has relied on the term

Promisor can reasonably be expected to have foreseen that the third-party would rely on the term

229
Q

Can the parties contract out the requirement for third party consent?

230
Q

When can the courts dispense with third party consent?

A

Unknown whereabouts

Mentally incapable of consent

Reliance on term cannot be reasonably ascertained

*CAN impose conditions, e.g., compensation

231
Q

In what 5 ways can a contract be discharged?

A

Performance

Expiry

Agreement

Breach

Frustration

232
Q

What are the 4 exceptions to a contract being discharged by performance?

A

Party accepts partial performance, other party is entitled to payment for the partial performance (quantum meruit)

One party substantially performed contract, may be entitled to contract price subject cost of remedying defect

Party entitled to payment of a party of a divisible contract

Party prevented from completing performance by other partys default, can sue for damages of breach and claim quantum meruit

233
Q

What is the entire obligations rule?

A

A contract is only discharged if the entirety of the obligation is discharged

This is interpreted very strictly - NO MONEY, if ALL the obligations aren’t performed.

234
Q

What are the exceptions to the entire obligations rule?

A

Acceptance of partial performance

Substantial performance

Divisible obligations

Wrongful prevention of performance

235
Q

When will the court consider when examining whether a contract has been substantially performed?

A

When the defects and omissions do not go to the root of the contract

The cost of repair vs overall cost of the contract

236
Q

What is the defence for failure to perform the contract?

A

Tender of performance

The claimant refused performance of the terms of the contract and then tried to sue

237
Q

How can parties discharge a contract by agreement?

A

Enter a new contract, supported by consideration or effected by deed

238
Q

What is a condition precedent?

A

A condition of the contract stating that a condition must be satisfied before rights come into existence… prevents contract from being binding

239
Q

What is a condition subsequent

A

Term provides for termination of the contract and discharge of obligations outstanding under the contract upon the happening of a specific event

240
Q

Is the consideration of waiving rights under a previous contract good enough to discharge the OG contract?

A

Only if neither party has fully performed their obligations

241
Q

What is accord for satisfaction?

A

Both contractual parties agree to release the other from obligations under a contract

242
Q

How can you achieve accord for satisfaction when one party has completed its full obligation?

243
Q

What rights does an innocent party have when there is an anticipatory breach?

A

Has the right to accept ‘renunciation’ and treat the contract as terminated

244
Q

What can the innocent party claim for after a repudiatory breach?

A

The breach losses

Loss of the contract as a whole

245
Q

What are the 2 limitations on the ability to affirm?

A

Co-operation of breaching party is required

Innocent party has no legit interest financial or otherwise in continuing

246
Q

What is required to show affirmation?

A

Communicated clear and unequivocal commitment to continue the contract

247
Q

What is discharge by frustration?

A

Without default of either party, a contractual obligation has become incapable of being performed because the circumstances in which performance is called for would render it radically different

248
Q

What are the 3 most common ways discharge by frustration occurs?

A

Performance is impossible

Performance is illegal

Parties common purpose is frustrated

249
Q

What is a frustrating event not?

A

Caused by the default of a party

Provided for in the contract

Merely an increase in expense/onerousness

Something the parties could reasonably have contemplated

250
Q

What is the definition of frustration?

A

Without default of either party

Contract has become incapable of being performed because circumstances in which performance is called for render it a thing radically different to that which was undertaken in the contract

It was not something promised to do

251
Q

What case law examples dictated events when frustration would be impossible/unavailable?

A

Hired venue is physically destroyed

Machine repair contract frustrated by fire destruction of whole factory

Musician is ill and can’t perform

Unavailable ship for charter party because was contracted elsewhere for 5/12mo of the contract

252
Q

What was the example for frustration by illegality?

A

Delivering items to enemy occupied Poland in WW2

253
Q

What criteria (1) must there be for frustration of purpose to apply?

A

It frustrated the JOINT purpose of both parties

254
Q

What was the case law example of frustration of purpose THAT WAS upheld?

A

Hiring a room to view king procession which was then cancelled

*very narrowly decided

255
Q

What 2 examples of frustration of purpose were NOT upheld?

A

Booking a cruise for a cancelled naval show when the cruise could still go ahead

Getting out of rent because of Brexit

256
Q

What is a force majeure clause?

A

A clause that states what will happen to a contractual relationship if there are natural disasters etc

257
Q

Does frustration happen automatically?

258
Q

In frustration, can money paid before frustrating even be recovered?

259
Q

What discretionary power does the court have regarding allowing a party to retain funds after frustration?

A

For expenses incurred in attempting to perform the contract

260
Q

What must the court do if a party received a non-monetary benefit before frustration occurred?

A

Identify value of benefit

Make an assessment of a just sum to be paid for that benefit

261
Q

What is the cap that the court can award to keep if a contract was frustrated?

A

The cost in the contract itself

262
Q

Who has the burden of proof when seeking to retain or recover expenses after frustration?

A

The person trying to get the money

263
Q

How much discretion does the court have when deciding how to allocate money after frustration?

A

Very broad

Case by case

264
Q

What are the 2 main ways of calculating damages in contract?

A

Expectation interest

Reliance interest

265
Q

What is expectation interest?

A

Damages put the innocent party in the same position post-breach as they would have been had the contract been performed

Cost of cure

Difference in value between promised and received

Loss in amenity

266
Q

What is reliance interest?

A

Looking backwards at putting the claimant back in the position they would have been in had they never contracted

267
Q

Is a claimant who has not suffered a loss entitled to a judgement?

A

Yes, just only nominal damages

268
Q

Is loss of amenity likely to be available in commercial settings?

269
Q

When will reliance be awarded instead of expectation?

A

When expectation is highly speculative

270
Q

At what time to reliance losses occur?

A

Prior to the breach, sometimes prior to signing the contract

271
Q

What defence does the defendant have to a reliance loss claim?

A

That the money would have been wasted regardless of their act

272
Q

When are damages for mental distress, anguish or annoyance likely to be recoverable?

A

When the major purpose of the contract was to provide pleasure, relaxation and peace of mind

273
Q

Are damages generally awarded for loss of reputation?

274
Q

When are damages for loss of chance recoverable?

A

If the lost chance is quantifiable in monetary terms and there was a real and substantial chance that the opportunity might have come to fruition

275
Q

How will the courts calculate damages for loss of chance?

A

Proportion of the chance that is proved

Unless chance of obtaining benefit was 50% or greater then expectation loss can be recovered in full, based on the balance of probabilities

276
Q

What is the test in Hadley v Baxendale?

A

Must be a loss of a type ordinarily and naturally arising from the breach

If the losses are too unusual for that then to recover

You have to establish that the D had sufficient/actual knowledge of the particular special circumstances to be aware of the risk of those losses

277
Q

When does it have to have been in contemplation and knowledge under Hadley?

A

At the time of contracting

278
Q

To what extent is a party expected to mitigate?

A

Reasonable steps

279
Q

Can reasonable steps include accepting a performance offered by D under a new contract even if it amounts to a breach under the initial contract?

280
Q

What is the test for factual causation in contract?

A

The test is whether the defendant’s actions were a dominant or effective cause of the loss

281
Q

What is restitution interest?

A

Damages on the basis of restoring to the claimant a benefit which the defaulter acquired at their expense

*RARE

282
Q

When can a restitution claim arise?

A

For a total failure of consideration

283
Q

What is the second, less common way of considering remoteness other than Hadley?

A

Whether objectively, the D assumed responsibility for the loss in question

284
Q

What needs to be proved to establish reliance interest?

A

That the contract would have enabled them to recoup expenses had it been properly performed

285
Q

Who has the burden of proof for reliance interest?

A

The defendant has to prove the claimant would not have recouped had the contract gone ahead

286
Q

What is the ‘useful general guide’ the courts use when deciding whether restitution interest is recoverable?

A

Whether the claimant has a legitimate interest in preventing the defendants profit-making activity and hence depriving him of his profit

287
Q

What is an ‘efficient breach’

A

In restitution claims, a type of breach that might make it more likely that restitution could be applied

288
Q

What 3 criteria make up an efficient breach?

A

Breach was cynical and deliberate

Breach enabled defendant to enter into a more profitable contract elsewhere

By entering into a new, more profitable contract, the D put it out of his power to perform the contract with the claimant

289
Q

What is a key consideration which is likely to dictate whether restitution interest can be considered?

A

Whether other remedies would be adequate

290
Q

What 2 remedies are available for non-conforming goods?

A

Short term right to reject (30 days)

Right to repair/replacement

IF:
IMPOSSIBLE/DISPROPORTIONATE
FAILED ATTEMPT AND STILL BAD
TRADER FAIL TO REPAIR/REPLACE

Right to price reduction/final right to reject

291
Q

What remedies are available for non-conforming digital content?

A

Repair/replace

IF:
IMPOSSIBLE/DISPORPORTIONATE
TRADER FAILED TO REPAIR/REPLACE

Right to a price reduction

292
Q

What remedy is available if the trader had no right to supply the content?

293
Q

What remedy is available if digital content damaged a device/other content?

A

Repair/compensation

294
Q

What remedy is available for non-conforming services?

A

Repeat performance

IF IMPOSSIBLE/TRAFER FAILED TO PROVIDE

Right to a price reduction

295
Q

What does a liquidated damages clause provide for?

A

A sum payable for a specific breach of contract

296
Q

What is a penalty clause?

A

An excessive liquidated damages clause

297
Q

What is the Makdessi approach for?

A

Determining whether something is a liquidated damages clause or a penalty clause

298
Q

What are the steps in the Makdessi appraoch?

A

Is the clause a primary or secondary obligation? If primary, will not engage the penalty rule

If secondary, the clause will be a penalty if it imposes a detriment out of all proportion to any legitimate interest of the innocent party in the performance of the primary obligation. Identify the legitimate business interest, then consider whether the detriment imposed is extravagant

299
Q

Who has the burden of proof with penalty clauses?

A

The person alleging that the clause is a penalty

300
Q

When will a clause be primary under Makdessi?

A

If part of the primary obligations in the commercial context

Furthers the commercial objective

301
Q

When will a clause be secondary under Makdessi?

A

If is an obligation triggered by breach of contract to compensate the innocent party

302
Q

What 2 steps will the Supreme Court take when deciding whether a secondary clause imposes a detriment out of all proportion to legitimate interest?

A

What legitimate business interest is served and protected by this clause

Is the detriment imposed to protect that interest extravagant, exorbitant or unconscionable?

303
Q

What is the possible punishment for specific performance and prohibitory injunction breaches?

A

Contempt of court

304
Q

When are specific performance and prohibitory injunctions available?

A

When damages are not appropriate

305
Q

What 2 things mean equity won’t be available to you?

A

Dirty hands

Delay

306
Q

When will specific performance not be awarded?

A

Cause undue hardship on defendant

Promise given for no consideration, even if made by deed

Breach of employment contract

Services, where there is a breakdown of trust and confidence

To perform a series of acts requiring constant supervision of the court

Breach of contract not binding on both parties

307
Q

If a contract is varied, would a guarantee or indemnity stay in force?

A

An indemnity does

Guarantee doesn’t

308
Q

What are the formalities for a guarantee?

A

In writing

Signed by guarantor

309
Q

Can an indemnity be used between 2 parties to skirt traditional rules of contract?

A

Yes, e.g., to avoid remoteness rules