Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

15021998-MSK > context W1 > Flashcards

context W1 Flashcards

1
Q

define osteoporosis

A

reduction in bone but same quality causing increased fragility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

risk factors for osteoporosis

A

age, alcohol, smoking, corticosteroids, endocrine disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

two types of osteoporosis and what fractures they commonly cause.

A

type 1 = post-menopause, causes colles’ (fracture distal forearm) and vertebral insufficiency fractures.
Type 2 = old age with risk factors (chronic illness, low Vit D, reduced activity) causing femoral and vertebral fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment for osteoporosis

A

calcium and Vit D supplements (all patients on steroids on these anyways), biphosphonates (end in -dionate), desunomab, strontium.

for type 1 HRT is not first line but is occasionally considered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

osteomalacia definition

A

abnormal softening of bone due to poor mineralisation of osteoid (immature bone). called Ricket’s in children with subsequent effect on growing skeleton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

causes of osteomalacia

A

calcium and Vit D insufficency. Due to lack in diet, resistance to Vit D action or increase renal losses causing phosphate deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

symptoms of osteomalacia

A

bone pain, easy fracture, hypercalcimia symptoms (muscle cramps, fatigue…).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what may be seen on radiography for a patient with osteomalacia

A

pseudo fractures and looser zones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what would results of bone biochemistry be in a patient with osteomalacia

A

low calcium, and serum phosphate.

high serum alk phos. (opposite to osteoporosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

treatment for osteomalacia

A

vit D therapy with calcium+phosphate supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define hyperparathyroidism

A

overactive parathyroid glands with inc PTH (parathyroid hormone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

causes of primary Hyperparathyroidism

A

benign adenoma, hyperplasia, malignant neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

signs of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

hypercalcaemia symptoms, inc serum PTH, inc Calcium. phosphate low or normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

hypercalcaemia symptoms

A

fatigue, depression, bone pain, myalgia, thirst, nausea, polyuria, renal stones, osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

a physiological overproduction of PTH due to Vit D deficiency or CKD (chronic kidney disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

chronic secondary which develop adenoma and continues continuous increased PTH production despite biochemical correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

treatment of hyperparathyroidism

A

treat underlying factors, check and treat fractures.

If very high serum calcium then is medical EMERGENCY - IV fluids, biphosphonates, calcitonin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is Renal (osteo)dystrophy

A

bone disease that occurs when your kidneys fail to maintain proper levels of calcium and phosphorus in the blood. Common in CKD and dialysis patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does Renal (osteo)dystrophy cause?

A

sclerosis of bone, osteomalacia, calcification of soft tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is Paget’s disease and where is it commonly found?

A

Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder causing thickened, brittle and mis-shapen bones.
commonly affects pelvis, femur, skull, tibia and ear bones (causing deafness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

risk factors for Paget’s disease

A

paramyxoviruses and genetics

22
Q

disease process in paget’s disease

A

inc osteoclast activity causes osteoblasts to compensate to try replenish bone. however, this is not sufficient and causes brittle and mis-shapen bones.

23
Q

complications of Paget’s

A

athritis, deformity, fractures, pain, inc CO and inc Arctic stenosis leading to HF.
[ due to arteriovenous connections can often form in the bone, and so the heart has to work harder (pump more blood) to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues.]

24
Q

treatment of paget’s

A

stabilise bones via plating/nails,
biphosphates (to reduce osteoclast activity),
replace joints

25
Q

osteocondroma

A

commonest, bony outgrowth on external surface of bone.
covered by cartilaginous cap. Benign, usually unproblematic (maybe localised pain).
mutliple = genetic disorder. low malignancy chance.
If fast growing then exisional biopsy.

26
Q

enchondroma

A

cartilageous tumour, incidentally finding as often asymptomatic. May weaken bone causing pathological fracture. BT, malignancy rare. easy to curettage.

27
Q

simple bone cyst

A

BT. asymptomatic, may cause pathological fracture.

found in long bones (also talus and calcaneus, solid unicystic fluid-filled neoplasm. curettage to treat.

28
Q

aneurysmal bone cyst

A 
BT. lots of chambers filled with blood or serum. affects long bones, flat bones and vertebrae.
locally aggressive (causes cortical destruction) and usually painful, risk pathological fracture. 
curettage.
29
Q

giant cell tumour

A

can be local aggressive (cortical destruction), affects knee, long bones, digits, pelvis and spine. Painful and causes pathological fracture. considered BT but may metastasis to LUNG. excision with phenol, bone cement or liquid nitrogen to kill rest of tumour.

30
Q

fiberous dysplasia

A

BT, genetic condition, adolescents, one or many bones affected, stress fractures may occur.
Treatment = biphospahtes to reduce pain, stablise fracture with internal fixation/corticol bone graft.

31
Q

osteoid osteoma

A

BT, proximal femur, diaphysis of long bone and vertebrae. immature bone surrounded by intense sclerotic halo.

intense constant pain (esp at night), mediated by prostaglandin production so relieved by NSAID’s.

Xray/CT confirm diagnosis, may resolve over time or need CT guided radio frequency ablation.

32
Q

which is commoner for malignant bone cancer: primary or secondary

A

secondary. primary rare and in younger patients.

33
Q

red flags for malignant bone cancer

A

weight loss, pain at night (constant), reduced appetite, fatigue.

34
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

commonest malignant tumour producing bone.

genetic with retinoblastoma tumour suppressor link.

adolscents, most around knee, femur, humerus and pelvis.

Lymph involvement rare, blood metastasis not uncommon

10% have lung mets at time of diagnosis, chemo helps not radio.

35
Q

chondrosarcoma

A

cartilage producing primary tumour, older age, less common/aggressive as osteosarcoma.
large, slow to metastasise, pelvis and proximal femur common.
surgery to treat (not radio/chemo)

36
Q

fibrosarcoma

A

many types of tumour, uncertain histogenesis.

37
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma

A

teens, fever + inc inflammaroy markers + warm swelling.
misdignosed for osteomyelitis.
Chemo/Radio effective.

38
Q

how to investigate/treat primary tumours in bone

A

MRI/CT to see stage.
Biopsy for histology.
surgery is main treatment (plus add ons).

39
Q

lymphoma

A

cancer of lymphocyte system round cells/macrophages.
can occur as primary tumour (non-hogkins) or metastasis (any type.)
treatment = chemo, radio. good 5YSR.

40
Q

how to tell difference between lymphomas

A

reed-steinberg cell is present in biopsy for hogkins.

41
Q

myeloma

A

cancer of the plasma cells.

42
Q

myeloma Presentation and treatment.

A

PC: weight loss, back pain, weakness, fatigue, bone pain.

soltiary myeloma = radio, multiple myeloma = chemo (poor 5YSR)

43
Q

common secondary bone cancer sources

A

breast, prostate, lung, renal, thyroid.

44
Q

what is osteochonditis and give an example

A

inc excerise (in adolesecnts commonly) causes impact/traction injuries. This causes bleeding and oedema in bone causing capillary compression.

Osgood-schlatter.

45
Q

what is AVN

A

esteem of the bone

46
Q

causes of AVN

A

fracture, ideopathic, alcohol, steroids.

47
Q

AVN course of action

A

initially none, the joint stiffness and pain. Joint may need replaced if ruined. Bone compression leads to healing. May lead to OA in future

48
Q

name the 2 types of soft tissue tumours

A

diffuse (synovitis or oedema)

local (inflammatory swellings, infection, cystic lesions, neoplasms (BT + MT))

49
Q

History taking for suspected soft tissue tumour

A

size, site, definition, consistency, surface, mobility, temperature, fluid-filled?, pulsating? lymphadenopathy?

50
Q

what is most common Benign soft tissue tumour

A

lipoma.

51
Q

what is a DEXA scan used for?

A

Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry

measures bone density (good for osteoporosis )

52
Q

what is a T-score used for and what are the ranges?

A

T-score is used to classify bone density

> -1 = normal; -1 to -2.5 = osteopenia

15021998-MSK (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions