Content Area 3-4 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Learning

A

Process of acquiring through experience new information or behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Associative Learning

A

A theory that states that ideas reinforce each other and can be linked to one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Consequences

A

Association between a response and a consequence is learned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acquisition

A

Initial stage, when one links a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus begins triggering the conditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ivan Pavlov

A

Ivan Petrovich Pavlov was a Russian physiologist known primarily for his work in classical conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

John Watson

A

John Broadus Watson was an American psychologist who established the psychological school of behaviorism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Behaviorism

A

Studies behavior without reference to mental processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Classical Conditioning

A

Type of learning in which one learns to link two or more stimuli and anticipate events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neutral Stimulus (NS)

A

A stimulus that unconditionally—naturally and automatically—triggers an unconditioned response (UR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Conditioned Response (CR)

A

A learned response to a previously neutral, but now conditioned stimulus (CS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Conditioned Stimulus (CS)

A

An originally neutral stimulus that, after association with an unconditioned stimulus (US), comes to trigger a conditioned response (CR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Unconditioned Response (UR)

A

An unlearned, naturally occurring response (such as salivation) to an unconditioned stimulus (US) (such as food in the mouth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Unconditioned Stimulus (US)

A

A stimulus that unconditionally—naturally and automatically—triggers an unconditioned response (UR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

High-Order Conditioning

A

A procedure in which the conditioned stimulus in one conditioning experience is paired with a new neutral stimulus, creating a second (often weaker) conditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Extinction

A

Diminishing of a conditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Spontaneous Recovery

A

Reappearance, after a pause, of an extinguished conditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Generalization

A

Tendency, once a response has been conditioned, for stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus to elicit similar responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Discrimination

A

Learned ability to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus (which predicts the US) and other irrelevant stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Law of Effect

A

Principle that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, and that behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

B.F. Skinner

A

An American psychologist, behaviorist, author, inventor, and social philosopher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Operant Chamber

A

A chamber containing a bar or key that an animal can manipulate to obtain a food or water reinforcer; attached devices record the animal’s rate of bar pressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Reinforcement

A

Any event that strengthens a preceding response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Shaping

A

Reinforcers gradually guide behavior toward closer and closer approximations of the desired behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Positive Reinforcement

A

Increases behaviors by presenting positive reinforcers

Any stimulus that, when presented after a response, strengthens the response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Negative Reinforcement

A

Increases behaviors by stopping or reducing negative stimuli

Any stimulus that, when removed after a response, strengthens the response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Primary

A

Unlearned, innately reinforcing stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Conditioned (Secondary)

A

Gains power through association with primary reinforcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Immediate

A

Occurs immediately after a behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Delayed

A

Involves time delay between desired response and delivery of reward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Reinforcement Schedule

A

A pattern defines how often a desired response will be reinforced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Continuous Reinforcement Schedule

A

Reinforces the desired response every time it occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Partial (Intermittent) Reinforcement

A

Reinforces a response only part of the time; results in slower acquisition of a response but much greater resistance to extinction than does continuous reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ratio

A

Fixed - Every so many: reinforcement after every nth behavior
Variable - After an unpredictable number: reinforcement after a random number of behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Interval

A

Fixed - Every so often: reinforcement for behavior after a fixed time
Variable - Unpredictably often: reinforcement for behavior after a random amount of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Punishment

A

Administers an undesirable consequence or withdraws something desirable in an attempt to decrease the frequency of a behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Positive Punishment

A

Presenting a negative consequence after an undesired behavior is exhibited, making the behavior less likely to happen in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Negative Punishment

A

Removing a desired stimulus after a particular undesired behavior is exhibited, making the behavior less likely to happen in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Classical Conditioning

A

A learning process that occurs when two stimuli are repeatedly paired: a response which is at first elicited by the second stimulus is eventually elicited by the first stimulus alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Operant Conditioning

A

A method of learning that occurs through rewards and punishments for behavior. Through operant conditioning, an individual makes an association between a particular behavior and a consequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Observational Learning

A

Higher animals learn without direct experience by watching and imitating others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Albert Bandura

A

A Canadian-American psychologist. Known for social learning theory and the Bobo doll experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Modeling

A

The process of observing and imitating a specific behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The Bobo Doll Experiment

A

Bandura studied children’s behavior after they watched a human adult model act aggressively towards a Bobo doll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mirror Neurons

A

Include frontal lobe neurons, which some scientists believe fire when performing certain actions or when observing another person doing so.
May enable imitation and empathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Prosocial Effects

A

Behavior modeling enhances learning of communication, sales, and customer service skills in new employees.
Modeling nonviolent behavior prompts similar behavior in others.
In a study conducted across seven countries, viewing prosocial media increased later helping behavior.
Socially responsive toddlers tend to have a strong internalized conscience as preschoolers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Antisocial Effects

A

Abusive parents may have aggressive children.
Watching TV and videos may teach children some unwanted lessons:
Bullying is an effective tool for controlling others.
Free and easy sex has few later consequences.
Men should be tough; women should be gentle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Memory

A

Persistence of learning over time through the encoding, storage, and retrieval of information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Recall

A

Retrieving information that is not currently in your conscious awareness but that was learned at an earlier time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Recognition

A

Identifying items previously learned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Relearning

A

Learning something more quickly when you encounter it a second or later time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Information-Processing Model

A

Compares human memory to computer operations

Involves three processes: encoding, storage, and retrieval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Connectionism Information-Processing Model

A

Focuses on multitrack, parallel processing

Views memories as products of interconnected neural networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The Three Stages of the Atkinson-Shiffron Model

A
  1. We record to-be-remembered information as a fleeting sensory memory
  2. We process information into short-term memory, where we encode it through rehearsal
  3. Information moves into long-term memory for later retrieval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Working Memory

A

o stress the active processing occurring in the second memory stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Automatic Processing

A

To address the processing of information outside of conscious awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Explicit Memories

A

Declarative memories of conscious facts and experiences encoded through conscious, effortful processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Implicit Memories

A

Nondeclarative memories that form through automatic processes and bypass the conscious encoding track

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Sensory Memory

A

First stage in forming explicit memories

Immediate, very brief recording of sensory information in the memory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Iconic Memory

A

Picture-image memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Echoic Memory

A

Sound memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Short-term Memory

A

Activated memory that holds a few items briefly (such as the seven digits of a phone number while dialing) before the information is stored or forgotten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Chunking

A

Organization of items into familiar, manageable units; often occurs automatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Mnemonics

A

Memory aids, especially techniques that use vivid imagery and organizational devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Hierarchies

A

Organization of items into a few broad categories that are divided and subdivided into narrower concepts and facts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Spacing Effect

A

Encoding is more effective when it is spread over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Massed Practice

A

Produces speedy short-term learning and feelings of confidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Distributed Practice

A

Produces better long-term recall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Testing Effect

A

Retrieval practice effect or test-enhanced effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Shallow Processing

A

Encodes information on a very basic level (a word’s letters) or a more intermediate level (a word’s sound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Deep Processing

A

Encodes information semantically based on word meaning

71
Q

Memory Consolidation

A

Neural storage of long-term memories

72
Q

Semantic Memory

A

Explicit memory of facts and general knowledge; one of our two conscious memory systems

73
Q

Episodic Memory

A

Explicit memory of personally experienced events; one of our two conscious memory systems

74
Q

Infantile Amnesia

A

Conscious memory of the first three years of life is blank.

Command of language and a well-developed hippocampus are needed to form memories

75
Q

Flashbulb Memories

A

A highly detailed, exceptionally vivid ‘snapshot’ of the moment and circumstances in which a piece of surprising and consequential (or emotionally arousing) news was heard
Occur via emotion-triggered hormonal changes and rehearsal

76
Q

Long-term Potentiation (LPT)

A

Increase in a synapse’s firing potential
After LTP, the brain will not erase memories
Believed to be a neural basis for learning and memory

77
Q

Kandel & Schwartz (1982)

A

Pinpointed changes in sea slugs’ neural connections

With learning, more serotonin is released and cell efficiency increases—that is, the number of synapses increases.

78
Q

Retrieval Cues

A

Priming
Context-dependent memory
State-dependent memory
Serial position effect

79
Q

Memory Retrieval

A

Memories are held in storage by a web of associations.
Retrieval cues serve as anchor points for pathways to memories suspended in this web.
The best retrieval cues come from associations formed at the time a memory is encoded

80
Q

Priming

A

Activation, often unconsciously, of particular associations in memory

81
Q

Context-dependent Memory

A

Recall of specific information is improved when the contexts present at encoding and at retrieval are the same

82
Q

Encoding Specificity Principle

A

Cues and contexts specific to a particular memory will be most effective in helping recall

83
Q

State-dependent Memory

A

The tendency to recall events consistent with current good or bad mood (mood-congruent memory)

84
Q

Mood-congruent Memory

A

The tendency to recall experiences that are consistent with one’s current good or bad mood

85
Q

Serial Position Effect

A

The tendency to recall best the last (recency effect) and first (primacy effect) items in a list

86
Q

Why We Forget

A
Encoding failure
Storage decay
Retrieval failure
Interference
Motivated forgetting
87
Q

Interference

A

Proactive - Older memories make it more difficult to remember new information
Retroactive - New learning disrupts memory for older information

88
Q

Motivated Forgetting

A

Freud: Repressed memories protect a person’s self-concept and minimize anxiety.
Today: Attempts to forget are more likely when information is neutral, not emotional

89
Q

Misinformation and Imagination Effects

A

Misinformation effect: A memory is corrupted by misleading information.
Imagination effect: Repeatedly imagining fake actions and events can create false memories

90
Q

Source Amnesia

A

Faulty memory for how, when, or where information was learned or imagine

91
Q

Deja Vu

A

The sense that “I’ve experienced this before”

Cues from the current situation may unconsciously trigger retrieval of an earlier experience

92
Q

Cognition

A

All the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating

93
Q

Concept

A

A mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, and people

94
Q

Prototype

A

A mental image or best example of a category. Matching new items to a prototype provides a quick and easy method for sorting items into categories

95
Q

Category

A

Category boundaries begin to blur as movement from prototypes occurs

96
Q

Algorithm

A

A methodical, logical rule, or procedure that guarantees a solution to a problem

97
Q

Heuristic

A

A simpler strategy that is usually speedier than an algorithm but is also more error prone

98
Q

Insight

A

A strategy-based solution, but rather a sudden flash of inspiration that solves a problem

99
Q

Confirmation Bias

A

Predisposes us to verify rather than challenge our hypotheses

100
Q

Fixation

A

Fixation, such as mental set, may prevent us from taking the fresh perspective that would lead to a solution

101
Q

Intuition

A

An effortless, immediate, automatic feeling or thought, as contrasted with explicit, conscious reasoning

102
Q

Representativeness Heuristic

A

Estimating the likelihood of events in terms of how well they seem to represent, or match, particular prototypes; it may lead us to ignore other relevant information

103
Q

Availability Heuristic

A

Estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; if instances come readily to mind (perhaps because of their vividness), we presume such events are common

104
Q

Overconfidence

A

The tendency to be more confident than correct—to overestimate the accuracy of our beliefs and judgments

105
Q

Belief Perserverence

A

Occurs when we cling to beliefs and ignore evidence that proves these beliefs are wrong

106
Q

Framing

A

Sways decisions and judgments by influencing the way an issue is posed. It can also influence beneficial decisions

107
Q

Divergent Thinking

A

Expands the number of possible problem solutions

Creative thinking that diverges in different directions

108
Q

Convergent Thinking

A

Narrows the available problem solutions to determine the single best solution

109
Q

Creativity

A

The use of the imagination or original ideas, especially in the production of an artistic work

110
Q

Motivation

A

Need or desire that energizes and directs behavior

111
Q

Instinct theory (evolutionary perspective)

A

(evolutionary perspective): Genetically predisposed behaviors

112
Q

Drive-reduction Theory

A

Responses to inner pushes

Suggests physiological need creates an aroused tension state (a drive) that motivates an organism to satisfy the need

113
Q

Arousal Theory

A

Right levels of stimulation

114
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A

Priority of some needs over others

115
Q

Charles Darwin

A

An English naturalist, geologist and biologist, best known for his contributions to the science of evolution

116
Q

Instinct

A

Fixed, unlearned pattern throughout species

Genes predispose some species-typical behavior

117
Q

Homeostasis

A

The tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state; it involves the regulation of any aspect of body chemistry

118
Q

Incentive

A

Involves a positive or negative environmental stimulus that motivates behavior

119
Q

Yerkes-Dodson Law

A

Performance increases with arousal only up to a point, beyond which performance decreases.

120
Q

Abraham Harold Maslow

A

An American psychologist who was best known for creating Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, a theory of psychological health predicated on fulfilling innate human needs in priority, culminating in self-actualization

121
Q

Glucose

A

The form of sugar that circulates in the blood and provides the major source of energy for body tissues
Triggers the feeling of hunger when low

122
Q

Hypothalamus & Brain Structures

A

Arcuate nucleus: Pumps out appetite-suppressing hormones

123
Q

Ghrelin

A

Secreted by empty stomach; sends “I’m hungry” signals to the brain

124
Q

Orexin

A

Hunger-triggering hormone secreted by hypothalamus

125
Q

Insulin

A

Secreted by pancreas; controls blood glucose

126
Q

Leptin

A

Protein hormone secreted by fat cells; causes brain to increase metabolism and decrease hunger

127
Q

PYY

A

Digestive tract hormone; sends “I’m not hungry” signals to the brain

128
Q

Set Point

A

The point at which your “weight thermostat” may be set. When your body falls below this weight, increased hunger and a lowered metabolic rate may combine to restore lost weight

129
Q

Basal Metabolic Rate

A

The body’s resting rate of energy output

130
Q

Testosterone

A

Most important male sex hormone
Both males and females have it, but the additional testosterone in males stimulates the growth of the male sex organs during the fetal period, and the development of the male sex characteristics during puberty

131
Q

Estrogen

A

Estradiol is secreted in greater amounts by females than by males and contributes to female sex characteristics.
In nonhuman female mammals, estrogen levels peak during ovulation, promoting sexual receptivity

132
Q

Excitement

A

The genital areas become engorged with blood, causing a woman’s clitoris and a man’s penis to swell. A woman’s vagina expands and secretes lubricant; her breasts and nipples may enlarge

133
Q

Plateau

A

Excitement peaks as breathing, pulse, and blood pressure rates continue to increase

134
Q

Orgasm

A

Muscle contractions appear all over the body and are accompanied by further increases in breathing, pulse, and blood pressure rates

135
Q

Resolution

A

The body gradually returns to its unaroused state as the genital blood vessels release their accumulated blood

136
Q

Sexual Dysfunctions

A

Impair sexual arousal or functioning
Often involve sexual motivation, especially sexual energy and arousal
Males: Include erectile disorder and premature ejaculation
Females: Include female orgasmic disorder and female sexual interest/arousal disorder

137
Q

Erectile Disorder

A

Inability to develop or maintain an erection due to insufficient blood flow to the penis

138
Q

Premature Ejaculation

A

Sexual climax that occurs before the man or his partner wishes

139
Q

Female Orgasmic Disorder

A

Feeling distressed due to infrequently or never experiencing orgasm

140
Q

Paraphilias

A

Experiencing sexual arousal from fantasies, behaviors, or urges involving nonhuman objects, the suffering of self or others, or nonconsenting persons
People with paraphilias (mostly men) do experience sexual desire, but they direct it in unusual ways (Baur et al., 2016)

141
Q

Sexual Desire Disorders

A

Counts as disordered only if:
The person experiences distress from unusual sexual interest.
The interest entails harm or risk of harm to others.
Necrophilia, exhibitionism, pedophilia

142
Q

Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI)

A

Also called sexually transmitted disease (STD)

Spread primarily from person-to-person sexual contact

143
Q

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

A

Is a life-threatening, sexually transmitted infection
Caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Depletes the immune system and leaves the person vulnerable to other infections

144
Q

External Stimuli

A

Men are more aroused when erotic material aligns with their personal sexual interest.
Content and intensity of sexual experience arouse women.
Pornography may decrease sexual satisfaction with own partner; may change perceptions about rape and other sexual violence

145
Q

Imagined Stimuli

A

Sexual desire and arousal can be imagined.
90% of spinal-injured men reported feeling sexual desire.
95% of people report having sexual fantasies.
Males: Tend to be more frequent, more physical, and less romantic

146
Q

Teen Pregnancy Influences

A

Minimal communication about birth control
Guilt related to sexual activity
Alcohol use
Mass-media norms of unprotected promiscuity

147
Q

Teens Who Delay Sex

A

High intelligence
Religious engagement
Father presence
Participation in service learning program

148
Q

Sexual Orientation

A

Members of one’s own sex (homosexual orientation)
The other sex (heterosexual orientation)
Both sexes (bisexual orientation)
In all cultures, heterosexuality has prevailed and bisexuality and homosexuality have endured

149
Q

Gay-Straight Brain

A

One hypothalamic cell cluster is smaller in women and gay men than in straight men.
Gay men’s hypothalamus reacts as straight women’s hypothalamus does to the smell of sex-related hormones

150
Q

Genetic Influences

A

Shared sexual orientation is higher among identical twins than among fraternal twins.
Sexual attraction in fruit flies can be genetically manipulated.
Male homosexuality often appears to be transmitted from the mother’s side of the family

151
Q

Benefits of Belonging

A

Social bonds and cooperation enhanced early ancestors’ survivability.
Combat was more successful.
Reproduction was strengthened.
Foes were avoided

152
Q

Affiliation Need

A

The need to build relationships and to feel a part of a group

153
Q

Ostracism

A

Exclusion from a society or group

154
Q

Achievement Motivation

A

A desire for significant accomplishment; for mastery of skills or ideas; for control; and for attaining a high standard

155
Q

Grit

A

In psychology, it involves passion and perseverance in the pursuit of long-term goals

156
Q

Stress

A

The process by which we perceive and respond to certain events, called stressors, that we appraise as threatening or challenging

157
Q

Catastrophe

A

Unpleasant, large-scale event

158
Q

Significant Life Changes

A

Personal events; life transitions

159
Q

Daily Hassles

A

Day-to-day challenges

160
Q

Stress Response

A

Cannon viewed the stress response as a “fight-or-flight” system.
Selye proposed a general three-phase (alarm–resistance–exhaustion) general adaptation syndrome (GAS).
Facing stress, women may have a tend-and-befriend response; men may withdraw socially, turn to alcohol, or become aggressive

161
Q

Psychoneuroimmunology

A

Studies mind–body interactions
Emotions (psycho)
Affect your brain (neuro), Which controls the stress hormones that influence the disease-fighting immune system.
This field is the study of (ology) those interactions.

162
Q

Search & Destory (Immune System)

A

B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Macrophages
Natural killer (NK) cells

163
Q

Type A & Type B

A

Type A - Competitive, hard-driving, impatient, verbally aggressive, and anger-prone people
Type B - Friedman and Rosenman’s term for easygoing, relaxed people

164
Q

Stress, Pessimism, & Depression

A

Pessimists are more likely than optimists to develop heart disease.
Depression increases the risk of death, especially from cardiovascular disease

165
Q

Stress & Inflamation

A

Chronic stress triggers persistent inflammation, which increases the risks of heart disease and depression

166
Q

Self-Control

A

Ability to control impulses and delay short-term gratification for greater long-term rewards

167
Q

Pessimists

A

Expect things to go badly, blame others

168
Q

Optimists

A

Expect to have control, work well under stress, and enjoy good health
Run in families; genetic marker/oxytocin
Danner and colleagues: Optimism–long life correlation study

169
Q

Aerobic Exercise

A

Sustained activity increases heart and lung fitness; reduces stress, depression, and anxiety
Can weaken the influence of genetic risk for obesity
Increases the quality and “quantity” of life (~2 years)

170
Q

Relaxation

A

More than 60 studies found that relaxation procedures can provide relief from headaches, high blood pressure, anxiety, and insomnia

171
Q

Relaxation Training

A

Has been used to help Type A heart attack survivors reduce their risk of future heart attacks

172
Q

Mindfulness Meditation

A

A reflective practice in which people attend to current experiences in a nonjudgmental and accepting manner

173
Q

Faith Factor

A

Religiously active people tend to live longer than those who are not religiously active