Congential Pathology (and assessment for developmental disorders) Flashcards

1
Q

What is considered normal development?

A

• Individual who grows and matures on an expected path and achieves developmental milestones appropriately

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2
Q

What is considered abnormal development?

A

• Individual who is unable to achieve developmental milestones as expected compared to those of similar age

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3
Q

When is a developmental milestone considered delayed?

A
  • When that individual is 2 standard deviations below the mean
    • They are outside of 95.5% of the population
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4
Q

What is the proper term for mental retardation?

A

• The phenotype is better known as intellectual disability

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5
Q

Is a developmental disability the same as a developmental delay?

A

• No, they are not the same

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6
Q

How do you label something a developmental delay?

A
  • From the journal of pediatric psychology
    • 2 SD below the mean for a child’s chronological age
    • Developmental quotient = (developmental age)/(chronological age)
    • If over 85, give reassurance
    • Btw. 70 - 85 close monitoring
    • Below 70 - refer to a specialist in development
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7
Q

What are the developmental domains?

A
  • Gross motor
    • Fine motor
    • Language
    • Cognitive
    • Social
    • Each are considered a different area in which you can experience a delay or problem
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8
Q

What are the 4 parts of the clinical approach to developmental problems?

A
• History
		○ Milestones reached
	• Parent report questionnaires
		○ Ages and stages (ASQ)
	• Physical examination
	• Formal evaluation
		○ Child development team
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9
Q

What is the cost to the family for screening tests for developmental delays?

A
  • Depends on the service
    • The most expensive is 115 dollars for 100 forms and 1 kit (denverii)
    • 75 dollars - child development inventories - forms to start then 1 dollar per screen
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10
Q

Do the screens that you pay for actually work?

A
  • Each service has different number of items
    • Max specificity is 96%
    • Max sensitivity is 80%
    • Limited by language available
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11
Q

What are the criteria for labeling an intellectual disability?

A
• Must be present from childhood
	• IQ must be 2 SD below the mean (less than 70-75)
	• Significant limitations in more than 2 adaptive skill areas
		○ Communication
		○ Self care
		○ Home living
		○ Social skills
		○ Community use
		○ Self direction
		○ Health and safety
		○ Functional academics
		○ Leisure and work
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12
Q

What is the age threshold for reliably measured IQ?

A

• 5 years. Can’t be reliably done before that

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13
Q

What is mild Intellectual disability?

A

• IQ of 70-50, 85% of ID population

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14
Q

What is moderate Intellectual disability?

A

• IQ of 50-35, 10% of ID population

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15
Q

What is severe Intellectual disability?

A

• IQ of 35-20, 10% of ID population

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16
Q

What is profound Intellectual disability?

A

• IQ less than 20, 1% of ID population

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17
Q

What’s up with cerebral palsy?

A
  • Acquired disease
    • Non-progressive
    • Motor impairment
    • Onset in utero, infancy or early development
    • Spastic (70-80%) vs. athetoid/dysckinetic (20%) vs. ataxic (10%)
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18
Q

What’s up with Autism?

A

• Social interaction problems
• Social communication problems
• Restricted repertoire of interests, behaviors and activities
• Delays or abnormal functioning in at least one of the following with onset prior to age 3:
○ Social interaction
○ Language as used in social communications
○ Symbolic (20 months) or imaginative play (2 years)

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19
Q

What is meant by the umbrella term: developmental disability?

A
• Severe, chronic disability of an individual 5 years of age or older
		○ Attributable to a mental or physical impairment
		○ Manifested before the person is 22 years old
		○ Likely to continue indefinitely
	• Substantial functional limitations:
		○ Self care
		○ Receptive and expressive language
		○ Learning
		○ Mobility
		○ Self-direction
		○ Capacity for independent living
		○ Economic self-sufficiency
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20
Q

What’s the flow chart for managing a developmental delay?

A
  • Routine well child check
    • Parental concern is expressed
    • Screening
    • DQ less than 70, refer
    • Refer to neurologist or child development specialist
    • Confirms DD and works up testing for etiology and advises treatment
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21
Q

What are the three categories given for etiology of developmental disorders?

A
  • Congenital
    • Genetic/heritable
    • acquired
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22
Q

If a child acquires a disease intrauterine, what category does that fall in?

A
  • Congenital
    • Infections - CMV, toxoplasmosis
    • Toxic - fetal alcohol
    • Stroke
    • Unknown - congenital hydrocephalus
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23
Q

What’s up with Fragile X?

A
• Clinical features
		○ Long jaw
		○ High forehead
		○ Large/protuberant ears
		○ Hyperextensible joints
		○ Soft/velvety palmar skin
		○ Enlarged testes
		○ Initially shy with poor eye contact then friendly and verbose
		○ Family history of MR
	• Mutation in FMR1 gene from CGG tirnucleotide repeat
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24
Q

What’s up with Rett Syndrome?

A
• Clinical features
		○ Microcephaly
		○ Ataxia
		○ Autistic features
		○ Sterotypical hand movements
		○ Hyperventilation
		○ Seizures
	• X-linked MECP2 gene
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25
Q

What’s up with angelman syndrome?

A
• Clinical features
		○ Wide mouth and prominent chin
		○ Seizures
		○ Microcephaly
		○ Nonverbal
		○ Happy demeanor/frequent smiling
		○ Ataxia
		○ Hand flapping
	• Chromosome 15q11-13 methylation/deletion
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26
Q

Why should lead poisoning be on your differential for DD?

A

• 10% of children with DD and presence of risk factors have eleveted blood lead levels

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27
Q

What does the term congenital mean?

A
  • Present at birth

* Can be genetic in origin but many are not

28
Q

What different classes of congenital disorders did we discuss?

A
  • Neural tube defects
    • Telencephalic development disorders
    • Cerebellar development disorders
    • Disorders of neuronal proliferation and migration
    • Destructive lesions that interfere with normal development
29
Q

When in time does a problem result in myelomeningocele, ethmocephaly and anencephaly?

A

• In the 3rd week, with neuroschisis

30
Q

Of all the neural development malformation cases, what percentage are purely genetic?

A
  • Only 8% are genetic
    • 12% are due to extrinsic factors affecting the mother and fetus
    • 60% of cases are unknown in origin or etiology
31
Q

When does the cerebellum develop?

A
  • The bulk of it is in the second half of pregnancy
    • There is quite a bit of postnatal cerebellar growth though
    • External granular layer persists until the end of the second postnatal year, supplying the grounds for more development
32
Q

Relative to birth, what is the extent of cerebral myelination?

A
  • The cortex continues to grow in thickness until the end of the 2nd postnatal year
    • Most of that is myelin in the cerebral hemisphere
    • Right at birth it’s tough to pick out grey vs. white matter
    • Between birth and 6 mo, brain weight nearly doubles. But myelination still happens into 2nd decade
33
Q

What are the vocabulary terms for Neural Tube Defects?

A
  • Rachischisis

* Dysraphism

34
Q

What, in general, causes neural tube defects?

A
  • Etiology is still pretty unknown
    • The process is a failure of the neurectoderm to form a complete, closed tube during primary neurulation
    • Could also be from disordered differentiation of the caudal cell mass into the conus medullaris and filum terminale during secondary neurulation
35
Q

What’s up with anencephaly?

A
  • NTD defect
    • Failure of rostral neuropore to close
    • Forebrain neuroectoderm fails to separate from the cutaneous ectoderm
    • Red area cerebrovasculosa is seen where the calvarium should have developed
36
Q

What’s up with encephalocele?

A
  • NTD defect
    • Defect in the skull with protrusion of leptomeninges +/- brain
    • There is an epidermal covering over the cranial neural tube closure defect (thus different than anencephaly)
37
Q

What’s up with myelomeningocele?

A
  • NTD defect
    • Failure of posterior neuropore to close
    • 80% are in the lumbar area, which is the last one to close
    • Neural placode without epidermal covering
    • CSF leak
38
Q

What’s up with meningocele?

A
  • NTD defect

* Skin covered (so not leaking) CSF-filled mass that is continuous with the CSF in spinal canal

39
Q

What’s up with lipomyelocele/lipomyelomeningocele?

A
  • NTD defect
    • Lipoma extends from the subcutaneous tissues to the dorsal aspect of the spinal cord
    • The lipoma tethers the cord inferiorly
    • Process reflects a premature separation of the cutaneous ectoderm during the process of neurulation that allows mesenchyme to enter the unclosed neural tube and differentiate into fat
40
Q

What’s up with dorsal dermal sinus tract?

A
  • NTD defect
    • Ectoderm-lined tracts that can transgress the dura and allow communication between the skin and CSF
    • Can also cause tethering of spinal cord
    • Can be associated with an intradural dermoid cyst or epidermoid
41
Q

What are the physcial exam findings that might indicate a NTD?

A
  • “underlying spinal dysraphism”
    • Usually situated in or near the midline
    • Usually lumbosacral region
    • Dermal dimple
    • Hairy patch of skin
    • Lipoma or other midline visible mass
    • Dermal sinus
    • Capillary hemangioma
42
Q

What’s up with spina bifida occulta?

A
  • At the L5-S1 level this is a common incidental finding on radiographs (both children and adult)
    • Not usually associated with sypmotoms or signs
43
Q

What is meant by spinal cord “tethering”?

A
  • Conus medullaris is usually L3 at birth but ascends into adulthood
    • Many of the NTD defects will effectively resist that ascension because there is a tissue connection that tethers the cord
    • Can lead to spinal cord damage
    • Often first signs are hyperreflexia and spasticity as well as urinary incontenance
44
Q

Hydromyelia means what?

A
  • Accumulation of CSF within the central canal
    • Some obstruction does not allow full communication of ventricles with sub-arachnoid space
    • Chiari type I malformation can cause this
45
Q

Syringomyelia means what?

A
  • Formation of a CSF-filled cyst that breaks out of the central canal and dissects into the substance of the cord
    • Usually because of some type of obstruction that doesn’t allow for communication of ventricles with sub-arachnoid space
    • Chiari type I malformation can cause this
46
Q

What is the Chiari Type I malformation?

A

• Finding of cerebellar tonsils that are elongated and pushed down through the foramen magnum, blocking the flow of CSF
* worry about hydromyelia and syringomyelia and hydrocephalus (4th ventricle problems)

47
Q

Chiari type I malformation may be a problem with what embryonic layer?

A
  • Mesodermal disorder
    • May be a problem more with the formation of a small overcrowded posterior cranial fossa
    • This disease is NOT associated with myelomeningocele
48
Q

What malformation is very often seen in conjunction with a thoraco-lumbar meylomeningocele?

A

• Chiari type II malformation

49
Q

What is characteristic of a Chiari type II malformation?

A
  • Elongation of the cerebellar vermis through the foramen magnum which blocks CSF flow
    • Abnormalities of brainstem including beaking of the midbrain tectal plate and a z-kink in the medulla
    • Abnormalities of the dural venous sinus including a low-lying confluence of sinuses and osseous abnormalities of the skull
50
Q

What physical event seems to result in chiari II malformation?

A
  • Leakage of the CSF from the primitive ventricular system leads to a failure of the ventricles to increase in size and volume
    • Both downward and upward herniation of the small cerebellum will cause the ventricular dilation
    • Also the posterior fossa does not develop to its full size and the neuroblasts do not migrate outward at a normal rate
    • Essentiall the whole messed up posterior fossa due to the leakage of CSF
51
Q

What causes holoprosencephaly?

A
  • The improper cleavage and thus development of the telencephalon
    • The prosencephalon normally forms the two lateral ventricles and the third one (diencephalic vesicle) but it can be completely or partially cleved
    • Two cerebral hemispheres do not divide properly
    • During the 5th week of fetal life
52
Q

How many types of holoprosencephaly are there?

A
  • Three types classified by the degree of division
    • Alobar (arhinencephaly)
    • Semilobar
    • Lobar
53
Q

What’s up with alobar holoprosencephaly?

A
  • Arhinencephaly
    • No evidence of division of cerebral cortex
    • Single forebrain with a single ventricle instead of two cerebral hemispheres with lateral ventricles
    • Fusion of thalami
    • Rudimentary corpus callosum
54
Q

What’s up with semilobar holoprosencephaly?

A
  • There is only partial cleavage with the cerebal hemispheres fused at the frontal region only
    • The brain has a horseshow appearance single central ventricle
    • Variable degrees of fusion of the thalami and absent olfactory bulbs and corpus callosum
    • Single ventricle with rudimentary occipital horns
55
Q

What’s up with lobar holoprosencephaly?

A

• Cerebral hemispheres are separated anteriorly and posteriorly with some degree of fusion of structures

56
Q

What are more obvious clues of holoprosencephaly?

A
  • Facial and ocular development are linked so there are deformities of the face and eyes
    • Cebocephaly - single nostril
    • Cyclopia - fused or nearly fused orbits with supra-orbital proboscis
    • Ethmocephaly - high midline proboscis
    • Arhinia - no fetal nose
    • Coloboma of iris and retina, microphthalamus, premaxillary agenesis
    • Midline facial clefts
57
Q

What’s the most common cerebellar developmental disorder?

A
  • Dandy-Walker malformation
    • Partial or complete absence of formation of the cerebellar vermis
    • Cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle
    • Upward displacement of the tentorium (dura that separates the cerebrum from cerebellum)
    • MAY have hydrocephalus
    • Sporadic, not NTD, not genetic, not linked to folate, but maybe to cis-retinoic acid and homeobox genes
58
Q

Vascular-ischemic destructive events in late pregnancy can cause what problems?

A
  • Porencephaly - large unilateral holes
    • Schizencephaly - bilateral symmetrical holes
    • Hydrancencephaly - destruction of one entire hemisphere
59
Q

What’s the breakdown of types of stroke in children?

A
  • 55% are ischemic
    • 45% are hemorrhagic
    • Most causes of stroke in childhood are genetic or malformative
60
Q

Back before C-section and babies needed to come out of a too small hole or were breech, what was the result sometimes?

A
  • A watershed stroke because of stretching carotids and vascular insufficiency
    • The infants brain grows around the infarct and forms a mushroom shaped gyrus
    • Ulegyria - condtion of mushroom shaped gyri
61
Q

Cerebral palsy is what?

A
  • An umbrella term for a group of motor-sensory cerebral disorders manifested since early childhood and attributed to various etiologies
    • Movement disorders like athetosis (involuntary writhing movement) and dystonia (opposing muscles contracting uncontrolled, painful and fixed postures)
    • Epilepsy, cognitive impairment, visual and hearing problems
62
Q

Why are SEH vascular problems so harsh in the fetus before 32-34 weeks gestation?

A
  • Subependymal hemmorages - seh
    • Hemmorrhage in the vulnerable germinal matrix where all the growth plate for neurons and glia are
    • Germinal matrix is highly vascular, highly cellular and if it’s messed up then neuronal development is super messed up
63
Q

What’s meant by GMH in pediatrics?

A
  • Germinal matrix hemorrhages
    • Same thing as subependymal hemorrhages
    • These cause lots of Cerebral Palsy
    • Graded on a 1-4 scale by the papile method
    • Grade IV show back dissection of the large hemorrhage into the surrounding cerebral white matter
    • Grade I is a localized hemorrhage
64
Q

What are the risk factors associated with GMH generation?

A
  • Gestational age
    • Immature fetal lungs resulting in hyaline membrane disease
    • Hypercapnia
    • Low birth weight under 1500gm
    • Acidosis
    • Coagulation defects
65
Q

What is the final site of closure that, if it fails, will result in anencephaly?

A
  • Commissural plate
    • Anterior neuropore does not fuse/close
    • Immediately anterior to the lamina terminalis at the site of the future anterior commissure