CNS neoplasms Flashcards

1
Q

Gliomas are classified based off of what?

A

• Their resemblance to normal, non-neoplastic glial cells

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2
Q

What are the common gliomas and their WHO grade by definition?

A
• Pilocytic astrocytoma
		○ Grade I
	• Diffuse astrocytoma
		○ Grade II
	• Anaplastic astrocytoma
		○ Grade III
	• Oligodendroglioma
		○ Grade II
	• Anaplastic oligodendroglioma
		○ Grade III
	• Glioblastoma
		○ Grade IV
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3
Q

What makes a grade I glioma “not so bad”?

A
  • Well demarcated
    • Generally do not upgrade over time
    • Can be surgically-excised if in an anatomically favorable location
    • Treated with surgery alone
    • Usually doesn’t require adjuvant therapies like radiation/chemo
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4
Q

What are the characteristics of pilocytic astrocytoma?

A

• Most common CNS neoplasm of childhood
• found also in young adults
• Cerebellum, optic pathway, hypothalamus, thalamus, spinal cord, temporal lobe
• WHO grade I, does not progress to higher grades (usually)
• Different genetic origins in different anatomical sites
• Histopathology
○ Bipolar neoplastic cells with elongated hairlike processes in parallel bundels
○ Rosenthal fibers, eosinophilic granular bodies
○ May be vascular with calcifications

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5
Q

in what population would you expect a pilocytic astrocytoma to be found?

A
  • Most common CNS neoplasm of childhood

* found also in young adults

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6
Q

What is the histopathology of a pilocytic astrocytoma?

A

• Histopathology
○ Bipolar neoplastic cells with elongated hairlike processes in parallel bundels
○ Rosenthal fibers, eosinophilic granular bodies
○ May be vascular with calcifications

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7
Q

When you see pilocytic astrocytoma, what genetic underpinnings must you think of?

A
  • BRAF:KIAA fusion
    • BRAF fusion
    • The grade I pilocytic astrocytomas by definition have the BRAF fusion
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8
Q

What does the BRAF gene product do?

A
  • Mitogen-activated protein kinase
    • MAPK
    • In the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathway
    • Key in cell proliferation, survival, differentiation and apoptosis
    • Ends up making cyclin D1
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9
Q

What makes the BRAF:KIAA fusion such an advantage for the tumor cell?

A
  • Don’t know what KIAA does alone but fusion leads to ablation of BRAF N-terminal domain
    • Renders BRAF constitutively active and leads to oncogene-induced senescence (OIS)
    • Favorable feature in a slowly growing tumor
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10
Q

What’s up with diffuse astrocytoma?

A

• Mean age 30s-40s
• WHO grade II, may progress to higher grade
• Cerebral hemispheres, rarely posterior fossa
• Histopathology
○ Discohesive monotonous cellular infiltrate in patternless array
○ Fibrillary, protoplasmic, gemistocytic subtypes
○ Occasional microcystic change
○ Rare mitoses, two or more on small stereotactic biopsies = WHO grade III
○ No microvascular proliferation or necrosis
○ Ki67/MIB1 less than 4%
§ Marker of cell cycle
○ Often nuclear p53 IHC+
§ This is unlike oligodendrogliomas

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11
Q

What is the histopathology of diffuse astrocytoma?

A

• Histopathology
○ Discohesive monotonous cellular infiltrate in patternless array
○ Fibrillary, protoplasmic, gemistocytic subtypes
○ Occasional microcystic change
○ Rare mitoses, two or more on small stereotactic biopsies = WHO grade III
○ No microvascular proliferation or necrosis
○ Ki67/MIB1 less than 4%
§ Marker of cell cycle
○ Often nuclear p53 IHC+
§ This is unlike oligodendrogliomas

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12
Q

What are the important IHC markers in diffuse astrocytoma?

A

○ Ki67/MIB1 less than 4%
§ Marker of cell cycle
○ Often nuclear p53 IHC+
§ This is unlike oligodendrogliomas

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13
Q

What makes diffuse astrocytoma a difficult tumor to treat surgically?

A
  • Microcysts and ill-defined borders
    • Surgeon can’t tell where the tumor starts and stops
    • Radiologist can’t tell…you can’t operate on this lesion
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14
Q

What’s up with anaplastic astrocytoma?

A

• Mean age is 45 years
• WHO grade III
• Cerebral hemispheres in adults
• Histopathology
○ Higher cellularity, increased nuclear pleomorphism, hyperchromasia, mitoses compared to WHO grade II astrocytomas
○ No necrosis or microvascular proliferation
○ Ki-67/MIB1 higher than WHO grade II, 5-15%
○ MOST IMPORTANT USE OF MIB1 is in distinguishing WHO grade II astrocytoma from WHO grade III anaplastic astrocytoma

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15
Q

What is the MOST IMPORTANT USE OF MIB1?

A

○ MOST IMPORTANT USE OF MIB1 is in distinguishing WHO grade II astrocytoma from WHO grade III anaplastic astrocytoma

  • less than 4% for grade II
  • 5-15% for grade III
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16
Q

In terms of IDH, what do each of the tumors we discussed have?

A
  • All pilocytic astrocytomas are IDH wildtype
    • All oligodendrogliomas are IDH mutant AND show 1p/19q deletion
    • Diffuse astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, GBM today SEPARATED into/DEFINED BY IDH mutant and IDH wildtype status
    • GBM - glioblastoma multiformans
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17
Q

What is IDH?

A

• IDH - isocitrate dehydrogenase
• Absolutely essential to know that this is a CNS neoplasm diagnostic marker and it defines certain tumors
*normal function is protection against oxidative damage

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18
Q

If there is a problem in IDH, what is the result?

A

• IDH mutation can lead to too little alpha-ketoglutarate, which is protective against oxidative damage
• If there is too little alpha-ketoglutarate there is a release of HIF1
○ Hypoxia inducible factor
• Leads to angiogenesis really, and promotes the tumor invasion, survival and angiogenesis

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19
Q

What is the utility of the IDH1/2 mutations?

A

• Determining if the lesion is neoplastic vs. non-neoplastic
• Primary CNS tumor vs. non-CNS tumor (metastasis)
○ Remember that metastatic brain lesions are more common than primary
• Marker of astrocytic and oligodendroglial tumors

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20
Q

What is the IDH1 mutation important for?

A
  • Diffuse astrocytomas, anaplastic astrocytomas, GBMs today DEFINED by IDH-mutant or wildtype status
    • All adult oligodendrogliomas defined by presence of LOH 1p,19q AND IDH mutation (either IDH1 or 2)
    • 90% of IDH1 mutations are at position R132H
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21
Q

Where do you find IDH2 mutations?

A

• These are less common and mostly are found in oligodendroglial tumors

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22
Q

What is the utility of an antibody against IDH1 R132H?

A
  • This is 90% of all IDH mutations
    • You would see lots of IDH problems and thus would see oligodendrogliomas well
    • There is a small percentage of gliomas you could miss like the ones with sporadic mutations somewhere else or the rare IDH2 mutations
23
Q

What does IDH1 mutation status have to do with prognosis?

A
  • Strong evidence that negative IDH1 anaplastic astrocytomas do more poorly than those with IDH1 mutation
    • Studies that have stratified IDH1 mutation assessment suggest that IDH is more powerful predictor in high grade gliomas than is grade
24
Q

What are the genetics of diffuse astrocytomas?

A
  • IDH1 mutation
    • No LOH 1p, 19q
      • p53/ATRX mutation
25
Q

What tumors have ATRX gene and what have a loss of it?

A

• ATRX is lost in diffuse astrocytomas
○ Grade II and III
• Retained in oligodendrogliomas, primary GBMs and special glioma types

26
Q

What’s up with oligodendrogliomas?

A

• 5-15% of all gliomas
• Mean age of onset is 42 years
• WHO grade II
• Usually arises in cerebral white matter
• Histopathology
○ Low to moderate cellularity occasional mitosis
○ Regular round nuclei with artifactual perinuclear halo
○ Fine capillary network and focal calcification
○ Perineuronal satellitosis, often extensive cortcal infiltration correlating with seizure activity clinically
○ Many cases have intermdiate or mixed oligodendroglial/astrocytic phenotype
○ Both tumor types now know to share common IDH1 mutational lineage, followed by later different and distinctive genetic mutations leading to oligo vs. atrocytic lineage
§ P53 vs LOH 1p, 19q

27
Q

What is the histopathology common to oligodendrogliomas?

A

• Histopathology
○ Low to moderate cellularity occasional mitosis
○ Regular round nuclei with artifactual perinuclear halo
○ Fine capillary network and focal calcification
○ Perineuronal satellitosis, often extensive cortcal infiltration correlating with seizure activity clinically
○ Many cases have intermdiate or mixed oligodendroglial/astrocytic phenotype
○ Both tumor types now know to share common IDH1 mutational lineage, followed by later different and distinctive genetic mutations leading to oligo vs. atrocytic lineage
§ P53 vs LOH 1p, 19q

28
Q

Why do oligodendrogliomas tend to have a mixed astrocytic/oligodendroglial phenotype?

A

○ Both tumor types now know to share common IDH1 mutational lineage, followed by later different and distinctive genetic mutations leading to oligo vs. atrocytic lineage
§ P53 vs LOH 1p, 19q

29
Q

A surgical pathology sample (gross) shows a loss of the gray white interface in the cortex. What is the likely culprit?

A

• Low grade oligodendroglioma will obscure the gray-white interface of the cortex

30
Q

What’s up with the anaplastic oligodendroglioma subtype?

A

• 3.5% of adult supratentorial malignant gliomas
• Mean age of onset is 48 years
• WHO grade III
*expect to see elevated MIB1 presence (more mitoses)
• Histopathology
○ Same as classic oligodendroglioma but with incrased cellularity, nuclear atypia and mitoses
○ Occasional vascular proliferation and geographic necrosis is allowed
○ There is a bit more lee-way in the oligodendroglial lineage tumors with necrosis and vascular proliferation
○ IF IT IS ASTROCYTIC, necrosis and vascular proliferation would change the dx to GBM

31
Q

In terms of geographical necrosis and vascular proliferation what is the difference in dx between a tumor of oligodendrocytic and astrocytic lineage?

A

○ There is a bit more lee-way in the oligodendroglial lineage tumors with necrosis and vascular proliferation
○ IF IT IS ASTROCYTIC, necrosis and vascular proliferation would change the dx to GBM
○ Occasional vascular proliferation and geographic necrosis is allowed in dx of anaplastic oligodendroglioma

32
Q

Oligodendroglial tumors are associated with what particular genetic anomaly?

A

• 1p and 19q codeletions
• Established genetic marker of oligodendroglial tumors
• 60-80% of oligodendrogliomas have this
• More than 60% of anaplastic oligodendrogliomas have this
• Results from unbalanced translocation t(1;19)(q10;10)
○ Lose 1p/19q
○ Preservation of a 1q/19p chromosome
○ Entire chromosome arms typically lost

33
Q

In terms of 1p,19q deletions, what CNS tumors have what abnormalities?

A
  • All pilocytic astrocytomas are IDH wildtype and do NOT have 1p,19q deletions
    • All oligodendrogliomas are IDH mutant AND show 1p/19q deletion
    • Diffuse astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, GBM today SEPARATED into/DEFINED BY IDH mutant and IDH wildtype status
    • GBM - glioblastoma multiformans
34
Q

What is the utility of discovering a 1p/19q deletion presence/absence?

A

• Diagnostic: almost never seen in non-oligodendrogliomas
○ Excepting pediatric cases which have different genetics
• Prognostic - better survival if deletion is present
• Predicitive
○ Better response to procarbazine-lomustine-vincristine (PCV) treatment originally
○ Newer treatment is temozolomide plus radiotherapy and deletion presence predicts better response to this treatment

35
Q

What’s up with GBM?

A

• GBM - glioblastoma multiformans
• 15% of all intracranial neoplasms
• Mean age of onset primary = 62 years
• Mean age of onset secondary = 45 years
• Usually involves cerebral hemispheres
• WHO grade IV
• Histopathology
○ Highly cellular and mitotically active
○ Dedifferentiated elemtns
○ Microvascular hyperplasia - glomeruloid/solid tufts
○ Necrosis
○ Ki-67/MIB1 is over 15%
○ Once diagnsis of GBM is established, controversial as to wheter mitotic rate/MIB1 index provides further diagnostic value
○ Probably due to overwhelming influence of necrosis on prognosis

36
Q

What is the histopathology of GBM?

A

• Histopathology
○ Highly cellular and mitotically active
○ Dedifferentiated elemtns
○ Microvascular hyperplasia - glomeruloid/solid tufts
○ Necrosis
○ Ki-67/MIB1 is over 15%
○ Once diagnsis of GBM is established, controversial as to wheter mitotic rate/MIB1 index provides further diagnostic value
○ Probably due to overwhelming influence of necrosis on prognosis

37
Q

How do you genetically arrive at secondary glioblastoma?

A
  • IDH (must start out with this)
    • TP53 mutation/17p loss
    • (now diffuse astrocytoma)
    • 9p loss
    • (now anaplastic astrocytoma)
    • 10q loss
    • (now secondary GBM)
38
Q

What are the genetic losses that make a primary GBM?

A
  • 10q loss
    • PTEN mutation
    • EGFR amplification
    • CDKN2A/B deletion
39
Q

What is EGFRvIII?

A
  • 50% of GBMs with EGFR amplification contain EGFRvIII
    • In-frame deletion of extracellular domain of EGFR, which makes it constitutively active
    • Helpful for showing the high-grade evilness of GBM
40
Q

Pediatric and adult GBMs are similar in all ways except:

A
  • PTEN mutations and EGFR amplification
    • These are way more rare in pediatric cases
    • IDH1 mutations are also rare in children
41
Q

What is the worst of all pediatric brain tumors?

A

• Pediatric diffuse gliomas
• Diffuse intrinsic pointine glioma (DIPG)
• Midline non-brainstem high grade glioma (mHGG)
• Almost ALL have H3 K27M mutations
○ Histone mutation
• Almost 100% fatality and medial survival is 9 months

42
Q

What’s up with ganglioglioma?

A
  • WHO grade I
    • Younger patient population, 8-25 years
    • Usually supratentorial - temporal lobe
    • Calcified, cystica nd demarcated, usually little mass effect
    • Present with seizures pretty often
43
Q

When you see synaptophysin you think…?

A
  • Ganglioglioma

* Neoplastic neurons express synaptophysin and NeuN (nuclear neurofilament)

44
Q

What’s up with medulloblastoma?

A
  • Tumor of cerebellum
    • Peak age of 7 years, most are in children under 16 years old
    • Male predominance
    • Present with disturbances of gait, truncal ataxia, lethargy, headache, morning vomiting
    • Radiation and chemotherapy regimens in treatment of medulloblastoma has improved the 5-year survival rate to 90%
45
Q

You see the word rosette, or a slide with a nice circular clump of tumor cells that look like a blueberry you think…?

A
  • Medduloblastoma
    • Flexner’s rossette (1891)
    • Wrights rosette (1911)
    • Bailey’s pseudo-rosettes (1926)
    • All are used to classify medulloblastoma
46
Q

What are the two ways that medulloblastomas are classified by the WHO?

A

• Genetically defined
○ In particular shh and wnt
• Histopathologically defined

47
Q

Can you suspect either a wnt-MB or shh-MB by imaging?

A
  • MB = medulloblastoma
    • Yes, wnt = cerebellar peduncle/CPA
    • Lateral cerebellum = shh
    • You still have to test but you can suspect based off of tumor location
48
Q

What grade are all medulloblastomas?

A
  • WHO grade IV

* They can subclassify by moleuclar criteria: radiation and chemotherapy protocols being modified based on subtype

49
Q

What is important about a choroid plexus papilloma?

A
  • Intraventricular tumor most often
    • WHO grade I, surgically excisable quite often
    • Can cause hydrocephalus by CSF overproduction, but that is rare.
    • Hydrocephalus is usually caused by CSF blockage in this case
50
Q

What’s up with the ependymoma?

A
  • WHO grade II
    • From ependymal cells that line the ventrical and most are found intraventricular
    • Most are in first 20 years of life
    • Most are in 4th ventricle
    • Most present with hydrocephalus
    • Commonly calcified tumors and protrude up from floor of 4th ventricle
    • Should see some hairs on them to determine ependymal differentiation
    • Some form canals or tubes (trying to form 4th ventricle aqueduct)
51
Q

What is a common form of mesenchymal-based tumor that is in the cranial vault?

A

• Meningiomas
• Grade I mostly, but can push on stuff that can be harmful (mass effect)
• They may penetrate dura, occlude venous sinuses and invade bone, causing hyperostosis
You see hyperostosis in the cranial vault and you think…?
• Meningiomas have the ability to invade bone and make a large bony tumor (can’t really excise without super specialist help)

52
Q

The 8th cranial nerve is an unfortunately common site of what tumor’s growth?

A
  • Schwannoma

* Vestibular schwannomas or acoustic neuromas

53
Q

What are the familial tumor syndromes that concern the CNS?

A

• Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2
○ Type 1 - autosomal dominant
§ Intra and extracranial schwann cell tumors
§ Optic gliomas, astrocytomas and meningiomas also occur
§ Protein is neurofibromin, which inhibits RAS
§ Located at 17q11.2
○ Type 2
§ Bilateral vestibular schwannomas and multiple meningiomas
§ Gene on 22q12
§ Protein is merlin and regulates cell surface receptor signalling
• Tuberous sclerosis
○ Autosomal dominant
○ TSC1 and 2 genes
○ Hamartin and tuberin are gene products
○ Inhibit mTOR which regulates cell size and anabolic growth
○ Characterized by hamartomas and benign neoplasms of the brain and other tissues
○ Sub-ependymal giant cell astrocytoma

54
Q

What are the 5 most common metastatic cancers to the CNS?

A

Lung, breast, melanoma, kidney and GI
Account for 80% of all metastases in CNS
Meninges are often a metastatic site as well
All are sharply demarcated and form at the gray-white junction
Treatment is treating primary tumor and surgical resection from brain