Congenital Heart Disease Flashcards
The view of choice when examining a patient with secundum atrial septal defect is:
A. Apical four chamber
B. Parasternal long-axis
C. Parasternal short axis of the aortic valve
D. Subcostal four-chamber
D. Subcostal four-chamber
A defect is found in the central portion of the inter-atrial septum. The type of atrial septal defect present is: A. Ostium secundum B. Ostium primum C. Sinus venosus D. Coronary sinus
A. Ostium secundum
All of the following are associated echocardiographic findings for atrial septal defect EXCEPT:
A. Right atrial enlargement
B. Right ventricular enlargement
C. Left ventricular enlargement
D. Paradoxical interventricular septal motion
C. Left ventricular enlargement
The normal Qp/Qs ratio is: A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 1:2 D. 50%
A. 1:1
When evaluating atrial septal defect flow with color Doppler, the sonographer should. A. Invert the color flow map B. Reduce the color velocity scale C. Invert the color flow map D. Increase the color Doppler filter
B. Reduce the color velocity scale
For an agitated saline contrast exam, where will contrast appear proving the patient has an atrial septal defect? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Main pulmonary artery
B. Left atrium
A potential complication of patent foramen ovale is: A. Paradoxical embolus B. Mitral valve stenosis C. Valvular stenosis D. Congestive heart failure
A. Paradoxical embolus
A redundancy of the mid-portion of the atrial septum which may result in an inter-atrial shunt is called: A. ASA B. ASH C. DSS D. SAM
A. Atrial septum aneurysm
The most common type of ventricular septal defect is: A. Perimembranous B. Trabecular C. Inlet D. Outlet/Supracristal
A. Perimembranous
The type of ventricular septal defect most often associated with ventricular septal aneurysm is: A. Perimembranous B. Trabecular C. Inlet D. Outlet/Supracristal
A. Perimembranous
The cardiac chambers that are enlarged in ventricular septal defect initially are: A. Left atrium; left ventricle B. Right atrium; left atrium C. Right atrium; right ventricle D. Right ventricle; left ventricle
A. Left atrium; left ventricle
In a patient with ventricular septal defect, the blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and the peak systolic velocity of the ventricular septal defect is 5 m/s. The right ventricular systolic pressure and systolic pulmonary artery pressure is: A. 120mmHg B. 110mmHg C. 30mmHg D. 20mmHg
D. 20mmHg
A complete atrioventricular septal defect is ostium primum ASD with:
A. Coarctation of the aorta
B. Cleft mitral valve
C. Canal (inlet)-type ventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus
D. Canal (inlet)-type ventricular septal defect, common atrioventricular valve
D. Canal (inlet)-type ventricular septal defect, common atrioventricular valve
The congenital heart defect most often associated with Down Syndrome (trisomy 21) is: A. Coarctation of the aorta B. Atrioventricular septal defect C. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis D. Tetralogy of fallot
B. Atrioventricular septal defect
A congenital malformation of the tricuspid valve in which one, two or three leaflets are displaced downward from the annulus with right ventricular dysplasia (atrialization) is known as: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Epstein-Barr anomaly C. Tricuspid atresia D. Tricuspid stenosis
A. Ebstein’s anomaly
Congenital heart defects strongly associated with Ebstein's anomaly include: A. Atrial septal defect B. Coarctation of the aorta C. Discrete subaortic stenosis D. Parachute mitral valve
A. Atrial septal defect
Uhl’s anomaly is:
A. Left atrial aneurysm
B. Abnormal displacement of the tricuspid valve
C. Right ventricular dysplasia
D. Ostium primum atrial septa defect with cleft mitral valve
C. Right ventricular dysplasia
Patent ductus arteriosus results in A. Right ventricular volume overload B. Left ventricular volume overload C. Right ventricular pressure overload D. Left ventricular pressure overload
B. Left ventricular volume overload
They typical murmur associated with patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Decrescendo diastolic murmur B. Continuous murmur C. Holosystolic murmur D. Late systolic murmur
B. Continuous murmur
The peak velocity across a patent ductus arteriosus is 4 m/s and the blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. The systolic pulmonary pressure is: A. 4 mmHg B. 26mmHg C. 36mmHg D. 64mmHg
B. 26mmHg
SPAP - 4 x PDA V^2
The doppler finding associated with patent ductus arteriosus is:
A. Holodiastolic flow reversal in the descending thoracic aorta
B. Increased flow velocity at the aortic isthmus
C. Decreased pressure half time of the mitral valve
D. Systolic flow reversal in the pulmonary veins
A. Holodiastolic flow reversal in the descending thoracic aorta
A communication between the ascending aorta and the main pulmonary artery is called:
A. Aortopulmonary window
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Supracristal ventricular septal defect
A. Aortopulmonary window
Narrowing of the aortic isthmus is: A. Aortic arch aneurysm B. Aortic dissection C. Coarctation of the aorta D. Patent ductus arteriosus
C. Coarctation of the aorta
In coarctation of the aorta, blood pressure in the legs:
A. Is lower than the right arm
B. Is higher than in the right arm
C. Is equal to blood pressure in the right arm
D. Cannot be compared with blood pressure in the right arm
A. Is lower than the right arm
Valvular lesions with which coarcation of the aorta is strongly associated include: A. Aortic valve flail B. Aortic valve vegetation C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Tricuspid atresia
C. Bicuspid aortic valve
The continuous-wave Doppler tracing shown below is most likely: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Aortic regurgitation C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Coarctation of the aorta
peak systolic and end diastolic velocities
All of the following are associated with pulmonary stenosis EXCEPT:
A. Right ventricular hypertrophy
B. Systolic doming of the pulmonary valve
C. Pulmonary regurgitation
D. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Coarctation of the aorta
The four defects that make up tetralogy of Fallot are: right ventricular obstruction (e.e pulmonary stenosis), ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy and: A. Atrial septal defect B. Deviation of the aorta C. Cleft mitral valve D. coarctation of the aorta
B. Deviation of the aorta
Prime characteristics of tetralogy of Fallot include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Malalignment ventricular septal defect
C. Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy
A. Atrial septal defect
Defects associated with tetralogy of Fallot in approximately 30% of cases include: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Overriding pulmonary artery C. Tricuspid atresia D. Right aortic arch
D. Right aortic arch
Important factos in evaluating post-surgical repair of tetralogy of Fallot include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Evaluate right and left ventricular function
B. Rule out residual right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
C. Rule out residual shunting at the margins of the atrial septal defect repair
D. Rule out shunting at the margins of the ventricular septal defect repair
C. Rule out residual shunting at the margins of the atrial septal defect repair
Eisenmenger's syndrome may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A. Atrial septal defect B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Ventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus
B. Bicuspid aortic valve
The physical finding of cyanosis is most common in : A. Patent foramen ovale B. Eisenmenger's syndrome C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Pulmonary regurgitation
B. Eisenmenger’s syndrome
All of the following surgical repairs for congenital heart disease are correctly matched EXCPET:
A. Modified Glenn: SVC to Rt Pulm A
B. Blalock-Taussig: Rt Subclav A to Rt Pulm A
C. Fontant: Single ventricle repair
D. Ross: Surgical ligation of the patent ductus arteriosus
D. Ross: Surgical ligation of the patent ductus arteriosus
Correct procedure:
Native PV in Ao Valve position
Homograft in Pulmonary position