Congenital Disorders I Flashcards

1
Q

when do neural tube defects occur?

A

week 3

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2
Q

describe holoprosencephaly

A

disorder of TELENCEPHALIC development. prosencephalon fails to form properly into lateral ventricles and 3rd ventricle. can be complete or partial and results in failure of two cerebral hemispheres to divide properly.

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3
Q

when does holoprosencephaly occur?

A

5 week of fetal organ formation.

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4
Q

what are the disorders of neuronal proliferation?

A

macrencephaly, micrencephaly

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5
Q

when do disorders of neuronal proliferation occur?

A

weeks 8-16, during fetal organ development.

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6
Q

What are the disorders of neuronal migration?

A

lissencephaly, polymicrogyria.

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7
Q

when do disorders of neuronal migration occur?

A

weeks 12-16, during fetal organ development.

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8
Q

describe disorders of elaboration of neurons and glia.

A

These include dendritogenesis, axonal growth, myelination, malnutrition, metabolic disorders, prematurity. Weren’t discussed in first handout.

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9
Q

when do disorders of elaboration of neurons and glia occur?

A

20-30 weeks up to 5 years.

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10
Q

describe the association between Chiari I malformation and syringomyelia

A

A small posterior fossa causes the lower part of the cerebellum to protrude from its normal location in the back of the head into the cervical portion of the spinal canal. A syrinx may then develop.

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11
Q

describe the association between Chiari II malformation and myelomeningocele

A

Incomplete closure of neural folds leads to leakage of CSF into the amniotic fluid and creates a collapse of the primitive ventricular system. so ventricles fail to increase in size and volume due to downward and upward herniation of the small cerebellum. This also leads to inadequate development of the posterior fossa.

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12
Q

Describe the normal levels at which the conus medullaris is found with respect to the vertebral column at different stages of development.

A

newborn: found at L3. 3 months of age: shouldn’t be below the lower margin of L2. adult: L1-L2.

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13
Q

what symptoms result from syringomyelia?

A

results in a “cape-like” bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in upper extremities.

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14
Q

what symptoms result from tethering?

A

compromised blood supply + spinal cord dysfunction. This results in pain + UMN signs such as hyperreflexia and spasticity + urinary continence.

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15
Q

What are the principal causes of stroke in the perinatal period?

A

1) vascular malformations 2) congenital heart malformations; 3) genetic abnormalities; 4) neurocutaneous syndromes; 5) primary vascular disease

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16
Q

What are the principal consequences of stroke in the perinatal period?

A

spastic motor defects, most frequent cause of cerebral palsy.

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17
Q

dysraphism

A

congenital abnormalities in vertebrae/spinal cord/nerve roots.

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18
Q

what is carnioraschisis totalis?

A

Neural tube defect. Most severe form of neural tube defect. A complete failure of primary neurulation.

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19
Q

anencephaly

A

Neural tube defect. Failure of rostral neuropore to close. Forebrain neuroectoderm fails to separate from cutaneous ectoderm, and a red area cerebrovasculosa is seen where the calvarium would have developed.

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20
Q

encephalocele

A

neural tube defect. defect in the skull with protrusion of leptomeninges +/- brain. distinguished from anencephaly because they have an epidermal covering over the cranial neural tube closure defects.

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21
Q

myelomeningocele

A

results from failure of closure of the posterior neuropore. no epidermal covering and CSF leak. usually in lumbar area.

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22
Q

meningocele

A

skin-covered, CSF filled mass that is continuous with the CSF in the spinal canal.

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23
Q

lipomyelocele/lipomyelomeningocele

A

occurs when a lipoma extends from the subcutaneous tissues to the dorsal aspect of the cord and tethering the cord inferiorly. reflects premature separation of the cutaneous ectoderm during the process of neurulation that allows mesenchyme to enter the unclosed neural tube and differentiate into fat.

24
Q

dorsal dermal sinus tract

A

these are ectoderm-lined tracts that can transgress the dura and allow communication between the skin and CSF. They can also cause tethering of the spinal cord and can be associated with an intradural dermoid cyst/epidermoid.

25
Q

spinal cord tethering

A

group of spinal cord syndromes. all forms involve the pulling of the spinal cord at the base of the spinal canal. The spinal cord normally hangs loose in the canal, free to move up and down with growth and bending/stretching. A tethered cord, however, is held taut at the end or at some point in the spinal canal.

26
Q

spina bifida occulta

A

benign finding usually found incidentally. usually at L5-S1.

27
Q

what is a chiari type I malformation?

A

cerebellar TONSILS are elongated and pushed down through the foramen magum, blocking the normal flow of CSF. This blocks flow of CSF out of central canal of spinal cord into subarachnoid space leading to an accumulation of CSF within the central canal called hydromyelia, or it can lead to syringomyelia, or hydrocephalus.

28
Q

syringomyelia

A

CSF-filled cyst that breaks out of the central canal and dissects into the substance of the spinal cord.

29
Q

myelopathy

A

dysfunction of the spinal cord

30
Q

what is the underlying problem of type I chiari malformations?

A

mesodermal disorder. underdevelopment of the occipital somites.

31
Q

which chiari type malformation is commonly associated with myelomeningocele?

A

Type II malformation

32
Q

What are the features of a Chiari Type II malformation?

A

1) elongation of cerebellar VERMIS, which are pushed down through foramen magnum and can block CSF flow 2) abnormalities of the brainstem (beaking of tectal plate and “z-kink” in medulla) 3) abnormalities of the dural venous sinus including a low-lying confluence of sinuses and osseous abnormalities of the skull.

33
Q

myeloschisis

A

dorsal defect due to incomplete closure of neural folds

34
Q

underlying cause of chairi II malformation?

A

failure of neural folds to completely close.

35
Q

Dandy-walker malformation

A

a) partial or complete absence of formation of the cerebellar vermis b) cystic dilatation of the fourth ventricle c) upward displacement of the tentorium. may show d) hydrocephalus. mostly sproadic, NOT related to a neural tube defect, and NOT related to maternal folate deficiency. Often associated with other cerebral and/or visceral anomalies.

36
Q

what is the definition of megalencephaly?

A

abnormally large brain. usually defined as greater than 2 SD from mean weight.

37
Q

Why does megalencephaly occur?

A

mutation in PI3K-AKT pathway is believed to be the primary cause of brain proliferation and ultimately the root cause.

38
Q

what is the definition of microcephaly?

A

usually defined as a head circumference more than 2 standard deviations below the mean for age and gender.

39
Q

when does microcephaly occur?

A

disorder of neuronal proliferation. 8-16 weeks.

40
Q

what is the definition of agyria/lissencephaly?

A

brain disorder caused by defective neuronal migration during the 12-24 weeks of gestation that results in a lack of development of brain folds (gyria) and grooves (sulci)

41
Q

what is the definition of polymicrogyria?

A

developmental malformation of brain in which excessive number of small convolutions (gyri) on the surface o the brain.

42
Q

when does polymicrogyria occur?

A

Disorder of neuronal migration. So between 12 and 16 weeks.

43
Q

porencephaly

A

large unilateral holes in brain

44
Q

schizencephaly

A

abnormal clefts lined with grey matters. can occur bilaterally or unilaterally.

45
Q

hydraencephaly

A

cerebral hemispheres are absent to varying degrees are replaced with CSF.

46
Q

leptomeninges

A

arachnoid and pia mater

47
Q

what does sacral dimpling indicate?

A

spina bifida occulta. but if floor of dimple isn’t covered with skin = NTD

48
Q

what does abnormally narrow intercanthal distance suggest?

A

narrow indicates problems of cleavage or formation of midline structure.

49
Q

What does absence of palate indicate?

A

cleft lift and palate.

50
Q

underlying abnormality in medulloblastoma

A

Shh mutation

51
Q

What is the main site for birth of neurons?

A

germinal matrix.

52
Q

what is heterotopia? underlying protein abnormality?

A

Displacement of a particular tissue type from its normal physiological position. double cortex for example. bands of cortex form in the cerebrum. globs of grey matter that shouldn’t be there. common with filamin defects. Usually due to failure of x-chromosome inactivation (double check).

53
Q

pachygyria

A

unusually thick gyrations. Leads to seizure disorders.

54
Q

down syndrome brain abnormalities?

A

microcephaly, foreshortened/rounded forebrain, overproduction of amyloid leading to early onset AD,

55
Q

periventricular leukomalacia

A

white-matter brain injury characterized by coagulative necrosis of white matter near the lateral ventricles. Causes cerebral palsy or epilepsy.