ANS pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

locations of nicotinic receptors

A

NMJ, autonomic ganglia, brain

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2
Q

location of M1 muscarinic receptors

A

CNS, gastric parietal, sympathetic postganglionic cells

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3
Q

differences between nicotinic and muscarinic receptors, including difference in signal transduction mechanisms

A

nicotinic are ligand-gated ion channels, muscarinic are G protein coupled receptors.

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4
Q

state the significance of presynaptic versus postsynaptic cholinergic receptors

A

drugs that act postsynaptically are more selective than drugs that act presynaptically. because drugs that act presynaptically affect all synapses for that particular neurotransmitter

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5
Q

list the 3 categories of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and the relation between the nature of the inhibitor interaction with AChE adn its duration of action-clinical utility

A

1) reversible, short acting (edrophonium) 2) reversible, intermediate-to-long acting (neostigmine-physostigmine) 3) irreversible, very long acting (isofluorophate-Nerve Gas)

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6
Q

action of cholinergic agonists

A

PNS stimulation

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7
Q

antimuscarinic agents/parasympatholytics

A

cholinergic antagonists that act at parasympathetic end organs

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8
Q

neuromuscular blockers

A

cholinergic antagonists that act at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

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9
Q

monoamine oxidase inhibitors

A

indirect-acting adrenergic agonists that increase storage and release of norepinephrine/epinephrine

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10
Q

sympatholytic action

A

just means inhibition of some aspect of synthesis-storage-release of NE

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11
Q

ACh synthesis and storage

A

Choline is taken up by active transport system that is dependent on Na+ and blocked by hemicholinium. Rate-limiting step. Synthesis occurs in the cytoplasm of the terminal and is catalyzed by choline acetyl transferase (ChAT). ACh is then stored within vesicles by a second transporter.

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12
Q

hemicholinium

A

enzyme that blocks uptake of choline

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13
Q

vesamicol

A

enzyme that inhibits ACh vesicle storage

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14
Q

How is ACh release modulated?

A

NE interacts with presynaptic alpha2-adrenergic heteroreceptors.

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15
Q

How is ACh action terminated?

A

hydrolysis catalyzed by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

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16
Q

Pathway for interaction of ACh with acetylcholinesterase

A

Ac: esteratic site attracts acetyl group (CH3-COO) of acetylcholine. Cat: catalytic site where acetyl group is covalently bound to the serine [Ser-OH] of acetylcholinesterase while the choline group is released. Acetyl-serine-enzyme bond is hydrolyzed rapidly.

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17
Q

choline esters, examples, and pharmacokinetics

A

direct-acting muscarinic receptor agonists, including acetylcholine and bethanechol. low lipid solubility, poor oral absorption and distribution into CNS.

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18
Q

acetylcholine applications

A

not used, rapidly hydrolyzed by AChE

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19
Q

bethanechol and applications

A

synthetic analog of acetylcholine. can be modified structurally to produce selectivity for muscarinic receptors (by adding methyl group) and/or resistance to AChE (replace acetyl group with carbamyl group).

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20
Q

parasympathamomimetic alkaloids, examples mechanism, pharmacokinetics.

A

direct acting-muscarinic receptor agonists. pilocarpine. lipid soluble so well absorbed and can distribute into CNS.

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21
Q

pilocarpine (salagen)

A

muscarinic agonist

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22
Q

nicotine, class, mechanism.

A

direct-acting nicotinic neuronal (ganglionic) receptor agonists. stimulates both PNS and SNS. mechanism is dose dependent, agonist at low doses (impt - causes vasoconstriction via epinephrine released from adrenal gland activating SNS). At larger or prolonged doses it causes depolarization blockade and thus antagonism.

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23
Q

edrophonium

A

indirect-acting, reversible, short acting cholinesterase inhibitor. bond is readly reversible/not ionic so short acting.

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24
Q

neostigmine, physostigmine

A

indirect-acting, reversible, intermediate-to-long acting cholinesterase inhibitor. transfers a carbamyl group to anionic site on AChE, thereby inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. IMPT: physostigmine is distributed to CNS but neostigmine is not.

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25
Q

isofluorophate - nerve gas

A

indirect acting, irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor. covalently transfers a phosphate group to AChe, thereby inhibiting AChe.

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26
Q

location of M2 muscarinic receptors

A

cardiac cells

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27
Q

location of M3 muscarinic receptors

A

smooth muscle organs and glands

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28
Q

alkaloids mechanism and examples

A

high affinity and specificity antimuscarinic agents. atropine and scopolamine.

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29
Q

propantheline and glycopyrrolate, (ipratropium?)

A

semisynthetic-synthetic antimuscarinic agents with greater effect on GI activity. Quaternary ammonium compounds so low lipid solubility and poor oral absorption and excreted unchanged in urine.

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30
Q

benztropine, oxybutynin, tolterodine

A

semisynthetic-synthetic antimuscarinic agents with greater effect on CNS. Tertiary amines so well absorbed from GI and conjunctival membranes and eliminated by a combination of hepatic metabolism and renal excretion.

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31
Q

how do anti-nicotinic ganglionic blocking agents work? applications?

A

block neurotransmission in autonomic ganglia so affect predominant tone. since predominat tone is largely sympathetic for arteries/veins, blockage leads to vasodilation/hypotension/reduced cardiac output. not used anymore.

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32
Q

biosynthesis of norepinephrine

A

tyrosine is natural precursor and taken up by active transporter –> converted to dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) by tyrosine hydroxylase. DOPA converted to dopamine by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase (l-AAD) in cytosol –> dopamine is taken up into catecholamine storage vesicle by vesicular amine pump and converted to norepinephrine by dopamine beta-hydroxylase (DbetaH) –> (only in adrenal gland and certain CNS neurons) NE converted to epinephrine by phenylethanolamine n-methyl transferase.

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33
Q

metyrosine

A

enzyme that inhibits conversion of tyrosine to DOPA

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34
Q

alpha-methyl dopa/carbidopa

A

enzymes that inhibit conversion of DOPA to dopamine

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35
Q

what is the common structural property of catecholamine neurotransmitters

A

they all have the phenylethylamine nucleus and catechol hydroxyl (OH) groups in common.

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36
Q

what defines neurotransmitter group of monoamines or “biogenic” amines?

A

catecholamines + indoleamine 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)

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37
Q

norepinephrine storage and release

A

the vesicle membrane for NE contains an active pump called VMAT.

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38
Q

NE transporter

A

This is the pump located on the presynaptic membrane that removes released NE from the synapse.

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39
Q

monoamine oxidase

A

enzyme on mitochondria that degrades NE

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40
Q

bretylium

A

enzyme that prevents release of catecholamines

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41
Q

How is NE terminated following synaptic action?

A

most impt mechanism is reuptake by NET (norepinephrine transporter).

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42
Q

What are some drugs that inhibit reuptake of NE?

A

cocaine, TCAs

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43
Q

action of amphetamines, pseudoephedrine

A

these are phenylethylamine drugs that indirectly release NE by reversing the NET transporter.

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44
Q

a1-receptor activation

A

Gq protein that activates phospholipase C –> release of IP3 (releases intracellular stores of Ca++) and DAG (activates protein kinase C)

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45
Q

a2-receptor activation

A

Gi protein that inhibits adenylyl cyclase activity –> decreases cAMP levels or opens K+ channels. Effect is to decrease Ca++ movement.

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46
Q

b1 and b2 receptor activation

A

Gs protein that stimulates adenylyl cyclase –> increased cAMP synthesis –> which activates protein kinase A. Thus increases Ca++ movement.

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47
Q

what is the most common mechanism of indirect acting adrenergic agonists?

A

increasing storage and release of NE

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48
Q

how is the ability of adrenergic agonists to enter the CNS determined?

A

lack of hydroxyl groups on phenyl ring increases drug’s lipophilicity.

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49
Q

How do you increase the oral effectiveness of adrenergic agonists?

A

non-catechols (no hydroxyl group) are resistant to first pass metabolism because they are not substrates for catechol-O-methyl transferase in the liver. Drugs with a methyl group are protected from degradation from MAO in the liver.

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50
Q

general pharmacokinetics of catecholamine neurotransmitters (NE and E)

A

not effective orally, don’t enter brain well, and have short duration of action.

51
Q

sympatholytic action

A

interference with adrenergic function in the PRESYNAPTIC neuron. Little clinical utility.

52
Q

reserpine mechanism

A

inhibits catecholamine storage. It does this by inhibiting VMAT.

53
Q

bretylium, guanethidine

A

inhibit catecholamine release

54
Q

metyrosine mechanism and use

A

inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase. pheochromocytoma.

55
Q

disulfiram mechanism

A

inhibits dopamine b-hydroxylase

56
Q

alpha-methyldopa

A

inhibits DOPA decarboxylase. metabolized to alpha-methylnorepinephrine which is an agonist at alpha2 receptors in the CNS; used as an antihypertensive agent.

57
Q

carbidopa mechanism and uses

A

inhibits L-DOPA decarboxylase so prevents metabolism of levodopa to dopamine. used as an adjunct to levodopa therapy for PD.

58
Q

phentolamine / phenoxybenzamine

A

alpha adrenergic receptor antagonists. phentolamine is a non-selective (a1 and a2) reversible antagonists. phenoxybenzamine is an irreversible non-selective antagonist.

59
Q

Prazosin / terazosin / doxazosin

A

highly selective, reversible alpha adrenergic receptor antagonists.

60
Q

location of beta1 receptors

A

heart

61
Q

location of beta2 receptors

A

lung, blood vessels

62
Q

propranolol

A

nonselective reversible beta blocker

63
Q

metoprolol,atenolol

A

cardioselective/b1 selective beta blocker, only at lower doses.

64
Q

What is the effect of alpha-2 receptor activation in the CNS and SNS?

A

reduces SNS activity (counterintuitive). SNS: stimulates peripheral alpha2 receptors and reduces NE release. CNS: stimulation in brain stem reduces peripheral SNS activity.

65
Q

How are most anti-adrenergics absorbed?

A

most are available via the oral route. significant 1st pass metabolism for some.

66
Q

Why does nicotine act as a “depolarizing blocking agent” at toxic blood levels?

A

persistent depolarization desensitizes the nicotinic receptor.

67
Q

Alkaloids

A

Naturally occurring agents with very high affinity and specificity for muscarinic receptors.

68
Q

location of ACh muscarinic receptors

A

heart, lungs, GI/GU tract, eye, sweat glands,

69
Q

location of alpha and beta adrenergic receptors

A

cardiac and smooth muscle, gland cells, nerve terminals

70
Q

location of dopamine receptors

A

renal vascular smooth muscle

71
Q

location of nicotinic ACh receptors

A

somatic/skeletal muscle, renal medulla, sympathetic ganglia

72
Q

receptor and agonist responsible for smooth muscle contraction

A

A1, NE

73
Q

action of NE on A1 receptors

A

smooth muscle contraction, mydriasis, vasoconstriction in the skin, mucosa and abdominal viscera, sphincter contraction of the GI tract and urinary bladder

74
Q

Effect of E on A2 receptors

A

smooth muscle mixed effects, platelet activation

75
Q

Effect of B1 receptor activation

A

positive chronotropic, dromotropic, and inotropic effects, increased amylase secretion

76
Q

Effect of B2 agonism

A

smooth muscle relaxation (ex. bronchodilation)

77
Q

Effect of B3 agonism

A

enhance lipolysis, promotes relaxation of detrusor muscle in the bladder.

78
Q

heart regulation

A

effects largely mediated by B1 receptors

79
Q

BP control

A

A1: vasoconstriction, B1: increased heart rate and increased force of contraction, B2: vasodilation, A2: decrease in SNS outflow decreases BP

80
Q

respiratory tract regulation

A

relaxation and bronchodilation via B2 receptors. upper respiratory tract mucosal blood vessels: constriction via A1 receptors

81
Q

what is an exception to the general rule that branches of autonomic system usually exert opposite effects

A

control of salivary glands: both branches stimulate secretion but alter saliva content in a different manner.

82
Q

what is the treatment for glaucoma?

A

Muscarinic agonists (increase aqueous humor outflow) OR b1-2 antagonist (decrease aqueous humor production)

83
Q

what is the treatment for urinary incontinence?

A

muscarinic agonists, which increase detrusor contraction

84
Q

What is the treatment for paralytic ileus?

A

muscarinic agonists, which increase GI motility

85
Q

what is the treatment for asthma?

A

***cholinergic antagonists, (bronchodilation) OR b2 agnosists (bronchodilation)

86
Q

treatment for overactive bladder?

A

cholinergic antagonist (block detrusor)

87
Q

treatment for diarrhea?

A

cholinergic antagonist (decrease GI motility)

88
Q

treatment for hypotensive shock?

A

a1, b1 agonists (increase blood pressure)

89
Q

what is the treatment for micturition disorders, BPH?

A

a1 agonists (open sphincter)

90
Q

treatment for hypertension?

A

a1,b1 antagonists + a2 AGONIST

91
Q

treatment for premature labor?

A

b2: uterine relaxation

92
Q

treatment for ADHD

A

adrenergic agonists (increase vigilance/focus)

93
Q

treatment for bradycardia?

A

cholinergic antagonists

94
Q

treatment for cardiogenic shock?

A

b1 agonists (increase HR/contractility)

95
Q

epinephrine

A

a1-b1-b2 agonist

96
Q

norepinephrine

A

a1-b1 agonist

97
Q

isoproterenol

A

b1-b2 agonist

98
Q

albuterol

A

b2 agonist

99
Q

phenylephrine

A

a1 agonist

100
Q

pseudoephedrine

A

indirect adrenergic agonist

101
Q

dobutamine

A

b1 agonist

102
Q

dopamine

A

d1 indirect agonist

103
Q

prazosin-doxazosin-terazosin

A

a1 antagonist

104
Q

metoprolol-atenolol

A

b1 antagonist

105
Q

propranolol

A

b1-b2 antagonist

106
Q

labetalol-carvedilol

A

a1-b1-b2 antagonist

107
Q

clonidine

A

a2 agonist

108
Q

oxybutynin-tolterodine

A

cholinergic antagonist (M)

109
Q

ipratropium-tiotropium

A

muscarinic antagonist

110
Q

atracurium-rocuronium-succynilcholine

A

nicotinic antagonist

111
Q

treatment for HTN/Angina/Arrhythmias/CHF

A

b1 antagonism

112
Q

treatment for neurogenic shock?

A

113
Q

optimal drug action for muscle relaxation in surgery?

A

cholinergic antagonists

114
Q

optimal drug action for PD/anti-emetic?

A

cholinergic antagonists

115
Q

optimal drug action for decongestion/relief of nasal congestion?

A

a1 agnoist (vasoconstriction)

116
Q

activation of which PNS receptor subtype is most commonly associated with smooth muscle contraction?

A

a1

117
Q

why does a2 agonism decrease BP?

A

Norepinephrine activation of α2 adrenergic receptors on cholinergic neurons in the GI tract will decrease acetylcholine release.

118
Q

what is the effect of NE activation of a2 adrenergic receptors on adrenergic neurons in cardiac tissue?

A

decreases NE release

119
Q

what is the effect of a2 receptor agonism?

A

CNS: reduces peripheral sympathetic nervous system activity SNS: preferentially stimulates peripheral a2 receptors and thus REDUCES NE release from sympathetic neurons.

120
Q

Optimal drug to treat hypertension?

A

a1,b1 antagonist, or b1 antagonist.

121
Q

Treatment for AD?

A

muscarinic agonists

122
Q

Treatment for PD?

A

cholinergic antagonists

123
Q

what do you use treat emesis/motion sickness?

A

cholinergic antagonists