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J Cardio > Conditions > Flashcards

Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

chest pain relieved on sitting forward

saddle shaped ST elevation, PR depression on ECG

A

pericarditis

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2
Q

first line treatment for hypertension confirmed by ABPM

A

lifestyle modification - diet, stop smoking, exercise

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3
Q

treatment pathway for hypertension confirmed by ABPM after lifestyle modification

A
  1. ACEi/ARB or CCB
  2. ACEi/ARB and CCB
  3. ACEi/ARB and CCB and diuretic
  4. ACEi/ARB and CCB and diuretic and something else
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4
Q

who get ACei/ARB first line in hypertension

who get CCB first line in hypertension

A

ACEi/ARB - if white <55 years old

CCB - if afrocarribean or >55 years old

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5
Q

indication for ARB

A

ACEi gives a cough

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6
Q

ACEi used in hypertension

A

Lisinopril (-pril)

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7
Q

ARB used in hypertension

A

losartan (-sartan)

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8
Q

CCB used in hypertension

A

verapamil, amlodipine

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9
Q

diuretic used in hypertension

A

any - furosemide, bendroflumethiazide

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10
Q

which type of angina is not relieved by GTN alone

A

unstable angina

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11
Q

treatment of unstable angina (5)

A

MONA + T (used to be C)

morphine 
oxygen 
nitroglycerin (GTN spray) 
aspirin 300mg
ticagrelor (used to be clopidogrel) 300mg (or 600mg if giving PCI)
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12
Q

treatment of NSTEMI (5+3)

A

MONA + T(used to be C)

morphine 
oxygen
nitroglycerin (GTN spray) 
aspirin 300mg 
ticagrelor (used to be clopidogrel) 300mg (or 600mg if giving PCI)

thrombolysis
PCI
CABG

(exact same as STEMI lol, though PCI and CABG less likely)

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13
Q

treatment of STEMI (5+)

A

MONA + T (used to be C)

morphine
oxygen 
nitroglyceride (GTN spray) 
aspirin 300mg 
ticagrelor (used to be clopidogrel) 300mg (or 600mg if giving PCI)

PCI
thrombolysis
CABG

(exact same as NSTEMI lol)

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14
Q

LBBB

A

lead III = W
lead aVL = M

WiLLiaM

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15
Q

RBBB

A

lead III = M
lead V3 = W

MaRRoW

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16
Q

how close must you be to a hospital to do a PCI in someone with a STEMI

A

40 mins

needs to be done within 90 mins form onset

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17
Q

when would you thrombolyse someone with a NSTEMI/STEMI

A

if PCI unavailable (>40 mins from hospital)

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18
Q

post MI (4 weeks later)
pain relieved by sitting forward
saddle shaped ST elevation in all leads
no fever

A

dresslers (pericarditis)

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19
Q

in what rhythms can you shock someone with a defib

A

VF or pulseless VT

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20
Q

in what rhythms must you not shock someone with a defib

what do you do instead

A

asystole or pulseless electrical activity

give them amiodarone and adrenaline

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21
Q

reversible causes of cardiac arrest (8)

A 
4Hs and 4Ts 
hypovolaemia 
hypoxia 
hypothermia 
hypo/hyperkalaemia 
thrombosis 
toxins 
cardiac Tamponade 
tension pneumothorax
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22
Q

gold standard investigation for heart failure

A

transthoracic ECHO

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23
Q

which sided heart failure causes pulmonary oedema

A

left sided

think about it

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24
Q

which sided heart failure causes peripheral oedema

A

right sided

think about it

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25
Q

which group of people (gender and age) are most likely to get a AAA

A

men >65

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26
Q 
pulsatile expansible abdo mass 
sudden onset epigastric pain that radiates to the back 
collapse 
male 65 
likely to die on the way to hospital
A

rupture AAA

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27
Q

prevention of ruptured AAA

A

screening in men >65!!

28
Q

treatment of ruptured AAA

A

emergency surgery to insert stent

29
Q

which type of heart murmur sounds like a ‘swoosh’ (stenosis or regurg) = high pitch

A

regurgitation

30
Q

which type of heart murmur (stenosis or regurg) happens in the MIDDLE or systole/diastole

A

stenosis

mitral stenosis = mid diastolic
aortic stenosis = mid systolic

31
Q

which type of heart murmur sounds like a low pitched ‘grunt’ (stenosis or regurg)

32
Q

ejection systolic (midsystolic) murmur
radiates to carotids
low pitched grunt = hear with bell
slow rising pulse

A

aortic stenosis

33
Q 
mid diastolic murmur
low pitched grunt = hear with bell 
at apex 
associated with AF  
best heard when patient rolled onto left side
rheumatic fever
A

mitral stenosis

34
Q

swoosh sound = high pitched = hear with diaphragm
early diastolic
heard at left sternal edge (best heard when sitting up)
collapsing pulse
displaced apex

A

aortic regurgitation

35
Q

swoosh sound = high pitched = hear with bell
pan systolic
displaced apex
heard in mid axillary line

A

mitral regurg

36
Q

treatment of sinus tachycardia >100 bpm

A

beta blocker (B1 usually causes increased heart rate so want to block it)

eg atenolol (cardioselective = good)

37
Q

treatment of sinus bradycardia <60 bpm

A

atropine (M2 antagonist - M2 usually causes decreased heart rate so want to block it)

38
Q

treatment of pulseless VT (ventricular tachycardia)

A

shock (defib, DC cardiovert)

39
Q

treatment of VF (ventricular fibrillation)

A

shock (defib)

40
Q

irregularly irregular pulse
300 bpm heart rate
no P waves

A

atrial fibrillation

41
Q

what are the 3 types of atrial fibrillation

A

paroxysmal - sorts itself <48 hours
persistent - fixed with drugs
permanent - not fixed with drugs

42
Q

treatment of AF (4)

A

ACBD

anticoag (warfarin) and ablation
beta blockers (rate control) - GIVE FIRST
cardiovert (drugs first (AF = amiodarone or flecamide) then electrical)
digoxin (rhythm control)

43
Q

what score do you need to figure out before you give someone anticoags eg warfarin

A

CHA2DS2-VASc score

44
Q

treatment of atrial flutter

45
Q

torsades des pointes on ECG

congenital problem

A

long QT syndrome

46
Q

ventricular arrhythmias typically cause rate/rhythm problems?

hence what are they treated with (class of anti arrhythmia drug)

A

rate

class II or IV

47
Q

atrial arrhythmias typically cause rate/rhythm problems?

hence what are they treated with (class of anti arrhythmia drug)

A

rhythm

class I or III

48
Q

class I anti arrhythmia drug examples (2)

A

lignocaine, flecainide

49
Q

class II anti arrhythmic drug example

A

metoprolol (beta blocker)

50
Q

class III anti arrhythmic drug example

A

amiodarone

51
Q

class IV anti arrhythmic drug example

52
Q

ventricular tachycardia treatment

A

beta blocker eg propranolol, atenolol

53
Q

which side of the heart do you usually get endocarditis in

A

left (mitral/aortic valves)

54
Q

who typically get right sided valve endocarditis

A

IV drug users

55
Q

janeway lesions
osler nodes
splinter haemorrhages
roth spots in eyes

A

infective endocarditis

56
Q

diagnostic investigation for infective endocarditis

A

transoesophageal echo (also do a transthoracic one)

57
Q

infective endocarditis

who get strep viridans

A

post dental surgery

bc strep viridans is in the mouth

58
Q

infective endocarditis

which micro bacterial is green on agar

A

strep viridans

59
Q

infective endocarditis

treatment of strep viridans (be green on agar)

A

benzypenicillin IV and gentamicin IV

bc Be Green on agar

60
Q

infective endocarditis

who get staph aureus

where does it occur

A

IV drug users

right sided

61
Q

infective endocarditis

treatment of IV drug user with staph aureus infection

A

flucloxacillin IV

62
Q

infective endocarditis

who get staph epidermis

A

prosthetic valves, IV lines

something entering the body form outside bc staph epidermis is on the skin

63
Q

infective endocarditis

who get enterococcus

A

GI problems

64
Q

treatment of enterococcus infective endocarditis

A

amoxicillin Iv an gentamicin IV

bc All Germs ENTER the body

65
Q

native valve endocarditis treatment

A

amoxicillin IV and gentamicin IV

bc Always Got your native valves

66
Q

prosthetic valve endocarditis treatment

A

vancomycin IV, gentamicin IV and rifampicin IV

bc prosthetic valves give you Very Good Rhythm

67
Q

treatment of infective endocarditis if antibiotics ineffective

A

surgery - valve replacement

J Cardio (4 decks)

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