Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Criminal FYLSE > Concord Rule Statements > Flashcards

Concord Rule Statements Flashcards

0
Q

Murder:

A

Homicide with malice aforethought

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Homicide:

A

Killing of a human being by the defendant’s act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Malice:

A

CL: Intent to kill with deliberateness (but can be shown in other ways)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Wanton conduct:

A

Deliberate creation or Willful disregard of an extreme and unreasonable risk of death or serious bodily injury which results in the death of another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Felony Murder Rule:

A

If someone dies as a proximate result of and during the perpetration of an inherently dangerous felony, all the parties that committed the felony will be held vicariously liable for the death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Under the felony murder rule, is there a requirement of an intent to kill?

A

No, there must be an intent to commit a felony, a death must result from the felony, The death must be a proximate result of the underlying crime, and in furtherance or during the perpetration of the felony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the felonies covered by the felony murder rule?

A

CL: any felony
Modernly: only crimes that are generally dangerous to life
* some jurisdictions: BARRK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two ways that the “dangerous to life” restriction is treated for felony murder?

A
  • Objective view: felony is of an inherently dangerous nature
  • Subjective view: felony was committed in a way to create a foreseeable risk of severe danger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vicarious liability:

A

Felons and co-felons are equally responsible for the consequences of their individual acts committed as part of, and in furtherance of, the underlying felony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Voluntary manslaughter:

A

Intentional killing of another human being where there are mitigating circumstances warranting reduction of the charge from murder to manslaughter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mitigation:

A

Heat of passion and emotional disturbance. Circumstances provoked the defendant to the point where he could not reflect before acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The mitigation defense is only available for what crime?

A

Murder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a reasonable cooling off period has elapsed, can there be mitigation?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Imperfect self defense:

A

Reduces murder to manslaughter where the defendant honestly, but unreasonably believes the deadly force is necessary to defend himself or a third-party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Involuntary manslaughter:

A

Unintentional killing which is the result of:

  • death during the perpetration of a non-dangerous felony or misdemeanor
  • A death resulting from a grossly reckless act
  • A negligent homicide
  • or an intent to inflict non-serious bodily harm that results in death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the degrees of murder?

A

1st° and 2nd°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is first degree murder?

A

Premeditated murder, or felony murder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2nd degree murder:

A

All other murder than first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the crimes against people besides murder?

A

Battery, assault, mayhem, rape, kidnapping, false imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is battery?

A

Direct or indirect unlawful touching of another person without consent and with the intent to cause injury, and injury in fact results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Assault:

A

Attempted battery. Placing another in fear of imminent serious physical injury, with the intent to cause such fear. The victim’s apprehension must be of immediate violence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rape:

A

Unlawful sexual intercourse with a woman against her will by force or by threat of immediate force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Non-forcible statutory rape:

A

Sexual intercourse with a woman who by reason of age, is incapable of consenting to such conduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Kidnapping:

A

Unlawful seizure of a person plus asportation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Asportation:

A

Taking a person from one place to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the crimes against property?

A

Theft crimes and structure crimes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the theft crimes?

A

Larceny, robbery, extortion, larceny by trick, embezzlement, false pretenses, receiving stolen property

27
Q

What is larceny?

A

A crime against possession, where the defendant unlawfully takes and carries away another person’s goods with the intent to convert them to the taker’s own use

28
Q

Robbery:

A

Taking of property by the threat immediate harm of force or violence

29
Q

Extortion:

A

A threat to the victim to cause him or another person future harm along with an intent to receive the victim’s property as a result of the threat

30
Q

Larceny by trick:

A

The defendant, with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of her property, obtains that property by fraud

31
Q

Embezzlement:

A

Intent to fraudulently convert property that is lawfully in the embezzler’s possession. Fraudulent conversion of property by selling, spending, damaging, or failing to return the entrusted property

32
Q

False pretenses:

A

Obtaining title and possession of property by fraud and does so by knowingly making a false statement with the intent to defraud the victim

33
Q

Just taking possession, but not title is considered what?

A

Larceny by trick

34
Q

Receiving stolen property:

A

Defendant must receive property knowing it is stolen and must have the intent to deprive the owner of the property

35
Q

What are structure crimes?

A

Burglary and arson

36
Q

What is burglary?

A

Breaking And entering of another’s dwelling at night with intent to commit an offense within

37
Q

When must The intent be present for burglary?

A

The time of the unlawful entry

38
Q

Trickery to enter a dwelling is considered what?

A

A breaking in

39
Q

Arson:

A

Intentionally starting a fire that burns another’s dwelling, even if there’s only slight damage. Must be intent to burn or recklessness

40
Q

What are the preliminary offenses?

A

Solicitation, conspiracy, attempt

41
Q

Solicitation:

A

Asking another person to commit a crime with the intention that the crime be committed

42
Q

Conspiracy:

A

CL: when defendant enters an agreement to commit a crime
MPC: defendant enters an agreement to commit a crime and an overt act is done toward the commission of the target offense

43
Q

Withdrawal from conspiracy:

A

CL: conspiracy is complete when the agreement is made, there can be no withdrawal
MPC: withdrawal is a defense if the withdrawing party thwarts the success of the conspiracy under circumstances showing a complete and voluntary renunciation of criminal purpose

44
Q

Attempt:

A

CL: An intent to commit a crime and an act which tends to consummate the crime
MPC: defendant purposely engages in conduct that shows he has taken a substantial step toward the commission of the offense

45
Q

What are defenses?

A

Self defense, defense of others, crime prevention, apprehension of fleeing felon, mistake, entrapment

46
Q

Self defense:

A

D claims the use of force was necessary to protect himself or third-party from immediate bodily harm

47
Q

What Are the two important rules for self-defense?

A

D can only use reasonable force and cannot be the initial aggressor, unless he renounces the aggression

48
Q

Defense of others:

A
  • some jurisdictions: D may use force to the extent the third-party could’ve used force
  • others: D can use reasonable force to protect a third-party if it reasonably appeared necessary
49
Q

Crime Prevention:

A

D can use reasonable force to prevent a felony, but deadly force can only be used to prevent crimes of violence (BARRK)

50
Q

Apprehension of fleeing felon:

A

Person can use reasonable force to apprehend a fleeing felon if the felony was committed in the citizen’s presence, and deadly force can only be used if the fleeing felon presents a danger to the life of others

51
Q

What Are the two categories of mistake?

A

Defense to specific intent crime, and defense to general intent crime

52
Q

How is mistake defense to a specific intent crime?

A

When the mistake negates the mental element that is required for the offense

53
Q

How is mistake a defense to a general intent crime?

A

Not a defense if the conduct is criminal without consideration of defendant’s specific intent

54
Q

Entrapment:

A

When defendant is actively encouraged to commit a crime by a state official, so long as he was not previously disposed to commit the offense

55
Q

What is the classification of parties?

A

Principal in the 1st°, principal in the 2nd°, accessory before the fact, accessory after-the-fact

56
Q

What is a principal in the 1st°?

A

Those that actually commit the offense

57
Q

Principal in the 2nd°:

A

Accomplices who are actively or constructively present at the scene of the crime, and aided in the commission of the offense

58
Q

Accessory before the fact:

A

Accomplices that aides the crime but are not actually or constructively present during its commission

59
Q

Accessory after-the-fact:

A

Rendered assistance after the crime was committed

60
Q

What are the requirements for accomplice liability?

A

Agreement for some unlawful purpose, and a majority of states require an overt act in furtherance of the agreement

61
Q

All accomplices are held responsible for what?

A

Those acts and crimes within the scope of the conspiracy. The foreseeable consequences of the underlying crime

62
Q

What is the definition of necessity as a defense?

A

This applies when nonhuman events compel a defendant to commit a criminal act to avoid a greater harm from occurring, and there can be no viable option other than the greater harm, or the D’s course of action

63
Q

What are other things you need to consider when discussing necessity a defense?

A
  • if there were other third options

- if the threat of death was imminent

64
Q

What is the definition of accomplice liability?

A

One who aids, abets, encourages, or assists another to perform a crime, with the intent that the offense be committed, is liable for that crime

Criminal FYLSE (52 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions