CompTIA IT Fundamentals (FCO-U61) #2 Flashcards
Test 2. 76 Questions
Which of the following specifically refers to a deliberate attack aimed at overwhelming a system or network, rendering it unavailable?
Denial of service attack (DoS attack)
Overall explanation
A denial of service (DoS) attack is a deliberate and malicious act aimed at overwhelming a system or network with excessive traffic or requests. The intention is to render the targeted system or network unavailable to its intended users. This is the correct answer as it specifically refers to the described attack. Destruction involves physical damage or harm caused by events like natural disasters, fires, or deliberate acts. While destruction can render systems unavailable, it is not specifically related to overwhelming a system or network with excessive traffic or requests. While a power outage can impact the availability of information systems, it is not a deliberate attack aimed at overwhelming the system. Power outages occur due to factors like severe weather conditions or infrastructure issues, affecting the electrical power supply and potentially causing service disruptions. A service outage refers to the unavailability or disruption of a specific service. While service outages can be caused by various factors, including hardware failures or software issues, they are not specifically related to overwhelming a system or network as described in the question.
Which network connection types utilize wireless technology? (Select two).
1.Radio Frequency
2.Correct selection
Satellite
Overall explanation
Wireless connections utilize radio frequency signals for data transmission. This includes technologies like Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and NFC, which are commonly used for short-range wireless communication between devices. Satellite connections use satellites to transmit data signals, enabling connectivity in remote areas. However, satellite connections are not wireless in the traditional sense as they require satellite dishes and receivers for communication. Cable connections use physical cables, such as coaxial or Ethernet cables, for data transmission and are not wireless connections. Fiber optic connections use fiber optic cables to transmit data and are not wireless connections. DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) uses telephone lines for data transmission and is not a wireless connection.
Which type of storage device uses non-volatile memory to store data?
SSD
Overall explanation
SSD stands for Solid State Drive, and it uses non-volatile memory, typically in the form of flash memory chips, to store data. SSDs are faster and more reliable than traditional hard drives. GPU stands for Graphics Processing Unit, and it is responsible for rendering and processing graphics. It is not a storage device. A cooling system is not a storage device. Its purpose is to keep the computer components, including the storage devices, cool to prevent overheating. RAM is a type of volatile memory. Volatile memory is storage that loses its data when power is disconnected or turned off.
In terms of data accessibility, which of the following has the fastest retrieval time?
Hard drive
Overall explanation
Hard drives grant immediate data retrieval as they’re directly connected to the computer. Data access is much quicker than with other storage solutions. Cloud storage services generally have more latency than local storage solutions like hard drives due to internet connectivity and server response times. Optical storage (such as CDs or DVDs) typically have slower access times compared to hard drives due to the mechanical nature of the read/write process. Network Attached Storage (NAS) implies that there might be network-latency associated with retrieving data due to the fact that the data traverse a network before reaching the computer.
How does prioritization play a role in disaster recovery?
It determines the order in which data is restored
Overall explanation
Prioritization in disaster recovery plays a crucial role in determining the order in which data is restored. Not all systems and data may be equally critical to the organization’s operations, so prioritization helps ensure that the most important data is restored first, allowing the organization to resume its core functions as quickly as possible. While prioritization is important for managing backup operations, it is not its primary role in disaster recovery. Prioritization in disaster recovery refers to determining the order in which systems and data are restored after a disaster or system failure. While prioritization can be considered when determining the frequency of backup operations, it is not its primary role in disaster recovery. While prioritization may influence the level of redundancy for critical systems, it is not its primary role in disaster recovery.
Which of these storage types relies on movable mechanical parts to read and write data?
Hard drive
Overall explanation
Spinning disk hard drives rely on a mechanical arm with a read/write head to access data which is housed on the spinning disks, making them the correct option for this question. Flash drive also uses flash memory for data storage, hence there are no movable mechanical parts involved in reading and writing data. Contrary to spinning disk hard drives, solid state drives use flash memory to store data thus eliminating the need for moving mechanical parts. RAM uses electronic memory cells to instantly read and write data, and does not require mechanical components to function.
Which of the following devices is normally utilized by healthcare professionals for patient monitoring, sometimes remotely, and diagnostic purposes?
Medical devices
Overall explanation
Medical devices are specifically designed for healthcare fields, offering vital patient monitoring and diagnostic capabilities. The use of electronic technology to remotely monitor and configure medical devices is rapidly expanding beyond traditional healthcare settings, encompassing portable devices like cardiac monitors/defibrillators and insulin pumps. This enables healthcare professionals to remotely make necessary adjustments to dosage levels or settings, reducing the need for patients to physically visit their care providers. Workstations are powerful computing devices mainly used for complex calculations, professional-grade graphic design or programming, not medical diagnosis and monitoring. Streaming media devices mainly provide digital entertainment. They are not designed for direct medical usage. Mobile phones, while versatile, are not specifically intended for medical diagnoses or direct patient monitoring.
Steve, a network administrator at Dion Training, wants to stop an unresponsive application on a Windows PC. Which feature of the operating system will facilitate this?
Process management/scheduling
Overall explanation
Process management/scheduling controls how programs run on the operating system. In this context, it allows the user to terminate the unresponsive application. Though part of disk management, disk defragmentation is not associated with stopping unresponsive applications. While memory management relates to how the OS allocates memory, it doesn’t help in ending an unresponsive application. Device compatibility has more to do with ensuring hardware devices work properly with the operating system, not with managing applications.
Jamal is a software engineer who has confirmed the root cause of a bug in his application. Which of the following strategies would be the MOST effective for Jamal in resolving this problem?
Developing a plan based on the confirmed root cause and implementing the necessary changes to resolve the problem
Overall explanation
Developing a plan based on the confirmed root cause and implementing the necessary changes to resolve the problem allows Jamal to directly address the root cause of the problem, leading to a more effective and efficient resolution. Trying random solutions until the problem is resolved can be time-consuming and does not guarantee a solution. It’s also not an efficient use of resources. While collaboration can be helpful, waiting for someone else to determine the next steps can delay progress and does not guarantee a solution. Ignoring the confirmed root cause can lead to ineffective solutions and waste of time.
Amanda is a junior database developer who has just started learning about relational databases. Her senior colleague mentioned the term “schema” during a discussion. What does the term “schema” refer to?
The structure of a database, including tables and relationships
Overall explanation
A schema in a database context defines the structure of the database itself. It’s like a blueprint of the database, outlining details such as tables, fields, data types, indexes, and the relationships between them. While security is a critical aspect of databases, it is not what the term ‘schema’ refers to. A schema does not directly deal with database security measures. While the type and version of the database software may affect the functionalities available, the term ‘schema’ does not refer to the software version. While ensuring data consistency is an important aspect of databases, ‘schema’ is not primarily about data consistency rules. Constraints and rules to maintain data consistency could be a part of the schema structure, but they’re not what the term ‘schema’ mainly refers to.
How does incorporating a loop MOST affect the sequence of a program’s operations?
Looping can cause certain steps in the sequence to be repeated based on specific conditions
Overall explanation
Incorporating loops can affect the sequence of a program by enabling the repeated execution of a certain set of steps based on specific conditions. Looping can significantly impact the sequence of a program by enabling the repeated execution of a specific series of operations. While loops add a degree of complexity, they do not inherently make a sequence less readable when implemented properly. Regardless of loops, sequence remains crucial for structuring the execution flow of a program.
Emily, a security analyst at Dion Training, wants to prevent attackers from capturing and retransmitting legitimate data to deceive the system. Which of the following threats should she be particularly focused on?
Replay attack
Overall explanation
Emily should be particularly focused on the threat of a replay attack. In this type of attack, attackers capture legitimate data transmissions and retransmit them to deceive the system. It aims to exploit vulnerabilities associated with repeated or unauthenticated data transmission. Preventing replay attacks often involves implementing mechanisms like message timestamps, nonces, or session tokens. Impersonation refers to someone pretending to be another person or entity. While impersonation can be a security concern, it does not specifically pertain to preventing attackers from capturing and retransmitting legitimate data. A man-in-the-middle attack involves an unauthorized individual intercepting and potentially manipulating the communication between two parties. While it is a security concern, it does not directly relate to preventing attackers from capturing and retransmitting legitimate data. Unauthorized information alteration involves the unauthorized modification or tampering of data. While it is a security concern, it does not specifically relate to preventing attackers from capturing and retransmitting legitimate data.
Tom just bought a wireless mouse for his laptop. To use the mouse, which of the following does he most likely need to do?
Plug-and-play
Overall explanation
Most wireless mice are designed to be recognized and installed automatically once connected to the computer, a process known as plug-and-play. IP-based configuration is generally used for network devices and is typically not required for a wireless mouse. While some peripherals may require driver installation, most wireless mice are plug-and-play and do not require additional drivers to function. Web-based configuration is typically used for network devices and is not generally required for a wireless mouse.
Which of the following interfaces is used for digital video output and can support multiple monitors from a single connector?
DisplayPort
Overall explanation
DisplayPort is a digital display interface that can support multiple monitors from a single connector via a feature called Multi-Stream Transport (MST). While there are USB solutions that support video output, DisplayPort is a dedicated display interface that can support multiple monitors. While HDMI can transmit video and audio, it typically does not support multiple monitors from a single connector. The RJ-45 connector is typically used for Ethernet networks, not for digital video output.
What can be said about cloud storage services and local network storage types that make them similar?
Remote accessibility
Overall explanation
Both cloud storage and local network storage types like NAS or file servers provide data storage and retrieval services accessible remotely over a network. Optical storage primarily involves data record and playback; remote access is not a core functionality of these devices. Flash drives, while portable, do not inherently provide remote accessibility to data. RAM and Hard Drives are local storage devices and their primary data handling does not involve remote access, making this less applicable to them.
Mike, a helpdesk technician, is troubleshooting a user’s issue with a specific application that keeps crashing on launch. Mike has already identified the problem as a corrupted application file. He has also established a plan of action to reinstall the application. However, Mike doesn’t have the administrative privileges necessary to uninstall or install applications. Which of the following is the BEST next step?
Escalate the issue to a higher-level technician who has the necessary privileges
Overall explanation
Since Mike doesn’t have the necessary privileges to implement the solution himself, the appropriate action would be to escalate the issue to a higher-level technician or supervisor who does. This would ensure the solution is implemented correctly without violating any security protocols. Generally, asking the user to uninstall and reinstall the application is not recommended because the user may not have the technical knowledge necessary to accomplish this accurately without potentially causing further issues. Restarting the computer wouldn’t solve the problem in this particular case as the issue is with a corrupted application file. It’s a breach of policy and security protocols to use someone else’s account, even for legitimate purposes.
Which of the following are considered reputable software sources
Official vendor websites and app stores
Overall explanation
Official vendor websites and app stores, such as Microsoft Store, Apple App Store, or Google Play Store, are reputable software sources. These platforms provide legitimate and authorized software that has undergone security checks, ensuring users download genuine and safe applications. Freeware websites can provide legitimate software options, but those without user ratings or reviews may lack credibility. User ratings and reviews often provide insights into the quality, safety, and user experience of the software, helping users make informed decisions. Third-party websites offering cracked software are not reputable sources. Such websites often distribute unauthorized and modified versions of software, which can be illegal and compromised with malware or other security risks. Peer-to-peer file-sharing networks are not typically considered reputable software sources. While they may offer access to various software applications, the authenticity, integrity, and security of the downloaded files cannot be guaranteed. There is a higher risk of downloading malware or pirated software from such networks.
Which of the following interfaces is used to connect a monitor to a computer and supports high-definition video and audio?
HDMI
Overall explanation
HDMI, or High-Definition Multimedia Interface, is used to transmit high-definition video and audio from a device to a display. Bluetooth is a wireless technology used for connecting devices over short distances, but it doesn’t support high-definition video transmission like HDMI. The RJ-45 connector is typically used for Ethernet networks, not for transmitting video and audio signals. While some types of USB can transmit video and audio, it is not as commonly used for this purpose as HDMI.
Which term refers to the practice of gathering sensitive information by going through someone’s trash or discarded materials?
Dumpster diving
Overall explanation
Dumpster diving refers to the practice of searching through trash or discarded materials to gather sensitive information or valuable items. This term accurately describes the act mentioned in the question, making it the correct answer. Wiretapping is the act of intercepting and listening to telephonic or digital communications by tapping into the wire or cable carrying the communication. It does not involve going through trash or discarded materials. Eavesdropping involves secretly listening to or monitoring private conversations or communications without permission. It does not encompass the act of going through trash or discarded materials. Snooping refers to the unauthorized act of observing or accessing someone else’s private information or activities. It typically involves digital intrusion or unauthorized access. However, it does not specifically pertain to going through trash or discarded materials.
Why are variables important in programming?
They allow developers to store data for later use
Overall explanation
In programming, variables are like containers that store data values. Developers can assign values to variables, manipulate these values, and then reference them at a later stage in the code. This makes them fundamental to all programming languages. While efficient use of variables can influence a program’s performance, they do not inherently reduce the loading time of a program. Loading times typically depend more on aspects like the complexity of the code, data processing tasks, network latency, and hardware capabilities. Variables make a language easier to understand and use, not more difficult. They provide a way to label data with a descriptive name, so our programs can be understood more clearly by the reader and ourselves. Variables do not directly increase the security of a codebase. While secure handling and storing of variable values is a part of good programming security practices, simply using variables does not inherently make a codebase more secure.
Which term refers to instances of running applications actively executing tasks in the operating system?
Processes
Overall explanation
Processes refer to the active execution instances of applications or tasks running in an operating system. Drivers are software pieces that enable communication with hardware. They are not instances of running applications. Services are background tasks that run without user participation on the operating system, but they do not necessarily refer to active application instances. Task scheduling is an operating system utility feature that sets up tasks to run automatically at certain times. It is not a term for actively executing applications.
Which data representation method is a character encoding standard that represents text and control characters in computers, communication equipment, and other devices, using 7 bits to define each character?
ASCII
Overall explanation
ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) is a character encoding standard that represents text and control characters in computers, communication equipment, and other devices. It uses 7 bits to define each character, making it the correct choice for this question. Hexadecimal is a base-16 numbering system that uses digits from 0-9 and letters A-F to represent values. It is often employed in programming and digital communication, but it is not a character encoding standard. While Unicode is a character encoding standard that accommodates a wide set of characters and symbols from various languages, it is not the correct choice for this question because it does not use 7 bits to define each character. Unicode is much more extensive than ASCII but is not specifically 7-bit based. Binary is a base-2 numbering system that employs only two base digits (0 and 1) and represents the fundamental building blocks of digital computers. It is not a character encoding standard.
What encryption type is used where a single secret key is used to both encrypt and decrypt data?
Symmetric Encryption
Overall explanation
In symmetric encryption, a single secret key is used to both encrypt and decrypt data. Hashing is a process of converting an input of any length into a fixed size string of text, it’s not an encryption type. PKI is a set of roles, policies, and procedures to enable users and devices to securely exchange data over the internet and verify the authenticity of digital certificates, it’s not an encryption type. In asymmetric encryption, a pair of keys (public and private) are used, where one key encrypts the data and the other key decrypts it.
Nia is a database manager for a fitness application. A user has recently contacted customer service to correct their recorded weight in the app from 150 lbs to 140 lbs. Which SQL command should Nia use to make the necessary adjustment in the database?
UPDATE
Overall explanation
Nia should use the UPDATE command. This command is used to modify the existing records in a database. With the UPDATE command, she can easily correct the user’s recorded weight in the database. The INSERT command is used to add new records to a database, not for updating existing records. The DELETE command is used to remove existing records from a database, not for updating records. The SELECT command is used to retrieve data from a database, not for updating records.
Emily, a security-conscious user, wants to implement preventive measures to protect her computer from advanced malware attacks. Which of the following practices should Emily adopt to enhance her defense against sophisticated malware? (Select TWO).
Using a reputable antivirus/anti-malware software
Overall explanation
Enabling automatic software updates ensures that operating systems, applications, and security software receive the latest patches and security enhancements. Regular updates help protect against known vulnerabilities and strengthen defenses against sophisticated malware attacks. Using a reputable antivirus/anti-malware software is essential for protecting against a wide range of malware threats. These software solutions can detect, quarantine, and remove malware, providing an additional layer of defense against sophisticated attacks. Disabling browser extensions can help reduce the risk of certain types of malware, such as malicious browser extensions. However, it may not provide comprehensive protection against sophisticated malware attacks. User Account Control is a security feature that provides an additional layer of protection by prompting for user permission before allowing potentially harmful actions. Disabling UAC weakens the system’s security and may make it more vulnerable to sophisticated malware attacks. Downloading software from unverified sources increases the risk of malware infections. Sophisticated malware can disguise itself as legitimate software, making it crucial to download software from trusted and verified sources only.
Lara, a small business owner, wants to acquire new software for her employees. Her staff varies in size from season to season, so she needs a license that can cater for that. Which form of licensing should she consider?
Concurrent license
Overall explanation
A concurrent license allows a specified number of users to access the software at any given time. This is optimal for Lara’s fluctuating team size, as it provides flexibility. Although group use/site license permit multiple users, it sets a fixed user number. This could present issues for Lara’s variable staff size. Despite offering multiple user access, an open-source license might not offer Lara the business-specific features or professional customer support a commercial product with a concurrent license would. Single-use licenses only permit one user to install and use the software. It wouldn’t suit Lara’s needs as she has multiple employees who need to use the software.
In normal computer operation, a Solid State Drive (SSD) primarily serves which of the following functions?
Storage
Overall explanation
Storage function relates to saving and retaining data and instructions for future use. A SSD is a storage device that offers fast access to data stored in it. The function of an input is to enter data into a computer for processing. Devices such as a keyboard, mouse, or a scanner typically serve this function, not a SSD. Output is all about displaying, printing, or transmitting information that the CPU has processed. Though data is read from the SSD to be output, the SSD itself does not perform this function. Processing involves the manipulation or computing of the data by the CPU based on the provided instructions. A SSD does not perform this function. Instead, it provides a location for storing these instructions.
Jennifer, a financial analyst at Dion Training, decides to use Microsoft Excel to help analyze complex financial data. This software is an example of:
Spreadsheet software
Overall explanation
Microsoft Excel is the most popular spreadsheet software in the world. It is a powerful tool that can be used for a variety of tasks, including data analysis, financial modeling, and creating charts and graphs. Although database software can store large amounts of data, it doesn’t readily provide the functions to analyze it. While it can help in visual representation, visual diagramming software wouldn’t be apt for performing calculations or analyzing data. Word processing software is for document creation and editing, not suitable for performing data analysis.
What BEST describes the purpose of a record in a database?
To store related data in various fields
Overall explanation
A record in a database, most often represented as a row, stores related data across various fields. Each field, or column, holds a specific type of information pertaining to the record. The structure of a table is determined by its schema, including columns and data types, not by individual records. Records populate the table according to this structure. While operations can be performed to alter records in a table (like UPDATE operations in SQL), the primary purpose of a record is not to alter data. Records are not directly responsible for data removal. Data removal is accomplished through operations like the DELETE command in SQL.
Kai is part of a team developing a content management system where the data structure is not fixed and can vary greatly among content pieces. Also, the system needs the ability to handle a large amount of unstructured and semi-structured data. Which type of database would be BEST suited for Kai to meet these requirements?
Document-oriented Database
Overall explanation
Document-oriented databases are designed to store, retrieve, and manage document-oriented, or semi-structured, data. These databases offer great flexibility and are especially useful when the data structure varies greatly. Graph databases are excellent at managing data sets where relationships are crucial. They are less efficient and flexible, however, when dealing with unstructured and semi-structured data typical in a content management system. Key-value databases are known for their speed and simplicity, particularly with simple data models. They are less suited to data structures with varied or complex relationships, like the data in a content management system. While relational databases are efficient at handling structured data, they are less flexible when dealing with unstructured and semi-structured data common in a content management system.
