CompTIA IT Fundamentals (FCO-U61) # 1

Question 1

Jane needs to share a large amount of data with her team, who all work in the same office building. Which local network storage type would be more suitable for her?

Answer 1

NAS.

Overall explanation
NAS Network-attached storage (NAS) devices provide dedicated, shared storage over a network, making it ideal for sharing files among a team in the same office. Flash drives, although portable and reusable, wouldn’t facilitate easy sharing among teams without physically passing the drive around, making them less suitable for Jane’s scenario. Solid state drives (SSDs) provide fast data access but aren’t directly shareable like network storage solutions. A Hard Disk Drive (HDD) provides storage, but isn’t as easily shareable between multiple users without additional networking technology.

Question 2

Which of the following types of RAM architecture allows for larger memory addressing and better performance?

Answer 2

64-bit RAM

(Overall explanation
64-bit RAM refers to a memory architecture that can address significantly larger amounts of memory compared to 32-bit RAM. It allows for better performance and supports larger memory capacities. 32-bit RAM refers to a memory architecture that can address up to 4 GB of memory. It has limitations in terms of memory addressing and may not support larger memory sizes. GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) RAM refers to the dedicated memory used by the graphics card for storing graphics data. It is specific to the graphics processing and not the main system RAM. SSD (Solid State Drive) is a type of storage device that uses non-volatile memory for data storage. It is not directly related to RAM architecture.

Question 3

Which of the following is designed to efficiently handle multiple concurrent users?

Answer 3

Databases

( Overall explanation
Databases are designed to handle multiple concurrent users. They have mechanisms in place (like locking and transaction control) to handle simultaneous access and modification of data, ensuring data consistency and integrity. Flat files do not have in-built support for managing multiple concurrent users. They lack the advanced features of databases, such as record locking, which can lead to problems with data consistency and integrity when accessed by multiple users simultaneously. While both databases and flat files can be accessed by multiple users, only databases have mechanisms to handle simultaneous access and modification efficiently and safely. Databases do have robust mechanisms for dealing with multiple concurrent users, ensuring that multiple users can access and modify the data efficiently without compromising data integrity.

Question 4

Which of the following methods of authentication involves something that the user has?

Answer 4

(Hardware Token)

( Overall explanation
Hardware tokens are physical devices used for authentication. They fall under the category of something the user possesses. Security questions are a type of knowledge-based authentication. They are categorized as something the user knows, not something the user possesses. A PIN (Personal Identification Number) is a knowledge factor used for authentication. It’s categorized as something the user knows, not something the user possesses. Biometrics involve unique physical or behavioral attributes of a user, they are categorized as something the user is, not something the user possesses.

Question 5

Jacob is setting up a network for his company. He is comparing various internet service providers and their offers. In the context of network throughput, which unit should he consider for evaluating their data transfer rates?

Answer 5

Megabits per second (Mbps)

( Overall
explanation
Network throughput, or the rate at which data is transferred, is often measured in Mbps or Gbps (Gigabits per second). The higher the Mbps, the faster the data transfer rate. GDDR is a type of memory used in graphic cards, not a unit of data transfer. Watts measure power, not data transfer. Ampere is a unit of electric current, not data transfer.)

Question 6

What is the purpose of password history requirements?

Answer 6

(To prevent users from reusing old passwords)

( Overall explanation
Password history requirements are implemented to prevent users from reusing previously used passwords. This helps enhance security by ensuring that users choose new and unique passwords when changing their passwords. Enforcing a maximum number of failed login attempts is typically part of account lockout policies and is not directly tied to password history. Reminding users to change their passwords regularly is typically part of password expiration policies, not password history requirements. Tracking and monitoring user login activities is not the primary purpose of password history requirements. While monitoring user login activities may be important for security purposes, password history requirements specifically focus on preventing password reuse.

Question 7

What are folders/directories primarily used for?

Answer 7

(Organizing files within a system)

Overall explanation
The principal function of folders/directories is to create an organized structure within a file system for easy navigation and management, hence the correct answer. While permissions can be assigned to directories, their primary purpose is not to set file permissions, but rather to provide an organizational structure within a file system. Folders don’t primarily serve to encrypt files. Even though certain systems allow entire directories to be encrypted, this is not the fundamental role of a directory. Folders/directories do not modify file extensions. File extensions are defined when a file is created and can be changed or managed independently of their location in directories.

Question 8

Which of the following external factors can cause an unplanned and temporary disruption of service specifically due to a loss of infrastructure?

Answer 8

(Destruction)
Overall explanation
Destruction caused by external factors like natural disasters, fires, or physical damage can lead to an unplanned and temporary disruption of service specifically due to a loss of infrastructure. When the infrastructure is destroyed or severely damaged, it directly impacts the availability of systems and services. A power outage specifically due to a loss of electrical power supply can cause an unplanned and temporary disruption of service. A power outage, whether caused by severe weather conditions, utility failures, or other external factors, directly affects the infrastructure and can result in the loss of availability of systems and services. A service outage, which refers to the unavailability or disruption of a specific service, can be caused by various factors, including both internal and external causes. While external factors like network disruptions or infrastructure issues can contribute to service outages, they may not be directly tied to a loss of infrastructure as required by the specific context of the question. While denial of service (DoS) attacks can cause a disruption of service, they are typically intentional actions initiated by an attacker rather than a loss of infrastructure. DoS attacks overwhelm systems with excessive traffic or requests, rendering them unavailable, but they are not caused by a loss of infrastructure.

Question 9

Sarah is a computer technician at a large office. She is tasked with setting up and configuring several network printers and scanners for the newly established marketing department. Sarah needs to ensure that the IP addresses for each device are correctly assigned to enable network communication. What type of peripherals typically require manual configuration of IP addresses for network connectivity?

Answer 9

(IP-based peripherals)

Overall explanation
IP-based peripherals, such as network printers, IP cameras, or network storage devices, typically require manual configuration of IP addresses for network connectivity. These devices rely on IP (Internet Protocol) addresses to communicate over a network. During setup, you need to assign a specific IP address to the peripheral device, ensuring that it is unique and compatible with the network infrastructure. This manual configuration allows the device to establish communication and connect to the network. Driver installation is the process of installing the necessary software (drivers) to enable proper communication between the peripheral device and the computer’s operating system. It does not directly involve IP address configuration. Plug-and-play peripherals are designed to be automatically recognized and configured by the computer without the need for manual IP address configuration. These devices are typically connected to the computer via a USB or Thunderbolt port and rely on the operating system’s automatic network configuration capabilities. Web-based configuration refers to the setup and configuration of network devices through a web-based user interface. This may involve accessing the device’s settings using a web browser and configuring various parameters, but it is not specifically related to IP address configuration.

Question 10

Which of the following BEST describes one of the main purposes of a database?

Answer 10

(To provide structured storage of data)

Overall explanation
A key purpose of a database is to provide structured storage of data. This allows for efficient and organized data retrieval, modification, and storage. Databases are not usually involved in creating animations for video games. Instead, game developers use specialized software for this task. Databases are not typically used to design website interfaces. This is generally the role of UI/UX design tools and front-end programming languages. While databases can store information used in documents, they are not typically used to automate document creation. This task typically falls under document automation software.

Question 11

You are given an array arr = [12, 7, 15, 21, 27] in a programming language. You wish to access the third element of this array using zero-based indexing. Which of the following sorts of access will provide you the desired result?

Answer 11

Your answer is correct
arr[2]

Overall explanation
In zero-based indexing, the first element of the array is at index 0, second element is at index 1, and so forth. Therefore, the third element is at index 2. arr[0] accesses the first element of the array in zero-based indexing, not the third. arr[1] will access the second element of the array in zero-based indexing, not the third. arr[3] will access the fourth element of the array in zero-based indexing, not the third.

Question 12

Which licensing model would you likely encounter when subscribing to a Software as a Service (SaaS) product?

Answer 12

(Subscription)

Overall explanation
In a subscription model, users pay a recurring fee to access the software, often on a monthly or yearly basis. This payment structure is typically characteristic of SaaS offerings, where the software is hosted remotely. A group use or site license enables use of the software for multiple users within a specified location, but doesn’t inherently align with recurring fees, as required in a subscription-based model. Thus, while it could sometimes apply to SaaS products, it doesn’t by definition. Under a one-time purchase model, users pay a flat fee for permanent access to the software. While this may be applicable to some software applications, it is less common for SaaS products which require regular updates and ongoing support. Open source licenses allow users to freely use, modify, or distribute the software. This is not typically characteristic of SaaS products, which more commonly operate on a subscription model.

Question 13

In the context of object-oriented programming, what is a property of an object?

Answer 13

(A property is a characteristic or attribute of an object, used to hold data)

Overall explanation
In object-oriented programming, properties (also known as attributes) are used to hold information or data for an object. They represent the object’s state. Actions or functions that an object can perform are referred to as methods, not properties. The relationship between two or more objects isn’t considered a property. This concept is more related to ideas like association, aggregation, and inheritance. A contract between an object and its subclasses is more related to concepts like interfaces or abstract classes, not properties.

Question 14

Which of the following software types is tailored to meet a company’s unique requirements and help streamline its operations?

Answer 14

(Business-specific applications)

Overall explanation
Business-specific applications are typically bespoke, designed specifically for a company’s needs, enabling them to streamline their unique operations. Customer relationship management (CRM) software helps businesses manage their customer interactions. It can be used to track customer leads, sales opportunities, and customer support tickets. While useful for business interactions, conferencing software doesn’t deliver customization unique to each company’s operational needs. Email clients are predominantly for sending, receiving, and organizing emails. They do not typically provide business-specific functionalities designed for any unique operational needs a company may have. Instant messaging software is largely for communication in real-time—rapidly and efficiently—but it doesn’t focus on unique operational needs of a company.

Question 15

How do document databases differ from traditional relational databases?

Answer 15

(Document databases store data in a semi-structured format allowing for flexibility in data structure)

Overall explanation
Document databases, unlike traditional relational databases, are designed to store, retrieve, and manage document-oriented information, often in a semi-structured format like JSON. This design allows for more flexibility in data structure. Contrary to this, document databases can model relationships, albeit differently from relational databases, such as through nesting data within a single document. While the name might suggest it, document databases do not exclusively store text documents. They use a document-oriented model to manage more varied data types. Speed depends on various factors, not just the type of database. For certain types of data and queries, document databases can even be faster.

Question 16

Kris is a software engineer tasked with developing a new feature for an application. Which of the following strategies would be the MOST effective for Kris in ensuring the best solution?

Answer 16

(Considering multiple approaches and choosing the one that best fits the requirements)

Overall explanation
Considering multiple approaches and choosing the one that best fits the requirements allows Kris to evaluate different solutions and choose the one that best meets the needs of the application and the team. While collaboration can be helpful, waiting for someone else to suggest a solution can delay progress and does not guarantee the best approach. While the first solution might work, it may not be the most efficient or effective. Considering multiple approaches can lead to a better solution. Even if ignoring other potential solutions once he has found one that works, there might be another approach that is more efficient, easier to maintain, or more scalable.

Question 17

In which of the following scenarios would a database manager need to use the CREATE command?

Answer 17

(When they need to add a new table to the database)
Overall explanation
The CREATE command is used to create a new table or a whole new database. The SELECT command, not the CREATE command, is used to retrieve specific data from a database. The ALTER command, not the CREATE command, is used to modify the structure of an existing table. The DROP command, not the CREATE command, is used to remove a table or a whole database.

Question 18

Susan is developing a program where the user must input a discount rate as a decimal number to calculate the final price of a product. However, Susan notices that whenever a user inputs a value like 0.15, the program is throwing an error. Which of the following is the MOST likely error?

Answer 18

(The program field was designed to accept an integer, not a float)
Overall explanation
If the programmer designed the program to accept integers only in the specific field for the discount rate, this will cause an error whenever a float number (like 0.15) is inputted. Integer fields will not successfully store float values because of the decimal point. Most programming languages are absolutely capable of recognizing and working with decimal numbers in the form of float values. They are an essential data type, and their use in calculations is very common. While it’s true that user input is often initially received as a string type in many programming languages, good programming practice involves converting this input to the needed data type. In Susan’s case, an error from having a string where a float or integer is expected should only occur if this conversion step is overlooked. However, it wouldn’t specifically cause trouble with inputting float values, but rather any numeric input. There’s no reason that a program should be specifically limited to only accept negative numbers unless it has been explicitly programmed to do so. In general, number fields in programs should be able to accept both positive and negative values unless specified otherwise.

Question 19

Which of the following fundamental data types is used to represent a sequence of characters or text in a programming context?

Answer 19

(Strings)
Overall explanation
Strings are sequences of characters used to represent text in programming. They are comprised of individual characters but specifically designed to represent and manipulate the collection of those characters to form meaningful text. Numbers represent various types of numeric values in programming, such as integers (whole numbers) and floating-point numbers (real numbers). They are designed for storing and processing numeric data, not sequences of characters or text. Char represents individual characters, including letters, digits, or special symbols, in a programming context. It is designed for single characters, not sequences of characters or text. Booleans represent truth values, typically true or false, in programming. They are not used for representing sequences of characters or text.

Question 20

In the context of object-oriented programming (OOP), how are functions typically associated with objects?

Answer 20

(Functions, renamed as methods, represent behaviors of objects)

Overall explanation
In OOP, functions are typically called methods and are tied to objects. They define what actions can be performed on or by these objects. In OOP, methods (functions in OOP) are usually declared inside the object, allowing them to directly access and manipulate the object’s data. An object can have multiple methods associated with it, allowing it to perform a variety of actions. Functions, known as methods in an object-oriented context, play a crucial role in OOP. They define the behaviors of objects.

Question 21

Two routers are installed in a house and both are using default settings. What could represent a security risk?

Answer 21

(Both routers are using the default SSID and password)

Overall explanation
This is a significant security risk as attackers can easily find default credentials online, allowing unauthorized access. Supporting 802.11ac does not inherently pose a security risk. In fact, using the latest standard usually provides improved performance and security. Using different channels can help avoid interference, it’s a good practice and doesn’t pose a security risk. The location of a router can influence signal strength and coverage, but it doesn’t constitute an inherent security risk, except if the network is open or using weak encryption.

Question 22

What is the primary difference between plain text and cipher text?

Answer 22

(Plain text is readable and understandable, while cipher text is encrypted.)
Overall explanation
Plain text refers to unencrypted and readable text, while cipher text refers to text that has been encrypted to make it unreadable without the decryption key. The difference between plain text and cipher text is related to encryption, not compression. Plain text and cipher text can both be compressed or uncompressed, depending on other factors. Both plain text and cipher text can be transmitted over a network or stored locally. The primary difference lies in whether the text is encrypted (cipher text) or not (plain text) Plain text is not encrypted, but rather it is the original readable text. Cipher text is the result of encrypting plain text

Question 23

Lisa is continually pestered by unwanted ads while browsing. How could she reduce this annoyance?

Answer 23

(Enabling a popup blocker)

Overall explanation
Enabling a popup blocker can reduce or eliminate unwanted ads, as it prevent popups which are commonly used for advertising. Deactivating client-side scripting could reduce certain ads but it also risks making some web pages to function improperly or not at all. Clearing the browser cache can improve performance, but it won’t directly stop unwanted ads from appearing. Adding an invalid certificate to the browser is not related to ad reduction and poses a significant security risk.

Question 24

What software is specifically meant for managing work projects and tasks within a team?

Answer 24

(Project management software)

Overall explanation
Project management software is designed to aid in planning, scheduling, resource allocation, and change management. It facilitates the process of managing work projects and tasks within teams. While conferencing software is crucial for team meetings and discussions, it is not specifically designed for project and task management. It facilitates real-time communication and collaboration, not project management. Visual diagramming software, while useful for creating process maps or organizational structure, is not specifically designed for managing projects or tasks. An email client allows users to manage and send emails, but it isn’t designed for comprehensive project and task management. It is an essential component of workplace communication, not project management.

Question 25

Samuel is setting up his computer workstation and wants to connect his computer to an older display device that uses analog signals. Which of the following is MOST used to connect a computer to a display device using analog signals?

Answer 25

(VGA)

VGA (Video Graphics Array) is a type of connector commonly used to connect a computer to a display device, such as a monitor or projector, using analog signals. It is characterized by its distinctive 15-pin configuration and is widely supported by older display devices. HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) is a digital interface commonly used to connect audio/video sources, such as computers, Blu-ray players, or game consoles, to display devices. It does not use analog signals like VGA. DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is a digital interface commonly used to connect computers and display devices. While DVI supports both analog and digital signals, the analog variant (DVI-A) is less common and is not typically used for connecting to display devices using analog signals. DisplayPort is a digital display interface commonly used to connect computers and display devices. It supports high-resolution video and audio, but it does not use analog signals. DisplayPort is gradually replacing VGA and DVI connections in modern devices.

Question 26

Which of the following best describes the primary function of encryption in mobile applications?

Answer 26

Securing data stored within the application and during transmission.

Overall explanation
In mobile applications, encryption is mainly used to safeguard sensitive data from unauthorized access. This includes data at rest (stored within the application or device) and data in transit (during transmission over networks). With encryption, the data will remain unreadable to any unauthorized entity without the correct decryption key. While encryption is crucial for security, it doesn’t speed up data transmission. In fact, the process of encrypting and decrypting data can sometimes slightly slow down transmission speeds. Encryption is meant to enhance security, not to reduce the size of the application. The process of encryption and decryption has no significant impact on the overall size of a mobile application. The user interface (UI) design is independent of the data encryption process. While a user-friendly UI is vital for good user experience, it does not have a direct relationship with the encryption of data.

Question 27

In a high-level programming language, you have a repeating sequence of actions that needs to process different sets of data at various points in your code. Which programming concept is BEST suited to bundle these actions for future reuse and maintain a DRY (Don’t Repeat Yourself) approach?

Answer 27

(Creating a function that encapsulates the repeating actions)

Overall explanation
Functions are designed for this kind of task, encapsulating actions and allowing for code reusability and a DRY approach. Arrays are used for holding data, not pieces of code or actions. Variables hold data, not actions. So this approach won’t help to encapsulate the repeating actions. While loops can repeat code, they are less versatile for this task than functions, especially when the repeated actions need to be performed at various points in the code.

Question 28

What is the main difference between OEM websites vs third-party websites?

Answer 28

(OEM websites provide software directly from the original manufacturer, while third-party websites offer modified versions or unauthorized copies)

Overall explanation
The main difference between OEM websites and third-party websites is that OEM websites are authorized by the original equipment manufacturer to distribute their software. They offer genuine, unaltered versions of the software. On the other hand, third-party websites may provide modified or unauthorized copies of the software, which can pose security risks. OEM websites offer discounted prices and exclusive deals and third-party websites have higher prices, but this isn’t the main difference between the two. OEM websites focus on hardware sales and third-party websites specialize in software distribution but this isn’t the main difference between the two. OEM websites require user registration and verification and third-party websites allow anonymous downloads, but this isn’t the main difference between the two.

Question 29

In SQL, which statements are used to grant or deny specific rights to user accounts over objects in the database?

Answer 29

Data Control Language (DCL)

Overall explanation
DCL commands in SQL, such as GRANT and DENY, are used to control access rights for user accounts over objects in the database. They allow specific permissions to be granted or denied to users for performing actions on tables, columns, views, and the database itself. Data Query Language (DQL) is not a widely used term in SQL. While queries are an essential part of retrieving data, the term DQL is not commonly used to represent a specific category of commands related to granting or denying access rights. Data Definition Language (DDL) commands, such as CREATE and DROP, are used to define and manage the structure of a database, including creating tables, altering table structures, and defining constraints. DDL commands do not directly deal with granting or denying access rights to user accounts. Data Manipulation Language (DML) commands are used to manipulate data within a database, such as inserting, updating, or querying records. DML commands do not directly involve granting or denying specific rights to user accounts.

Question 30

Which of these file systems is designed with a limitation to a single user, making it unsuitable for multi-user systems?

Answer 30

(FAT32)

Overall explanation
FAT32 was designed for single-user systems and thus lacks the ability to set permissions on a per-user basis, a necessary feature for multi-user systems. NTFS supports multi-user systems by incorporating file and folder permission settings that allow control over which users can access or modify files. HFS, used predominantly with macOS, supports multi-user systems with its permissions system that can be set on a per-user and per-group basis. Ext4 is designed with Linux in mind, an operating system often used in multi-user environments. Thus, it supports per-user and per-group permissions.

Question 31

What is the primary purpose of creating written IT policies and procedures in an organization?

Answer 31

(To guide employees in using IT resources securely)

Overall explanation
Creating written IT policies and procedures is primarily intended to guide employees in understanding and adhering to secure and responsible practices while using the organization’s IT resources and services. Written IT policies and procedures can lead to more efficient use of IT resources, which may indirectly help reduce costs. However, their main goal is to ensure safe and secure usage of IT infrastructure. Monitoring employee performance is not the main goal of IT policies and procedures. They are developed to ensure safe and responsible use of the company’s IT resources. While IT policies may include guidelines on appropriate internet usage, this is not the primary purpose of these policies. They aim to cover a broader spectrum of secure computing and networking practices.

Question 32

Mark, an IT technician at Dion Training, is tasked with implementing a security measure to protect the company’s internal network from unauthorized external access. He decides to deploy a hardware or software-based solution that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined rules. Which of the following security measures is Mark implementing?

Answer 32

(Firewall protection)
Overall explanation
Mark is implementing firewall protection. A firewall is a hardware or software-based security measure that monitors and filters network traffic based on predetermined rules. It acts as a barrier between an internal network and external networks, helping to prevent unauthorized access and protect the internal network from potential threats. User access control involves managing user privileges and permissions to restrict access to sensitive resources within a network. While an important security measure, it does not directly relate to monitoring and filtering network traffic to protect against unauthorized external access. Data encryption involves converting information into a secret code to protect its confidentiality. While it is a valuable security measure, it does not specifically address the scenario of protecting the internal network from unauthorized external access. Antivirus software is designed to detect, prevent, and remove malware from computer systems. While important for protecting against malicious software, it is not specifically related to monitoring and filtering network traffic to prevent unauthorized access.

Question 33

When designing a database, what feature allows you to impose certain limitations on the values that can be entered into each field, ensuring consistency and data integrity?

Answer 33

(Constraints)

Overall explanation
Constraints in databases are rules that are applied to data, both during insertion and updating, to ensure the data matches certain specifications. Constraints help maintain the quality, integrity, and accuracy of data. Indexing is a database feature that enhances search performance by creating indexes on specific columns. While indexing improves query speed, it does not impose constraints on the values entered into each field. Normalization is a technique used in database design to eliminate data redundancy and ensure data integrity. However, it does not directly relate to imposing constraints on the values entered into fields. Encryption is a security measure that transforms data into an unreadable format to protect it from unauthorized access. While encryption provides data protection, it does not restrict or enforce constraints on the values entered into fields.

Question 34

Which of the following interfaces is used primarily for connecting Mac computers and devices, and offers the MOST data transfer speed?

Answer 34

(Thunderbolt)

Overall explanation
Thunderbolt is a high-speed interface commonly used with Apple devices for data transfer and display connectivity. While FireWire is used for data transfer, it has largely been replaced by interfaces like Thunderbolt and USB 3.0. VGA, or Video Graphics Array, is primarily used to connect computers to monitors and does not support high-speed data transfer. The RJ-11 connector is typically used for telephone lines, not high-speed data transfer.

Question 35

In software programming, what functions do loops typically serve? (Select TWO).

Answer 35

Iteratively access array elements

Perform a task repeatedly until a certain condition is met

Overall explanation
Performing a task repeatedly until a certain condition is met is the basic definition of a loop. For example, as long as the condition ‘i < 10’ is true, code within a ‘for’ loop will execute. Iteratively accessing array elements is one of the main uses of loops in programming. Loops can be used to access, modify, and display each element in an array one by one. Making function variables secret isn’t related to looping. This is done through concepts of scope and access modifiers not through loops. Encrypting the code is not related to looping. Encryption is a separate process of converting data into a code to prevent unauthorized access. Establishing data connectivity isn’t related to loops in programming. This is primarily concerned with networking and databases.

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT primarily used as a processing device in a computer system?

Answer 36

SSD

Overall explanation
An SSD is primarily a storage device in a computer system. It retains data even when the system power is turned off. It does not primarily execute processing tasks like a CPU or GPU. A GPU is a processing device that specializes in rendering graphics and image processing, and relieves the CPU of some of these duties. The ALU, or arithmetic logic unit, is a part of the central processing unit (CPU) that performs arithmetic and logical operations on binary numbers. The CPU is the main processing unit of a computer, often referred to as the “brain” of the computer. It performs the majority of processing inside the computer.

Question 37

Which of the following fundamental data types is used to represent truth values, typically true or false, in a programming context?

Answer 37

Boolean

Overall explanation
Booleans represent truth values, typically true or false, in programming. They are specifically designed to handle these binary values efficiently and make it easier to work with logical conditions and operations. Char represents individual characters, including letters, digits, or special symbols, in a programming context. It is not designed to represent truth values such as true or false. Numbers represent various types of numeric values in programming, such as integers (whole numbers) and floating-point numbers (real numbers). They are designed for storing and processing numeric data, not truth values like true or false. Strings are sequences of characters used to represent text in programming. While a representation of truth values could be created with strings, it would be inefficient and not the appropriate data type for representing true or false values.

Question 38

Which component(s) of a computer system are involved in graphics processing? (Select TWO).

Answer 38

Cooling system

Overall explanation
The GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is the correct answer. It is designed specifically for processing and rendering graphics, making it a crucial component for graphical tasks. The cooling system is responsible for dissipating heat generated by the GPU and other components during intensive graphical tasks, ensuring that the GPU can function efficiently. RAM is a type of volatile memory used by a computer system to temporarily store data that’s being processed by the CPU. While it might store graphical data temporarily during processing, it does not perform the actual graphics processing. Instead, that task is primarily performed by the GPU and, to a lesser extent, the CPU. The Hard Disk Drive is the primary storage device in a computer, responsible for storing all data and files persistently, even when the power is turned off. However, it is not directly involved in graphics processing. Graphics processing is handled primarily by the CPU and the GPU, which perform computations and render images to be displayed on the screen. The Power Supply Unit provides the necessary power to all the components of the computer system, including the ones that perform graphics processing. However, the PSU itself doesn’t participate in the graphics processing. It only provides the required power for the components to function effectively.

Question 39

Sarah works as a data entry clerk in Dion Training. Her job involves entering large amounts of data and commands into the computer system. This requires a specific peripheral device designed for this purpose. Which peripheral device is used for entering data and commands into a computer?

Answer 39

Keyboard

Overall explanation
A keyboard is the peripheral device used for entering data and commands into a computer. It consists of a set of keys that correspond to letters, numbers, symbols, and various control functions. Users can type on the keyboard to input text, navigate through menus, and interact with software applications. A mouse is an input device used to control the movement of a cursor or pointer on a computer screen. It allows users to interact with graphical user interfaces and perform various actions such as selecting, clicking, and dragging. While a mouse is used for input, it is primarily used for controlling the cursor rather than entering data or commands. A scanner is a device used to convert physical documents or images into digital format. It captures the content of a document or image and creates a digital representation. Scanners are not used for entering data or commands into a computer. A printer is a device used for producing physical copies of digital documents or images. It is not used for entering data or commands into a computer.

Question 40

John, a project manager at Dion Training, wants to terminate a resource-hungry application. Which of the following would BEST help achieve this?

Answer 40

Process management/scheduling

Overall explanation
Process management/scheduling is an operating system feature that handles application execution, allowing John to terminate a resource-intensive application. Memory management controls how system memory is assigned and used, but doesn’t specifically allow for application termination. Access control/protection governs user rights and permissions, but it does not give the ability to terminate applications. Disk management handles how storage is allocated and used, not controlling running applications.

Question 41

Which of these applications would be considered bloatware? (Select TWO).

Answer 41

Trial software with limited functionality

Pre-installed software that offers unnecessary features or functions

Overall explanation
Trial software with limited functionality can be considered bloatware, especially if it is pre-installed on a system without user consent. Such software may offer limited features or expire after a specific time, often prompting users to purchase the full version. Pre-installed software that offers unnecessary features or functions is commonly categorized as bloatware. These applications often come bundled with the system or other software installations, consuming system resources and potentially affecting performance. Antivirus software is designed to protect systems from malware and other security threats. While some antivirus programs may consume system resources, they are not typically classified as bloatware since their primary purpose is to enhance system security. Productivity suites like Microsoft Office are not typically considered bloatware. They provide essential tools for tasks such as word processing, spreadsheet management, and presentations.

Question 42

Sasha is working on her laptop. She types a command into a command terminal using her keyboard. The computer processes the command, and then information about the completed task is displayed on her screen. Which of the following statements BEST lists all of the functions described in the scenario?

Answer 42

Input, Processing, and Output

Overall explanation
This scenario demonstrates the input function when the user types a command, the processing function when the computer interprets and executes the command, and the output function when the resulting information is displayed on her screen. While input and output are indeed used in this scenario, storage isn’t explicitly mentioned or implied. Moreover, the processing function is missing from this option. While input and processing are part of this scenario, there’s no explicit mention or implication of storage occurring here. Also, this option doesn’t include the output function, which is demonstrated by the results shown on the user’s screen. While output and processing are indeed part of this scenario, this option is missing the input function, which is the initial act of the user typing a command.

Question 43

Which of the following devices are specifically built to offer entertainment by streaming digital content such as videos or music?

Answer 43

Streaming media devices

Overall explanation
Streaming media devices are precisely made to offer digital entertainment by streaming content. They focus on media access and consumption. IoT devices are designed to interact with and automate physical environments. They aren’t dedicated to entertainment streaming. Workstations are high-end computers mainly designed for intense computing tasks not primarily related to streaming digital entertainment. While servers can hold and distribute media, they’re not specifically built for the purpose of streaming digital entertainment.

Question 44

Aaliyah is faced with a complex problem in her software development project. Which of the following strategies would be the most effective for Aaliyah in solving this problem?

Answer 44

Breaking the problem down into smaller, manageable parts and solving each part individually

Overall explanation
Breaking the problem down into smaller, manageable parts and solving each part individually is the divide and conquer strategy. It allows Aaliyah to focus on each part of the problem individually, making the problem-solving process more manageable and efficient. While collaboration can be helpful, waiting for someone else to solve the problem can delay progress and does not guarantee a solution. Trying random solutions until one works can be time-consuming and does not guarantee a solution. It’s also not an efficient use of resources. Ignoring the complexity and trying to solve the problem in one go can be overwhelming and inefficient, especially for complex problems.

Question 45

What is the purpose of a company using security controls in relation to its data?

Answer 45

To ensure data is only accessible with authorization

Overall explanation
Security controls are used to ensure that data is only accessible to those with appropriate authorization, helping to protect the information from unauthorized access or modification. Security controls do not directly impact the amount of data that can be stored. While certain security controls may facilitate the safe transfer of data, the primary purpose of security controls is to protect the data, not to make it easily transferable. While maintaining the integrity of data is a key aspect of data security, the main role of security controls is to protect data, not to enhance its quality.

Question 46

Your company’s CEO has just tasked your IT team with creating a safeguarding measure that could be used to completely restore the customer database in the event of a system failure or data loss. This measure should include a comprehensive backup of all data and structures in a format that can be used to recreate the original database. What term BEST describes this safety measure?

Answer 46

Creating a Database Dump

Overall explanation
A Database Dump involves creating a backup of a database, which includes all data and structure in a form such that it can be used to recreate the original database if needed. It’s the hero in your disaster recovery plan! Though SQL scripting carries its own significance in database operations, it doesn’t aid in recreating the database after a sudden data loss or system mishap. While managing roles and permissions is vital for database security, it doesn’t serve as a safeguard for recovery in the event of data loss or system failure. Despite the usefulness of query builders and reporting tools, they can’t restore the full database in case of catastrophic system failure or data breach.

Question 47

What is the main purpose of prioritizing data restoration during disaster recovery?

Answer 47

To ensure the most critical systems and data are recovered first to minimize business disruption

Overall explanation
Prioritizing data restoration ensures that the most critical systems and data—those that the business cannot function without—are recovered first. This allows the business to resume critical operations as quickly as possible, minimizing disruption. Prioritizing data restoration is not about saving storage space. Its main purpose is to minimize business disruption by restoring the most important data first. Although data protection regulations may dictate some aspects of data recovery, the main reason for prioritizing data restoration is to minimize business disruption. Compliance with regulations is a separate consideration. While prioritizing critical data can potentially reduce overall recovery time, the primary purpose is to resume critical operations quickly, not necessarily to speed up the full recovery process.

Question 48

Which of the following is unique to each network device and cannot be changed?

Answer 48

MAC address

Overall explanation
A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface controller (NIC) for use as a network address. Unlike IP addresses, MAC addresses are typically hardcoded by the manufacturer and can’t be changed. IP addresses are assigned by the network based on DHCP or static assignment and can change over time or when moving between networks. While a serial number can be unique to a device, it is not specific to networking and can also be used on non-network devices. The name of a network can be changed by an administrator, hence, it is not unique or unchangeable.

Question 49

Mike, a network engineer at Dion Training, needs to understand the advantages of encrypting his files. What is the primary benefit of file encryption?

Answer 49

Protection from unauthorized access

Overall explanation
Encryption provides a high level of security by scrambling the data in a file to prevent unauthorized access, keeping it safe in the network. Encryption does not reduce file size, it encrypts or scrambles the data to provide security. Compression, not encryption, is used to reduce the file size. Encryption does not typically impact system speed in a positive way. Actually, it could slightly slow down the process since the system has to encrypt and decrypt files. While encryption can protect data from unauthorized access, it doesn’t inherently facilitate data recovery. However, combined with a backup strategy, it can contribute to a holistic data protection plan.

Question 50

Lisa has just come across an awesome extension that can help her productivity. She uploaded the extension to her browser but can’t utilize it. What could be responsible for this?

Answer 50

The extension is disabled
Overall explanation

If Lisa has installed the extension but can’t use it, it is possible that the extension is disabled. Enabling it in her browser’s settings should resolve the issue. Clearing the browser cache would help in loading updated website content but wouldn’t affect the functionality of an installed extension. An invalid certificate would cause security warnings when visiting secured web pages but wouldn’t limit the use of a browser extension. Setting Incorrect proxy settings would generally interrupt the internet connection entirely and wouldn’t specifically degrade the functionality of a browser extension.

Question 51

A high-end computer has a 3.5 GHz multi-core processor. If a graphic-intensive task requires 2.5 billion cycles to complete, approximately how long will the CPU take to complete the task, considering it processes all cycles in a single core and efficiency is perfect?

Answer 51

Less than 1 second

Overall explanation
The clock speed of a CPU is typically described in cycles per second (Hz). So, a 3.5 GHz CPU performs 3.5 billion cycles per second. A task requiring 2.5 billion cycles could theoretically be completed in less than a single second under the scenario described. 10.0 seconds seems to show a misunderstanding of the relation between GHz and the number of cycles. The processor in the question is much faster and can complete 3.5 billion cycles in one second. 2.5 seconds would be true if the processor has a speed of 1 GHz. In this case, the CPU is running at 3.5 GHz, which is 3.5 billion cycles per second, so it can complete the task in less than one second given perfect efficiency. 5.0 seconds is unlikely considering the task in a 0.5 GHz speed scenario. Here, the given CPU is running at 3.5 GHz, performing 3.5 billion cycles/second.

Question 52

You are the IT support technician for a company. An employee reports that their computer is running slower than usual. When asked, the employee mentions that file saving, program launching, and overall computer processing are slower, but internet browsing speed is unaffected. What could be the potential issue based on these symptoms?

Answer 52

Insufficient RAM or Disk Space

Overall explanation
If a computer is running slow, but internet speed is unaffected, it could be due to insufficient available RAM or hard disk space. This would specifically impact file saving, software running, and general computer processing. Browser hijackers predominantly affect web browsing performance and may change browser settings without permission. Given that internet browsing is unaffected in this scenario, this is unlikely to be the cause of slow system performance. While OS corruption can slow a computer down, it usually presents more severe symptoms, such as system crashes or failure to boot. The symptoms here align more closely with a lack of resources. Although internet browsing is involved in computer operations, the user reports no issues with browsing speed. Therefore, network connectivity is likely not the issue here.

Question 53

What is the key difference between an application that is ‘locally installed’ and one that is ‘local network hosted’?

Answer 53

Requirement of a network

Overall explanation
A locally installed application does not require a network, whereas a local network hosted application demands network connectivity for access. Neither an application that is ‘locally installed’ and one that is ‘local network hosted’ necessarily require internet access. Files can be locally available in both an application that is ‘locally installed’ and one that is ‘local network hosted’, albeit in different ways (directly local vs accessed through the network). Neither an application that is ‘locally installed’ and one that is ‘local network hosted’ necessarily involves the use of cloud services.

Question 54

John, a project manager at Dion Training, wants to terminate a resource-hungry application. Which of the following would BEST help achieve this?

Answer 54

Process management/scheduling

Overall explanation
Process management/scheduling is an operating system feature that handles application execution, allowing John to terminate a resource-intensive application. Memory management controls how system memory is assigned and used, but doesn’t specifically allow for application termination. Access control/protection governs user rights and permissions, but it does not give the ability to terminate applications. Disk management handles how storage is allocated and used, not controlling running applications.

Question 55

Which of the following security measures is most effective in addressing known vulnerabilities and fixing software bugs in computer systems?

Answer 55

Patching updates

Overall explanation
Patching updates involve applying software updates, including security patches and bug fixes, to address known vulnerabilities and software bugs in computer systems. Regularly applying patches helps to close security gaps, improve system stability, and mitigate potential threats. Changing default passwords is a good security practice to prevent unauthorized access to devices or systems. However, it does not specifically address known vulnerabilities and software bugs in computer systems. A host firewall controls network traffic for a specific device, acting as a barrier between the device and the network. While it is an important security measure, it does not directly address known vulnerabilities and software bugs in computer systems. Antivirus and anti-malware software are designed to detect and remove malicious software, protecting against various types of threats. However, they do not specifically address known vulnerabilities and software bugs in computer systems.

Question 56

Why would a programmer opt to use a query language?

Answer 56

To design and manipulate databases effectively

Overall explanation
Query languages like SQL are designed to allow users to access, manipulate, and express database queries. Mobile application development requires general-purpose languages capable of handling various aspects of software development, not domain-specific languages like query languages. System-level programming typically requires lower-level, compiled languages, whereas query languages are high-level, interpreted, and domain-specific. Query languages are not specifically designed for creating graphical user interfaces.

Question 57

What software maintains and manipulates datasets, often using structured query language (SQL)?

Answer 57

Database software

Overall explanation
Database software is designed specifically to store, manage, and manipulate datasets, often using SQL. MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server and Oracle Database are popular database software that is used by businesses of all sizes to store and manage data. A web browser lets you navigate the web, not manage databases. Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, Microsoft Edge, and Safari are popular web browser software that is used by millions of people around the world to access websites. Conferencing software aids in conducting virtual meetings but doesn’t deal with database manipulation. Zoom, Microsoft Teams, Google Meet and Cisco Webexis are popular conferencing software that is used by businesses and individuals to hold online meetings. Accounting software manages financial transactions and reports, but it doesn’t typically deal with manipulating entire datasets using SQL. QuickBooks, Sage Intacct, SAP Business One and Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central are popular accounting software that is used by businesses to track their income, expenses, and assets.

Question 58

Maria, an IT administrator, wants to enhance password security for Dion Training’s employees. Which of the following is the BEST policy to implement?

Answer 58

Implement a password manager tool to generate and store complex passwords for each employee.

Overall explanation
Implementing a password manager tool is the best approach to achieve enhanced password security. Password managers can generate and store complex passwords for each employee, eliminating the need for employees to remember multiple passwords while ensuring strong and unique passwords for each account. Password managers also encrypt the stored passwords, enhancing their security. Encouraging the use of simple and common dictionary words as passwords is a bad practice. Such passwords are easy to guess and are susceptible to dictionary attacks or brute-force attacks. Employees should use strong passwords that combine random words, numbers, and special characters to enhance security. Allowing employees to share passwords within their department is a significant security risk. It violates the principle of individual accountability and makes it difficult to trace actions back to specific users in case of security incidents. Password sharing should never be allowed as it compromises the confidentiality and integrity of the organization’s systems. Enforce a password minimum length of 4 would be counterproductive and jeopardize the security of the account due to the ease of cracking a password of such short length.

Question 59

Which of the following is NOT primarily used as an output device in a computer system?

Answer 59

Scanner

Overall explanation
A scanner is an input device. It digitizes physical documents or images and feeds this digital format into the computer system. It does not output information from the computer. A printer is an output device that materializes data from a computer into a physical format, usually onto paper. Speakers are output devices that translate audio information from the computer into sounds that are audible to the user. A monitor is an output device that visually displays data processed by the computer. It outputs information in a form that’s perceivable by the user.

Question 60

Which feature of a normal antivirus software is responsible for automatically scanning files and programs in real-time as they are accessed or downloaded?

Answer 60

On-access scanning

Overall explanation
O-access scanning is the feature of an antivirus software that automatically scans files and programs in real-time as they are accessed or downloaded. It provides immediate protection against malware threats by detecting and blocking malicious files before they can execute on the system. Quarantining and remediating infected systems is a feature that isolates detected malware and removes or repairs it. While important for handling infected files, it is not the specific feature responsible for real-time scanning. Heuristic analysis is a technique used by antivirus software to detect previously unknown or zero-day malware based on behavioral patterns. While an important feature, it is not directly related to real-time scanning. Scheduled scans allow users to configure the antivirus software to perform regular scans at specific times or intervals. This feature helps ensure that the system is periodically checked for malware infections, but it does not specifically refer to real-time scanning.

Question 61

James, an IT professional, receives a report from a user complaining about their computer constantly freezing. The user mentions that the issue occurs only when they are using their web browser, with no such problems while using other applications. Which of the following options is MOST likely to be the problem?

Answer 61

The user’s web browser is experiencing issues

Overall explanation
Since the problem specifically occurs while using the web browser, it’s reasonable to theorize that the issue lies with the browser. It might be due to an update, extension or a myriad of reasons related to the browser itself. Hard drive failure would likely cause a range of issues with all applications, not just the web browser. A malfunctioning power supply would likely cause hardware or booting issues, not application specific problems like in this case. Faulty RAM would typically cause system-wide issues. The problem in this case is isolated to the web browser.

Question 62

Which of the following interfaces would you use to connect a device to a network over a telephone line?

Answer 62

RJ-11

Overall explanation
The RJ-11 connector is typically used to connect devices to networks over telephone lines, such as with DSL internet service. The RJ-45 connector is typically used for Ethernet networks, not for connecting devices to networks over telephone lines. While USB modems that use RJ-11 do exist, the RJ-11 connector itself is the interface used for telephone line connections. Thunderbolt is a high-speed interface used for data transfer and display connectivity, not for network connections over telephone lines.

Question 63

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the Ext4 filesystem in comparison to FAT32?

Answer 63

It supports journaling

Overall explanation
Journaling is a feature that helps prevent data loss in case of a power failure. Ext4 supports journaling, distinguishing it from FAT32, which does not support this feature. While both Ext4 and FAT32 can support encrypted data storage in some way, this is not the primary distinguishing feature between them. FAT32, being created by Microsoft, is natively supported on Windows systems. Ext4, on the other hand, is not directly compatible with Windows, without additional software. Both Ext4 and FAT32 can handle large-capacity drives. This feature, therefore, is not distinctive to either.

Question 64

Which of the following BEST describes the function of a table in a Database Management System (DBMS)?

Answer 64

To store related records, each consisting of one or more fields

Overall explanation
A table in a DBMS is used to store related records. Each record is represented as a row in the table, and each field (or attribute) is represented as a column. While some tables might be used to record transaction history as part of a logging or audit process, this is not the primary function of tables in a DBMS. While user access permissions are an essential aspect of DBMS, they are generally managed separately and are not the primary function of a table. While well-designed table structures can potentially improve query speed by enabling efficient data retrieval, the main function of a table is to store data, not directly enhance query speed. Improving query processing speed is typically addressed through other strategies, like indexing.

Question 65

What is a significant difference between Assembly language and Machine code?

Answer 65

Machine code cannot be read or written by programmers, while Assembly language can be read and written

Overall explanation
Assembly language provides a readable notation for machine code instructions, making it easier for people to read and write. Machine code consists of binary instructions directly understood by the CPU, which are not human-friendly. Assembly language is translated into machine code for execution. Sometimes it is done ahead of time (ahead of time compilation) or during runtime (JIT compilation). Both Machine code and Assembly language are considered low-level languages. Both Assembly language and Machine code are platform-dependent as they are directly linked to specific hardware architectures.

Question 66

Imagine you are setting up a wireless network for your home. You want to ensure that it is more challenging for potential attackers to detect your network. Which of the following BEST practices should you implement to achieve this?

Answer 66

Changing SSID

Overall explanation
Altering your service set identifier (SSID) makes your network harder for potential malicious attackers to identify, making it more secure. While a captive portal can add a layer of security and control over who joins your network, it doesn’t make the network harder to find. Open access to a wireless network doesn’t result in increased security as it allows everyone to access your network easily. Default passwords are generally well known or easy to guess, making your network more, not less, vulnerable to attacks.

Question 67

Which of the following computing devices can monitor and control alarms, locks, lighting, and provide videophone entry systems remotely?

Answer 67

Security systems

Overall explanation
Security systems can monitor and control various features in a building such as alarms, locks, and lighting. They can also provide remote videophone entry systems, allowing users to control access to their homes or businesses remotely. Servers are powerful computing devices designed to host data and run applications for multiple users, but they do not have built-in capabilities to monitor and control home security systems. Mobile phones can interface with security systems and control them remotely through apps, but they are not, in themselves, security systems. While laptops are versatile and capable of a wide range of tasks, they are not specifically designed to monitor and control alarms, locks, or lighting.

Question 68

Mark is a data analyst at a health tech company. They’ve collected data on customers’ physical activity levels and sleep quality. Mark’s task is to understand if there’s a relationship between these two variables. Which is the BEST approach Mark should use?

Answer 68

Utilize data correlation to determine the statistical relationship between physical activity and sleep quality

Overall explanation
Data correlation analysis is the appropriate statistical task to understand the relationship between two or more variables. Ignoring data and basing conclusions on personal experience wouldn’t be an effective or accurate analytical approach. While outliers can influence results, they shouldn’t be removed without careful consideration. In some cases, these outliers can provide valuable insights. Ignoring sleep quality data would not provide insight into the relationship between these two variables.

Question 69

Which of the following cellular digital formats allows a subscriber to use a SIM (Subscriber Identity Module) card to use an unlocked handset with their chosen network provider and is internationally adopted?

Answer 69

GSM

Overall explanation
GSM, or Global System for Mobile Communication, allows subscribers to use a SIM card with their chosen network provider. It is an internationally adopted standard and used by AT&T and T-Mobile in the US. CDMA, or Code Division Multiple Access, does not use SIM cards. Instead, the handset is managed by the provider, making it less flexible in terms of switching network providers. LTE, or Long-Term Evolution, is a wireless communication standard for high-speed data for mobile devices and data terminals. It is not specifically tied to the use of SIM cards or the management of handsets by the provider. WiFi is a wireless networking technology that uses radio waves to provide wireless high-speed Internet and network connections. It is not a cellular digital format and does not relate to the use of SIM cards or handsets managed by providers.

Question 70

Assembly language is a type of programming language used in various computing contexts. Which of the following options BEST describes the characteristics of assembly language?

Answer 70

It is a low-level language closely related to machine code but readable by humans

Overall explanation
Assembly language is a low-level programming language. It is alphanumeric, making it more readable by humans than raw machine code but still related closely enough to the machine code to offer direct control over the computer’s hardware. High-level languages, like JavaScript, Python, or Ruby, provide a higher level of abstraction from the computer hardware and are usually easier to write and read. Assembly language, on the other hand, is lower-level and provides less abstraction, making it more difficult to write and read but providing a close relation to the hardware. Assembly language is not interpreted. It’s compiled or assembled directly into machine code. Moreover, assembly language doesn’t typically have high-level functionalities like Python or JavaScript. It involves working directly with the system’s hardware. Query languages, like SQL, are used for manipulating and managing data in databases whereas assembly language is a low-level language used for direct interaction with a computer’s hardware. They serve fundamentally different purposes in computing.

Question 71

Which aspect of an operating system ensures that resources are used only in ways that satisfy predetermined policies?

Answer 71

Access control

Overall explanation
Access control is a part of the operating system design that ensures resources are used only in ways that satisfy predetermined policies. It restricts system access to authorized users, apps, or other systems, providing a key role in maintaining the system’s security. Whereas a firewall aids in preventing unauthorized access to or from a private network, it does not inherently deal with the management of resource usage according to predefined policies. While a security patch can remedy a specific vulnerability in an operating system or an application, it doesn’t necessarily manage usage in accordance to predetermined policies. While data encryption secures data and information by translating it into a secret code, it doesn’t specifically control the ways resources are utilized.

Question 72

Which of the following tools assists in managing multiple unique passwords, thus aiding in avoiding password reuse across sites?

Answer 72

Password managers

Overall explanation
Password managers are tools designed to securely store and manage multiple unique passwords, thus reducing the need for password reuse across sites. Password history refers to a record of past passwords used, not to managing multiple unique passwords. Password complexity refers to the use of different types of characters in a password, not to managing multiple unique passwords. Password expiration refers to regularly changing a password, not to managing multiple unique passwords.

Question 73

What term is used to describe data that is being transmitted over a network?

Answer 73

Data in transit

Overall explanation
Data in transit (or data in motion) refers to data that is actively being transmitted over a network. Cipher text refers to encrypted data, not specifically to data being transmitted over a network. Data at rest refers to data that is stored on persistent storage media. Plain text refers to unencrypted data, not specifically to data being transmitted over a network.

Question 74

How does cloud storage service differ from local storage types like RAM, hard drives, etc.?

Answer 74

Cloud storage is accessed over the internet and is not physically present at the user’s location

Overall explanation
Cloud storage services, unlike local storage options, store data on servers that might be distributed across a series of physical locations and can be accessed over the internet. Hence, unlike RAM, hard drives, or flash drives, they are not physically present with the user, making this statement correct. One of the advantages of cloud storage services is their ability to support almost all file formats. In contrast, certain local storage such as optical devices can have limitations in terms of file formats they can effectively store and read. Cloud storage, like hard drives or flash drives, maintains data even without power. It’s a type of non-volatile storage - data is persistent and not lost when power is disconnected. Without an internet connection, access to cloud storage services is typically not possible, making this statement false. The key premise of cloud storage is accessing and storing data over the internet.

Question 75

Mary, an IT specialist at Dion Training, is preparing for file management training for her team. She is explaining the concept of file types and extensions. Which of the following can serve as the correct justification for file types and extensions?

Answer 75

Help operating system understand file content and determine the right program

Overall explanation
File types and extensions help the operating system to identify the nature of the contents of a file, and subsequently, to determine the correct application to open and work with it. While user permissions are essential for various file operations, identification of file types or extensions is not typically associated with validating user permissions. File types and extensions do not impact the speed at which a file can be accessed. The access speed is usually determined by the storage device and the file system. File types and extensions do not govern the storage structure of files. They are meant for identifying the nature of the content within files.

Question 76

What does GPU stand for in the context of computer hardware?

Answer 76

Graphics Processing Unit

Overall explanation
A GPU is a specialized electronic circuit that is designed to rapidly manipulate and alter memory to accelerate the creation of images in a frame buffer intended for output to a display device. It is specifically designed for handling complex calculations and rendering graphics. While GPUs are commonly used in gaming to render high-quality graphics, the term “Gaming Processing Unit” is not a standard or widely recognized term in computer hardware. Although it shares similar meanings to the correct answer, the commonly used term in the industry is Graphics Processing Unit. The general processing unit is not a common term used in computer hardware. The correct term is Central Processing Unit (CPU).