Compre Flashcards
Which of the following is based on phenotypic identification?
a. Base sequencing
b. DNA fingerprinting
c. Nucleic acid testing
d. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing
D
Which of the following terms refers to the negatively-charged content of a Gram-positive cell wall that contributes to the latter’s charge?
a. Peptidoglycan
b. Teichoic acid
c. Lipoteichoic acid
d. Muramic acid
B
Which of the following culture media would be best used to isolate bacteria capable of distinguishing carbohydrates fermentation?
a. Blood agar
b. Chocolate agar
c. MacConkey agar
d. CNA blood agar
C
Which of the following serologic tests is considered as sensitive and specific method for detection of antibodies against certain pathogens?
a. Particle agglutination test
b. Flocculation test
c. ELISA
d. Fluorescent Antibody test
e. Western Blot
C
What do you call the process of prokaryotes in which one cell (the parent cell) splits in half to become two daughter cells?
a. Binary fusion
b. Binary fission
c. Meiosis
d. Mitosis
B
Which cell structure is an essential part of genetic transfer (conjugation)?
a. Fimbriae
b. Sex pilus
c. Flagella
d. Cilia
B
What intracellular structure that allows organisms to withstand extreme conditions? a. Capsule
b. Plasmid
c. Endospores
d. Murein
C
The cellular membrane contains
a. Matrix porins
b. Endotoxins
c. Glycocalyx
d. Enzymes involved in bacterial oxidative phosphorylation
e. All of the above
D
What kind of stains are commonly used in the study of bacteria?
a. Acidic dyes
b. Basic dyes
c. Indirect stains
d. Negatively charged stains
B
Of the following, which one is NOT found in prokaryotic cells?
a. Cell membrane
b. Chromosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Plasmids
C
Each of the following statements is true about the mechanism of action of antibiotics on bacteria, EXCEPT
a. Chloramphenicol affects the large subunit of bacterial ribosomes, which is different from the large subunits of eukaryotes
b. Streptomycin affects the DNA polymerases of bacteria but not that of human cells
c. Penicillin affects bacteria rather than human cells because bacteria have cell wall, while human cells do not
d. Linezolid affects bacterial initial ribosome synthesis but not that of eukaryotic cells
B
All of the following are correct concerning culture media, EXCEPT
I. Blood agar and chocolate agar are examples of complex, selective media, that supports the growth
of many different bacteria
II. MacConkey agar is a differential media, which differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermenters of
Enterobacteriaceae
III. If the clinical samples are from non-sterile site (e.g. sputum) it is recommended to use selective
media like Columbia Colistin Nalidixic agar
IV.Most pathogens like bacteria, parasites and viruses can be isolated on a solid-agar containing media
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I and IV
d. II and III
C
Each of the following statements are true regarding murein later, EXCEPT
a. It has a backbone composed of alternating units of muramic acid and acetylglucosamine
b. It can be degraded by lysozyme
c. Cross-links between the tetrapeptides involve d-alanine
d. It is thinner in gram positive than in gram negative cells
D
Which of the following statements precisely describes the comparison of bacterial, fungal and human cells?
a. Human and fungal cell walls have similar cell, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains peptidoglycan
b. Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different
c. Human cells undergo meiosis, whereas neither bacteria nor fungi do.
d. Human cells and bacterial cells have mitochondria, whereas fungal cells do not
B
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding bacterial endospores?
a. Endospores are formed under adverse environmental conditions such as absence of carbon
source.
b. Endospores are resistant to boiling and sometimes UV radiation
c. Endospores are formed primarily by rod-shaped organisms like E. coli and C. diphtheriae
d. Endospores are metabolically inactive and contain dipicolinic acid and calcium.
C
Assume you stain Clostridium perfringens from an abscess by applying malachite green with heat and counterstain with safranin O. In the microscope, the green structures that taken up the malachite green are called?
a. Cell walls
b. Flagella
c. Endospores
d. Capsules
e. Impossible to identify
C
Bacterial surface structures that show antigenic diversity include each of the following, EXCEPT
a. Murein layer
b. Capsules c. Flagella d. Pili
A
All of the following are effects of Lipid A, EXCEPT a. Fever
b. Activation of coagulation cascade c. Hypotension
d. Opsonization and phagocytosis
D
Which of the following pairs is mismatched regarding the chemical subunits of glycocalyx for each bacterium?
a. Bacillus anthracis: D glutamic acid
b. Haemophilus influenzae: muramic acid
c. Neisseria meningitidis: sialic acid
B
Which type of plasmids turns the host of the plasmid into a pathogen?
a. Virulence plasmid
b. Resistance plasmid
c. Fertility plasmid
d. Col plasmid
A
Which of the following nucleic acid based technique is considered as simplest and commonly used in epidemiologic studies?
a. Plasmid analysis
b. Southern blot analysis
c. Ribotyping
d. Western blot analysis
A
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Immunofluorescent Assay: Direct Fluorescence assay for T. pallidum
b. Particle agglutination test. Widal test for S. Typhi
c. Western blot: band lines on gp41 and p24 for HIV
d. Flocculation test RPR and VDRL for T. pallidum
B
The bacterial fimbriae that are present on the outer cell surface, and there are used for
a. Cell motility
b. Sexual reproduction
c. Adherence and exchange of genetic information
d. Adherence to surfaces
D
. In gram negative bacteria, the transport of nutrients is usually facilitated by specific binding proteins located in periplasmic space, while gram positive cells the binding proteins are attached to the outer surface of the cell membrane which of the following transport mechanism is responsible for this action?
a. Passive transport
b. Special transport process
c. Active transport
d. Group translocation
C
All of the following are true about each protein secretion systems except:
a. Type I secretion requires outer membrane secretory proteins
b. Type II secretes protein and transported across the outer membrane by multiprotein complex
c. Type III secretion is achieved by contact with a host cell (contact dependent)
d. Type IV secretion only found in gram-negative bacteria
D
Which of the following organism lacks cell wall and do not synthesize the precursors of peptidoglycan?
a. Corynebacterium diptheriae
b. Viruses and prions
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D
What do you call the protein subunits that comprises microfilaments in the cytoskeleton?
a. Actin
b. Tubulin c. Flagellin d. Pilin
A
You have isolated non-motile gram positive cocci in pairs, chains and clusters in a wound specimen. Which of the following biochemical test is the next step to distinguish staphylococci from streptococci?
a. Catalase test
b. Oxidase test
c. Carbohydrate breakdown
d. Coagulase test
e. None of the above
A
Which of the following bacterial structures is least likely to contain useful antigens when doing serologic tests?
a. Capsule
b. Flagella
c. Ribosomes
C
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Cilia: feeding and circulation
b. Fimbrae: adherence
c. Capsule: Antiphagocytic
d. Flagella: locomotion
e. None of the above
E
Which of the following is the best technique in unculturable gram-negative microorganism in tissue specimens obtained from a patient with undescribed disease?
a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
b. Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
c. SDS and multilocus enzyme electrophoresis
d. PCR assisted with rRNA sequencing
D
The correct order of stains in gram staining procedure is
a. Crystal violet, alcohol, iodine, safranin O
b. Iodine, crystal violet, alcohol, safranin O
c. Safranin O, Alcohol, Iodine, crystal violet
d. Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin O
D
Which of the following pairs is mismatched in gram-staining procedure?
a. Acid alcohol: decolorizer
b. Safranin O: counterstain
c. Gram’s iodine: mordant
d. Crystal violet: primary stain
A
What do you call those bacteria that grow between 20C to 45C? a. Extremethermophiles
b. Psychrophiles
c. Mesophiles
d. Thermophiles
C
All are the functions of mitochondria Except:
a. Induced virulence to other cells
b. Production of ATP
c. Metabolic regulation and cell death
d. Innated response to viral infections
e. Reprogramming of induced pluripotent stem cells
A
Which of the following groups is mismatched?
a. Bacilli in pairs: diplobacilli: Mycobacterium tuberculosis (snapping form)
b. Short rod bacilli: coccobacilli: Escherichia coli
c. Cocci in pairs: streptococci: streptococcus pyogenes
d. Cocci in clusters: staphylococci. Staphylococcus aureus
C
All of the following are distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells. Except:
I. They usually lack-membrane bound organelles II. Their DNA is associated with histones
III. They lack a plasma membrane
IV.They have a cell walls containing peptidoglycan
a. IandII
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. IandIV
B
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Polysaccharide granules - stored starch
b. Metachromatic granules - stored polyphosphates
c. Lipid inclusions - stored PABA
d. Ribosomes- stored proteins
D
In the laboratory you are viewing a Gram-stained field pink cocci and purple bacilli through a compound microscope. You safely conclude that you have
a. Made a mistake in staining
b. Young bacterial cells
c. Old bacterial cells
d. Two different species
e. None of the above
D
The site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cell is the ____ and in the prokaryotic cells is the ____
a. Mitochondria and none
b. Mitochondria and cell wall
c. Mitochondria and cell membrane
C
What do you call the antigenic determinants of streptococcus pneumoniae?
a. Forssman antigen
b. M protein
c. O antigen
d. Coagulase
A
What do you call those bacteria that do not require oxygen but grow better in its presence?
a. Obligate aerobes
b. Microaerophiles
c. Facultative anaerobes
d. Obligate anaerobes
C
Statement 1: Nomenclature is the arrangement of organism into taxonomic groups based on similarities of relationships
Statement 2: Identification is the assignment of names to the various taxa according to international rules
a. Only statement 1 is correct
b. Only statement 2 is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Both statements are incorrect
D
Which of following best explain why mycobacterium tuberculosis stains better with acid fast stain than with gram stain?
a. They lack cell wall therefore cannot absorbs stains
b. They have a thin cell wall that does not retain the primary stain
c. They have a thick capsule that prevents the entry of mordant
d. They have a long chain and large amount of food in their cell wall that prevents the entry of the primary stain
D
FDA category for risk that outweighs the benefit
a. E
b. None of them
c. D
d. B
e. A
f. C
B
What important structure of the organism is recognized as the basis for selective toxicity?
a. Cell wall
b. Plasmid
c. Cell membrane
d. DNA
A
Which of the following is not included as your parameter as a clinician for the selection of antibiotics for your patient?
a. The infection site
b. The pathogen
c. Antimicrobial susceptibility pattern
d. Safety profile of the drug
C
Which of the following is NOT true on the non-rational use of antibiotics?
a. Poor compliance of the patient and preference
b. Inappropriate prescribing and dosing regimen
c. Newer antimicrobial discovery has lead to antibiotic resistance
d. Poor recognition of infection
C
Which of the following has more value to in vitro testing of antimicrobial susceptibility? A. Pharmacokinetics
B. MIC
C. MIB
D. Bioavailability
B
A healthy male patient came to Dr. Bitos for a follow up check up on his 3rd day of Antibiotics for his Pneumonia. Upon his PE, the patient’s chest and lungs are still remarkable with rales heard at the lower right lung field. She followed the guidelines for the treatment of pneumonia. Amoxicillin was given as the first line drug. What should be his next strategy?
a. Just continue antibiotic
b. Refer the patient to a lung specialist
c. Shift antibiotic to intravenous antibiotic to increase the bioavailability
d. Shift the antibiotic with beta lactamase inhibitor
e. Check the patient’s kidney and liver function
C
FDA category for “Risk that outweighs the benefit”
a. A
b. B
c. E
d. X
e. None of them
D
Pathogen A has an ID50 of 50 particles, pathogen B has an ID50 of 1,000 particles, pathogen C has an ID50 of 1x 10(6) particles and pathogen D has an ID50 of 1,000,000,000 particles. Which pathogen is most virulent?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. All of them
A
All of the following can be seen in the pharynx, except?
a. Gram negative rods
b. Neisseria
c. Streptococci
d. Gram positive rods
D
Which period in the stages of disease during which the patient begins to present general signs and symptoms?
a. Illness
b. Convalescence c. Prodromal
d. Incubation
C
All of the following can be help in adhesion, except?
a. Cilia
b. Biofilm
c. Capsule
d. Glycocalyx
e. All of them
f. None
F
Which of the following has more value in vitro testing of antimicrobial susceptibilities such as the culture and sensitivity test?
a. Minimum inhibitory concentration
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Absorption rate
d. MIB
e. Pharmacokinetics
A
A patient came to Dr. Farinas to seek consultation for a recurring multiple skin lesion. The patient said, the previous doctor gave her Levofloxacin (Fluoroquinolone) and claimed she took the antibiotic religiously but the lesions were not healed. What will you suspect?
a. Inappropriate antibiotic
b. Non bacterial lesion
c. The patient was lying
d. Antimicrobial resistance
D
Which of the following choices list the steps of pathogenesis in the correct order?
a. Exposure, Adhesion, Invasion, Infection
b. Invasion, Infection, Adhesion, Exposure
c. Disease, Infection, Exposure, Invasion
d. Adhesion, Exposure, Infection, Invasion
A
Which of the following event is Arrested when Quinolone drugs target the important cellular structures?
a. Blockage of porins
b. Cell division
c. Accumulation of reactive species of the drug in the cytoplasm
d. Release of the muropeptide subunits of peptidoglycan
B
All of the following drugs are absolute bactericidal, EXCEPT? a. Streptomycin
b. Flouroquinolones
c. Doxycycline
d. Penicillin
C
A specific bacterial component that is prevented by B-lactam antibiotic to cross-link the peptide chains.
a. Tetrahydofolic acid
b. Penicillin binding proteins
c. D-alanyl-D-alanine
d. Lipopolysaccharides
B
Vancomycin is specific for Gram-Positive organisms but not for Gram-Negative organisms a. Broad spectrum antibiotic
b. Narrow spectrum antibiotic
c. Botique spectrum antibiotic
d. Emperic antibiotic
B
Dr. Silvano diagnosed his patient with Bacterial sinusitis; Employing what he learned in microbiology, which of the following antibiotic is the Least effective as treatment?
a. Penicillin
b. 3rd generation cephalosporin
c. Erythromycin
d. 2nd generation cephalosporin
D
The following antimicrobials are Anti-folate drugs, EXCEPT?
a. Trimethoprim
b. Para-aminosalisylic acid
c. Gantrisin
d. Ethambutol
D
Dr. Magno saw a 19-year-old patient with a localized skin infection, she diagnosed the patient with folliculitis. What is the most appropriate treatment for this?
a. Amoxicilin oral
b. Bacitracin ointment
c. Momethasone ointment
d. Clotrimazole ointment
e. Vancomycin IV
f. Cefalexin oral
g. Linezolid oral
F
An important basis in rationalizing the dose of antibiotics?
a. Patient’s profile
b. Bacteriostatic effect of the antibiotic
c. Minimum bactericidal concentration
d. Absorption of the drug
A
Which of the following steps of pathogenesis usually requires a Pili?
a. Adhesion
b. Opsonization c. Invasion
d. Exposure
A
The dominant bacteria and makeup to 98% of total oral flora until 6-9 months in humans:
a. S. salivarius
b. S. oris
c. S. epidermidis
S. sanguis
e. S. mutans
A
All of the following phases of infection do not present with signs and symptoms, EXCEPT? a. Latent period
b. Prodromal period
c. Incubation period
d. Convalescence period
C
Dr. Duro started a 3rd Generation Cephalosporin IV antibiotic on a patient admitted for Pneumonia, when the patient does not respond to the antibiotic after 48 hours, what will you consider?
a. Antimicrobial resistance
b. The patient is tolerant to the antibiotic
c. The pneumonia is caused by non-bacterial etiology
d. Inappropriate antibiotic
A
Among the following Exotoxins, which causes scalded skin syndrome?
a. Erythrogenic toxin
b. Neurotoxin
c. Exfoliative toxin
d. Enterotoxin
C
Utilized for prevention to situations where the benefit outweighs the risk of superinfection or even bacterial resistance
a. Broad spectrum antibiotic therapy
b. Emperic therapy
c. Prophylaxis
d. Narrow spectrum antibiotic therapy
C
All of the ff are harmful effects of normal flora, except:
a. Induction of high-grade toxemia
b. Competition for nutrients
c. Agents of disease
d. Transfer to susceptible host
A
Pathogen A has an ID50 of 50 particles, pathogen B has an ID50 of 1,000 particles; pathogen C has an ID50 of 1,000,000,000 particles, and Pathogen D has an ID50 of 1x 10(5) particles. Which pathogen is the least virulent?
a. None of them
b. Pathogen B
c. Pathogen D
d. Pathogen C
e. Pathogen A
C
Known to cause interference in Pyridoxine metabolism causing B6 deficiency among TB patients. a. Pyrazinamide
b. Isoniazid
c. Ethambutol
d. Streptomycin
B
All of the ff are predominant bacteria found in the colon except: a. Enterics
b. Lactics
c. Bacteroides
d. Bifidobacteria
B
An important virulence factor of Helicobacter pylori for the colonization of the Stomach. a. Neuraminidase
b. Peptides
c. Urease
d. Proteases
C
Of the ff Virulence Factors, which among them acts to destroy the cell membranes: a. Kinase
b. Hyaluronidase
c. Lecithinase
d. Coagulase
C
Which of the following is an example of a Latent infection? Variola
Syphilis
Pulmonary tuberculosis Varicella
B
All of the ff can be found on the superficial layers of the epidermis, except:
a. Streptococus
b. Staphylococcus c. Micrococcus
d. Propionibacterium
A
Which of the following bacteria will you consider an infection of the pharynx?
a. Gram positive rods
b. Neisseria species
c. Gram negative rods
d. Streptococci species
A
The following are correctly paired, EXCEPT?
a. Concentration dependent killing. Azithromycin has an MIC of 500 mg
b. Time dependent killing: Ampicillin has a half-life of 4 hours
c. Pharmacodynamics: Cephalosphorins attack the 30s subunits of ribosomes
d. Pharmacokinetics: Intravenous route antibiotic are absorbed the fastest
C
Objective evidence of disease: a. Symptoms
b. Diagnosis
c. Sign
d. Syndrome
C
Thought to be the most important beneficial effect of normal flora:
a. Prevent colonization by pathogen
b. Stimulate production of natural antibodies
c. Synthesize and excrete vitamins
d. Stimulate development of certain tissues
A
The following factors are included for the selection of antibiotics for your patient, EXCEPT?
a. Safety of the drug
b. Infection site
c. Cost of the drug
d. Patient’s immunes status
e. Sensitivity of organism
f. Efficacy of the drug
g. The cause of infection
C
Which bacterial structure contributes to the selective toxicity for Antimicrobial agents?
a. DNA
b. 40s subunit
c. 80s subunit
d. 30s subunit
D
Which of the following antimicrobials target the RNA polymerase? a. Polymyxins
b. Rifampicin
c. Azithromycin
d. Clindamycin
B
The ff are ways of pathogen entry, EXCEPT?
a. Parenteral
b. None of them
c. All of them
d. Ingestion
e. Penetration
f. Inhalation
B
Natural killer cells fall under which category of the immune system?
a. Active immunity
b. Innate immunity
c. Adaptive immunity
d. Passive immunity
e. Both
E
The following are contraindications of vaccination except
a. A 57 year old with hepatocellular carcinoma with ongoing chemotherapy
b. A 45 year old female hypertensive and diabetic
c. A 16 year old female with history of anaphylaxis after eating peanuts
d. A 21 year old callcenter agent with high grade fever
B
An inherent property of adaptive immunity that differentiates it from innate immunity
a. T cell
b. Recognition of MHC
c. Antigen presentation
d. Antigen recognition
B
Which of the following is/are true about Diphtheria vaccines?
a. They are live attenuated vaccines
b. They are killed vaccines
c. They are toxin made by the organism that causes the disease
d. Higher dose diphtheria vaccines should be used for primary immunization
C
Which of the following has an opsonizing ability? a. Antigens
b. Plasma cell c. WBC
d. Antibodies
D
Which of the following confer(s) passive immunity?
a. Hepatitis B vaccine
b. MMR vaccine
c. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin
d. Cross placental transfer of maternal antibodies
D
Which of the following is an example of killed vaccine?
a. Polio vaccine
b. Hepatitis B vaccine
c. Flu vaccine
d. Diphtheria vaccine
A
Functions of the immune system, EXCEPT one?
a. Hemostasis
b. Defense against pathogens c. Homeostasis
d. Kills tumor cells
A
There are 4 main types of vaccine EXCEPT?
a. Killed attenuated vaccines
b. Killed inactivated vaccines
c. Conjugated vaccines
d. Toxoid vaccines
A
IgA transfer from the milk is what form of immunity?
a. Artificially active immunity
b. Naturally active immunity
c. Artificial passive immunity
d. Natural passive immunity
D
Corynebacterium jeikeium is
a. Catalase negative
b. Gram negative
c. Often multidrug resistant
d. Motile
C
Listeria monocytogenes is frequently a foodborne pathogen because a. It can survive at 4oC
b. It survives under conditions of low pH
c. It survives in the presence of high salt concentrations
d. All of the above
D
Listeria monocytogenes is frequently a foodborne pathogen because a. It can survive at 4oC
b. It survives under conditions of low pH
c. It survives in the presence of high salt concentrations
d. All of the above
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Lactobacillus species
e. Actinomyces israelii
D
A 45 year old Sherman imbedded a fishhook into his right forefinger. He removed it and did not seek immediate medical therapy. Five days later, he noted fever, severe pain and nodular type swelling of the finger. He sought medical therapy. The violaceous nodule was aspirated, and after 48hours of incubation, colonies of gram-positive bacillus that caused greenish discoloration of the agar and formed long laments in the broth culture were noted. The most likely cause of this infection is
a. Lactobacillus acidophilus
b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Rhodococcus equi
e. Nocardia brasiliensis
B
The reported incubation period for inhalational anthrax can be up to a. 2 days
b. 10 days c. 3 weeks d. 6 weeks e. 6 months
D
All of the following statements regarding Clostridium perfringens are correct EXCEPT a. It can cause intravascular hemolysis
b. It produces a double zone of hemolysis when grown on blood agar
c. Some strains are aerotolerant
d. It is most common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea
e. it produces enterotoxin
D
Movement of Listeria monocytogenes inside of host cells is caused by
a. inducing host cell actin polymerization
b. formation of pili (fimbriae) on the listeriae surface c. pseudopod formation
d. locomotion of listeria flagella
e. tumbling motility
A
Which of the following aerobic positive bacilli is modified acid fast positive?
a. Nocardia brasiliensis
b. Lactobacillus acidophilus
c. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae d. Listeria monocytogenes
A
A food commonly associated with Bacillus cereus food poisoning is a. Baked potato
b. Hot freshly steamed rice
c. Green beans
d. Honey
e. Fried rice
E
A recovery on laboratory media, the Actinomycetes are best identified by a. An automated system used in laboratory
b. Molecular methods such as 16SrRNA gene sequencing
c. Classical biochemicals
d. Antigen detection tests such as ELISA
D
Which of the following immune cells travel and migrate to tissue permanently?
a. Eosinophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Plasma cells
d. Monocytes
e. Basophils
D
A mother to the clinic because of fever, sore throat and erythema. Upon physical examination patient
manifested polyarthritis and carditis. Identify the causative agent
a. Gram positive, lancet-shaped diplococci
b. Gram positive spore-forming rods
c. Gram positive, bacitracin sensitive, pyrollidonyl araylamidase positive
d. Gram positive, bacitracin resistant, beta hemolytic
C
A 58 year old alcoholic man experience sudden onset of fever, shaking chills, sharp pleuritic pain and production of rusty sputum. He probably has an infection caused by
a. E. faecalis
b. S. viridans
c. S. pneumoniae
d. S. aureus
C
The “hallmark” of adaptive immunity
a. Antibody production
b. Antigen recognition
c. Specific microbial killing
d. Anamnestic memory in all exposures
e. Humoral mediated response
f. Self-recognition to prevent autoimmunity
B
Streptococcus pyogenes is the main human pathogen associated with poststreptococcal immunologic disorders. This bacteria becomes virulent in the presence of which of the following
a. Hyaluronidase
b. M protein
c. Streptokinase
d. F antigen
B
Not a function of the complement system
a. Promotes vasodilation
b. Opsonization to enhance pathocytosis
c. Promotes mobilization and activation of WBCs
d. Activation of macrophages to release interleukins
e. Forms the membrane attack unit to cause cytolysis
D
Which of the following is/are Novobiocin resistant organism?
a. Streptococcus agalactiae
b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c. Streptococcus mitis
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B
Which of the following is not an effect of Cytokine release?
a. Mediates antigen specific interaction
b. Mediates inflammation
c. Promotes differentiation of cytotoxic T cells
d. Macrophage activation
A
Which of the following organism is beta hemolytic?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus mitis
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B
Described as box car shaped rods
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Clostridium botulinum
B
A 10 year-old girl develop a sore throat with erythema, exudates over the tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and fever. A pharyngeal swab was collected and beta-hemolytic colonies of gram positive ovoid shaped organism in chain grows in blood agar medium. What test can be used to identify
the organism?
a. Bile solubility
b. Bacitracin susceptibility
c. Optochin susceptibility
d. Coagulase
B
The following statement differentiates innate immunity from adaptive immunity EXCEPT one
a. Genetic make up
b. Has no anamnestic response
c. Non specific response
d. Rapid response
B
Which of the following organism has “tumbling motility” in blood culture?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Corynebacterium diptheriae
B
Which of the following causes pseudomembranous colitis?
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium diptheriae
B
Most common cause of colitis media in children
a. Group A strep
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Group B strep
d. Staphylococcus aureus
C
What is the main virulence factor of strep pyogenes?
a. Protein A
b. M protein
c. Streptolysin O
d. Pneumolysin O
B
culture of skin lesion from a patient with pyoderma (impetigo) shows numerous colonies surrounded by a zone of beta-hemolysis on a blood agar plate. A gram stained smear shows gram positive cocci. If you found the catalase test to be negative. Which of the following organism you most probably have isolated?
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
D
Rheumatoid arthritis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. IgG mediated cytotoxic
b. Immune complex mediated
c. Cell mediated
d. IgE mediated
B
Which is not the correct statement regarding staphylococci?
a. Some strain of S. aureus are resistant to penicillin due to production of beta-lactamase
b. Some strain of S. aureus produce an enterotoxin which causes vomiting and diarrhea
c. S. aureus produces coagulase whereas S. epidermidis does not
d. Some strain of S. aureus cause rheumatic fever as result of immunologic cross-reaction between
the protein of the organism and the protein of the myocardium
C
Most common cause of scarlet fever
a. Group B strep
b. Viridans group strep
c. Group A strep
d. Staphylococcus aureus
C
Perforins are secreted by
a. CD8 T lymphocytes
b. Dendritic cells
c. CD4 T lymphocytes
d. Natural killer cell
e. B lymphocytes
f. Neutrophils
D
Which of the following causes neonatal meningitis?
a. Viridans group strep
b. Group A strep
c. Group B strep
d. Staphylococcus aureus
B
Vaccines can be given to everyone except?
a. A 16yo girl with insomnia
b. If one have cough on the day of the vaccination
c. A 55yo female with breast cancer on chemotherapy
d. A 39yo male with bronchial asthma
C
Rheumatic fever is the most common sequela of this organism
a. Group C strep
b. Viridans group strep
c. Group A strep
d. Group B strep
C
Which of the following is a pyrogen?
a. Interferon
b. IL-6
c. Interleukin 1
d. Tumor necrosis factor A
C
The display of cell adhesion molecules happens during which event of inflammation?
a. Recruitment of immune cells
b. Release of inflammatory and chemotactic factors
c. Delivery of plasma proteins
d. Vascular changes
D
Which cell can cause redness and swelling?
a. B lymphocyte
b. T lymphocyte
c. Macrophage
d. Neutrophil
e. Mast cell
E
Which of the following causes impetigo and pharyngitis?
a. Group B strep
b. Viridans group strep
c. Group A strep
d. Staphylococcus aureus
C
This pertains to the antigenic determinant which works in a “Lock and Key” mechanism
a. Variable region
b. Epitope
c. Light chain
d. Fc region
B
The most common pathogen of community acquired pneumonia in adults
a. S. faecalis
b. S. pneumoniae
c. S. pyogenes
d. S. aureus
B
Which of the following is true regarding Passive immunity?
a. Mothers to baby through the placenta
b. Antibodies developed in response to vaccination
c. Is long lasting, and sometimes life long
d. Results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to
that disease
A
Which of the organism listed below is the most frequent bacterial cause of Pharyngitis?
a. S. aureus
b. S. pneumoniae
c. S. pyogenes
d. Viridans streptococci
C
A 3 week old female infant was brought to the emergency by her mother for nonbilious and nonbloody vomiting along with decreased appetite, decreased urine output, increased fussiness, jaundice and fever. The infant had been born at 37 6/7 weeks gestational age by normal spontaneous vaginal delivery, mother claimed she had prolonged labor
a. Viridans group strep
b. Group B strep
c. Group A strep
d. Group C strep
B
An 18 year old female came to the clinic because of 3 days history of dysuria and sapropubic tenderness. She admits to being sexually active. Which of the following is true of the most likely causative organism?
a. Gram positive, lancet shaped diplococci
b. Gram positive, catalase negative, beta hemolytic
c. Gram positive, catalase positive, coagulase positive
d. Gram positive, catalase positive, coagulase negativ
D
Which of the following statement about Genus clostridia is true?
a. Aerobic microorganisms
b. Clostridium tetani produced double zone hemolysis
c. They produce beta hemolysis
d. They have centrally located spores
C
Has a characteristic growth of stormy or milky fermentation on liquid media
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium tetani
A
The movement of Listeria monocytogenes inside of host cells is caused by
a. Inducing host cell actin polymerization
b. Locomotion of listeriae flagella
c. Formation of pili (fimbrae) on the listeriae surface
d. Pseudopod formation
A
Which of the following characteristic is correctly paired?
a. Bacillus anthracis inhalational anthrax= best specimen is sputum
b. Bacillus anthracis= grow in nitrogen and carbon
c. Bacillus anthracis= hemolytic on blood agar
d. Bacillus cereus= cut glass appearance
B
Which of the following aerobic gram positive bacilli is modified acid fast positive?
a. Lactobacillus acidophilus
b. Nocardia brasiliensis
c. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
d. All of them
B
Which of the following does not cause principal human illness? a. E
b. C
c. A d. F e. B
B
A man got punctured deeply by a rusty nail in a construction site. He went to the clinic after 2 days. Which of the following is the correct intervention?
a. Give intramuscular injection with Tetanus Toxoid 500 units
b. Thorough cleaning of wound daily
c. Give 3 separate doses of Tetanus toxoid deep IM
d. Aggressive debridement of wound
e. Give 3 separate doses of Tetanus immunoglobulin
A
Which of the following can cause food poisoning?
Bacillus cereus
Clostridium perfringens
Bacillus anthracis
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium difficile
A
Which of the following has the fastest toxin effect?
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium tetani
C
This toxin promotes edema caused by Clostridium perfringens
a. Epsilon
b. Alpha c. Gamma d. Beta
A
Which of the following scenario would you suspect Clostridium difficile infection?
a. Diarrhea after 2 weeks antibiotic therapy
b. Pseudomembranous in the colon
c. Ulcerative colitis
d. Chronic antibiotic use
B
Which of the following test for Corynebacterium diphtheriae uses known toxigenic C. diphtheriae?
a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. Culture
d. Modified Elek immunoprecipitation method
D
A 2 years old child was brought to the clinic due to anorexia, vomiting and fever. Upon examination, you noticed a greyish patch at the soft palate and bull neck appearance. What is the characteristic appearance of this organism?
a. Tennis rocket appearance violet rods
b. Drumstick appearance blue rods
c. Capsulated rods
d. Club-shaped rod with beaded appearance
D
Which of the following statement differentiate Nocardia from Actinomycetes?
a. Cotrimoxazole is the drug of choice
b. Actinomycetes are partially acid fast
c. Nocardia are gram positive bacilli
d. Actinomycetes produce sulfur granules
A
Which of the following about Genus Bacillus is correct?
a. Bacillus anthracis have terminally located spores
b. Bacillus subtilis and Bacillus anthracis almost have similar characteristics
c. Antimicrobial resistance is due to chromosomal inheritance
d. Bacillus cereus is a frequent laboratory contaminant
B
It is partially difficult to differentiate Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae from?
a. Actinomyces sp.
b. Lactobacillus species
c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Bacillus subtilis
B
A man had knee injury 2 days prior when he developed compression syndrome. Which of the following sign would you suspect Clostridium perfringens?
a. Necrosis of the tissue at the wound closure site
b. Bullous formation at the dermal area
c. Toxemia due to endotoxins leaking into the blood stream
d. Crepitation in the subcutaneous tissues
D
A wool sorter personnel had a traumatic skin lesion and was noted to have a non-painful black scab after a few days. What is the antibiotic of choice?
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Metronidazole d. Linezolid
A
True of Clostridium perfringens, EXCEPT
a. Found in soil
b. Can survive heating
c. Catalase Negative
d. Obligate aerobes
D
Listeria monocytogenes is frequently a food borne pathogen because
a. It can survive with high pH
b. It can survive at 4oC
c. It cannot survive in High concentration
d. All of them are true
B
Growth with characteristic medusa head colonies
a. Bacillus cereus
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Clostridium difficile
B
Which of the following will differentiate Listeria from Corynebacterium?
a. Listeria is able to produce hemolysin
b. Listeria is motile at 37 degrees Celsius
c. Corynebacterium is able to produce hemolysin
d. Corynebacterium is non-motile
A
A farmer developed a localized cutaneous red lesion on his hand after handling carcasses of dead pigs with red patches on the skin. What is the expected biochemical reaction of this organism?
a. Indole positive
b. Oxidase positive
c. H2S negative
d. Catalase negative
D
All of the following statements regarding Clostridium perfringens are correct EXCEPT
a. It produces a double zone of hemolysis when grown on blood agar
b. It is the most common cause of antibiotic associated diarrhea
c. It produces an enterotoxin
d. It can cause intravascular hemolysis
B
A 3 year old child had watery diarrhea after taking Cheese. The organism showed tumbling motility. Which statement is true?
a. Strictly anaerobic gram + bacilli
b. Internalins produces the siderophores
c. Iron is an important virulent factor
d. Potent verotoxin causes the diarrhea
C
True for Listeria monocytogenes
a. Growth is non-hemolytic on blood agar
b. Motile at room temperature
c. Catalase negative
d. Gram + spore forming rods
B
A patient developed Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) after accidentally inhaling some dust at the sheep’s farm. What is the determinant of pathogenicity of this organism that can resist phagocytosis?
a. Mycolic acid capsule
b. Polysaccharide capsule
c. Polyglutamate D capsule
d. Peptidoglycan capsule
C
A 55 year old diabetic, fish vendor accidentally pricked his right hand with the shell of an oyster. The skin became painful, swollen, and reddish with a pus-filled center. It progressed to a bullous eruption with crepitus sound associated with fever. What is the expected organism?
a. Gram negative rod
b. Gram positive capsulated cocci
c. Gram positive rod with spores
d. Gram positive rod without spores
C
Which of the following causes sexually transmitted disease known as Granuloma inguinale? a. Proteus
b. Klebsiella
c. Salmonella d. Serratia
B
Which of the following pathway is the most common source of infection for enteric bacteria?
a. Fecal oral spread
b. Endogenous spread
c. Direct inoculation
d. Zoonotic spread
A
Which of the following Enterics causes renal calculi?
a. Proteus vulgaris
b. Proteus mirabilis
c. Morganella morganii
d. Escherichia coli
B
Which body site is the source of salmonella among asymptomatic carriers? a. Colon
b. Pancreas
c. Ileum
d. Gallbladder e. Cecum
D
The O antigen pertains to what bacterial structure?
a. Pili
b. Flagella
c. Capsule
d. Cell membrane
D
Which strain of E. coli produces hemorrhagic colitis?
a. 078: H11
b. 0124: H30
c. 0111a, 111B: H2
d. 0157: H7
D
True for enteric bacteria
a. All are able to produce endotoxins
b. All are able to produce enterotoxins
c. All are facultatively anaerobic bacteria
d. They have the ability to ferment lactose
C
Escherichia is generally non-pathogenic commensals of the GIT, however, they become virulent due to this phenomenon
a. Chromosomal gene mutation
b. Multi-drug resistance
c. Rampant Livestock antibiotic use
d. Plasmid transfer
D
Which of the following bacteria is Acid stable? a. Serratia
b. Proteus
c. Shigella
d. Salmonella
C
Which of the following is not part of the Enterobacteriae group?
a. Pseudomonas spp
b. Salmonella group
c. Escherichia coli
d. Actinobacter group
A
Only one of the following statements is TRUE for shiga-like toxin
a. It is a verotoxin
b. Causes influx of chloride and water
c. Increases cGMP
d. It is heat stable
B
Which of the following is true statement regarding the differences of Endotoxin vs exotoxin?
a. Exotoxins are coded by bacterial chromosomes
b. Endotoxins are released during bacterial lysis
c. Exotoxin is responsible for diarrheal manifestation
d. All gram negative produce exotoxin
A
A patient was seen at the clinic after complaining of progressive destruction of the nose. He was referred to an ENT specialist and noted extension of the lesion to the larynx. A biopsy was done which reported chronic granulomatous disease. He was then referred to a dermatopathologist and was eventually diagnosed with rhinoscleroma. What is the causative organism?
a. Klebsiella
b. Providencia
c. Escherichia d. Serratia
A
A 79 year old woman had moderate grade fever and dysuria (painful urination) for 3 days, treated with cefuroxime but after 3 days the condition still persisted. The physician ordered culture which showed bacteria that are motile, non lactose fermenters, grow on potassium cyanide medium (KCN) and ferment xylose but is negative for urease test. What is the most likely organism?
a. Proteus vulgaris
b. Providencia rettgeri
c. Proteus mirabilis
d. Morganella morganii
B
Toxin produced by gram negative bacteria which is responsible for diarrheal manifestation
a. Fimbrae
b. Capsular antigen
c. Endotoxin
d. Enterotoxin
D
Which of the contributes to the copius colony of klebsiella which can be described as mucoid or hyperviscious on differential media?
a. Polysaccharide
b. Acetylmethylcarbinol
c. Lactose
d. Prodigiosin
A
Which element will be considered when considering bacillary dysentery?
a. Presence of blood in stool
b. Presence of mucus in stool
c. Presence of pus in stool
d. Presence of pathogen in stool
A
In patients without fever having enterocolitis caused by salmonella, what should be the specimen of choice for growing the causative organism?
a. Intestinal biopsy
b. Urine
c. Blood
d. Stool
D
Which of the following bacterial structure can potentially induce septic shock?
a. Nucleus
b. Flagella
c. Capsule
d. Outer membrane
D
A child has onset of watery diarrhea which then progressed to a bloody with mucoid diarrhea after he has been noted to be playing with his new turtles. Stool culture growth showed H2S producing motile bacteria. What is the causative organism?
a. Escherichia
b. Shigella specie
c. Salmonella specie
d. Klebsiella
C
Which of the following salmonella species is known to be commonly transmitted from the feces of pigs?
a. Salmonella cholera suis
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Salmonella paratyphi
d. Salmonella enteridis
A
Which of the following gram negative is opportunistic?
a. Burkholderia cephasia
b. Yersinia enterolita
c. E. coli 0157 H7
d. Salmonella typhi serovar typhi
A
One of the following is true for salmonellosis
a. Invade M cells of the intestine and then move into adjoining cells via actin polymerization
b. Does not spread through the bloodstream
c. Acid stable and can infect only with 200 live bacteria
d. Can go to the liver, spleen, bone marrow
D
Which of the following gram negative bacteria do not ferment lactose? a. Klebsiella
b. Yersinia
c. Enterobacter
B
One of the following is not true for shigella infection
a. Can multiply intracellularly in the intestinal mucosa
b. Transmitted through contaminated water, hands and food
c. Can be infection through zoonotic transmission
d. Have smaller infective dose compared to salmonella
C
A child had abdominal pain, vomiting with mucoid and bloody diarrhea. Stool culture was done growth showing non-lactose fermenting and non hydrogen sulfide producing organism. Which organism is responsible for the child’s illness?
a. Shigella specie
b. Escherichia coli
c. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
d. Salmonella specie
D
A hospitalized patient who recently had abdominal surgery developed high grade fever. Blood culture was done to determine the presence of bacteremia. He was started with 3rd generation cephalosporins however the fever didn’t resolve after 48hours. Culture showed mucoid colonies with motile gram negative bacteria which are lysine decarboxylase positive. What is the reason for antimicrobial resistance of this organism?
a. Prodigiosin b. Adhesin
c. AmpC
d. Plasmid
C
The following are gram negative bacteria are considered true enterics pathogen, except?
a. Shigella enteridis
b. Yersinia pestis
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Shigella flexneri
B
Which test detects the O antigen of proteus?
a. Nucleic acid amplification test
b. Widal test
c. DNA hybridization
d. Weil-felix test
D
A patient presents with mucoid and bloody diarrhea. Which of the following pathogenic E. coli is most likely considered?
a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
b. Diffusely adhering E. coli
c. Uropathogenic E. coli
d. Shiga toxin producing E. coli
D
Which of the following test determines the presence of O and H antigen produced by salmonella?
a. Antibody agglutination test
b. Widal test
c. Gram staining of stool smears
d. Nucleic acid amplication test
B
An alcoholic elderly developed cough and fever, chest Xray showed lobar consolidation and was treated for moderate risk pneumonia however, the symptoms progested and he is now hemoptysis (coughing out of blood). he was rushed at the emergency room and chest CT scan was ordered showing necrotizing consolidation of the lungs. Culture showed lactose fermenting gram negative organism. Which of the following test will show that this organism can produce acethylmethylcarbinol from dextrose?
a. Arginine decarboxylase test
b. Lysine decarboxylase test
c. Voges-proskauer test
d. Triple sugar agar test
C
A chronically ill patient developed high grade fever and cough, sputum culture and blood culture were done. He was started with 1st generation cephalospporin however the fever didn’t resolve after 48 hours. Sputum culture showed mucoid colonies with motile gram-negative bacteria which lysine decarboxylase negative, but citrate positive. Which of the following statement is true regarding this organism?
a. Produce prodiogisin
b. Resistance to antimicrobials is due to plasmid
c. The causative organism is enterobacter
d. Most strains possess a chromosomal B-lactamase called ampC
B
A 20 days old baby had onset of seizure associated with moderate grade fever. Brought at the emergency room and cerebrospinal fluid analysis was performed. What is the virulent factor of this organism?
a. antigen
b. Vi antigen
c. K1 antigen
d. H antigen
C
This toxin produced by shigella that has the ability to attack the CNS and cause meningismus and coma
a. Shiga toxin
b. Endotoxin
c. Shiga-like toxin
d. Enterotoxin
A
A bedridden patient with indwelling urinary catheter developed fever and suprapubic pain. Culture of urine and revealed a swarming growth on blood agar plate which was also tested positive for urease enzyme which organism is most likely the cause of infections?
a. Serratia marcescens
b. Escherichia coli
c. Proteus mirabilis
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C
The shallow ulceration in the intestinal mucosa when infected by shigella is due to?
a. Inflammatory response
b. Enterotoxin production
c. Invasion of the bacteria
d. Neurotoxin ability of the organism
C
An IV drug user has a high fever for 4 days who was eventually admitted. Blood culture was done and the growth was cultivated on the enhancement media showing a lactose fermenter, glucose fermenter, oxidase negative with salmon pink colonies. What is the most likely organism?
a. Serratia marcescens
b. Escherichia coli
c. Proteus mirabilis
d. Klebsiella ozoneae
A
The virulent strain of E.coli which causes HUS is closely related with shigella’s shiga toxin that are both capable of producing a toxin called?
a. Exotoxin
b. Verotoxin
c. Enterotoxin d. Endotoxin
B
Which of the following is a common of traveler’s diarrhea which is described as watery diarrhea among patients?
a. ETEC
b. EIEC c. EAEC d. EHEC
A
The presence of purpura fulminans is an indication of what sequelae caused by the organism’s endotoxins
a. Dissemination of the organism in the blood stream
b. Destruction of the adrenal glands
c. Consumption coagulopathy
d. Chemotaxis of the Polymorphonuclear cells
C
A patient had diarrhea and eventually resolved, now he presents at the emergency room due to ascending paralysis which started 3 days ago. The physician diagnosed him with Guillan-Barre syndrome. What is the most likely organism of diarrhea?
a. Campylobacter
b. Pseudomonas c. Aeromonas
d. Vibrio
A
Most common anatomical site among carriers of Neisseria meningitides a. Gallbladder
b. Nasopharynx
c. Larynx d. Skin
B
The virulence factor of Gonococci that enhances its ability to penetrate the mucosal lining and able to prevent immunity from the previous infection
a. IgA proteases
b. Transferrin
c. Endotoxin
d. Pili
C
True to gonococcal infection
a. It causes non-purulent, non painful discharge to males
b. Discharge is greenish and mucoid
c. Causes foul smelling and painful discharge among females
d. Discharge is profuse and yellowish non-foul smelling
D
One of the following characteristics is correct for Vibrio cholerae
a. Can grow in high salt medium
b. Can grow in low pH medium
c. Can produce urease enzyme
d. Can grow in high temperature environment
A
The hypovolemic shock in patients that is attributed to severe dehydration due to massive watery diarrhea in cholera is due to?
a. Enterotoxin
b. Verotoxin
c. Endotoxin d. Cytotoxin
A
Which of the following opportunistic bacteria is Non-motile gram negative bacilli? a. Burkholderia
b. Aeromonas
c. Acinetobacter
d. Pseudomonas
C
Mode of transmission for Neisseria meningitides?
a. Airborne transmission
b. Skin to skin contact
c. Inhalation of spores
d. Respiratory droplet
D
A component of the Thayer Martin Agar which can inhibit Gram-negative bacteria other than Neisseria
a. Vancomycin
b. Nystatin
c. Streptomycin
d. Trimethoprim
D
A patient presents with fever for 7 days associated with early onset of diarrhea and has now become constipated. What is the specimen of choice to cultivate the organism of interest?
a. Stool
b. Urine
c. Blood
d. Kidney biopsy
C
Use of the following staining technique will be able to stain Nucleoids?
a. Gram staining
b. Acid fast staining
c. Fuelgen staining
d. Silver staining
C
A 3 week old female infant was brought to the emergency by her mother for nonbilious and non-bloody vomiting along with decreased appetite decreased urine output, increased fussiness, jaundice and fever. The infant has been born at 37 6/7 weeks gestational age by normal spontaneous vaginal delivery. Mother claimed she had prolonged labor
a. Group A strep
b. Group B strep
c. Group C strep
d. Viridans group strep
B
Which of the following is/are NOT a major function of nuclear membrane?
a. Bearing the receptors and other proteins of the chemotactic and other sensory transduction
systems
b. Bearing the enzymes and carrier molecules that function in the biosynthesis of DNA, cell wall
polymers and membrane lipids
c. Electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation in aerobic species
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
D
A virulent factor of Neisseria that can activate the clotting cascade, depositing fibrin in small vessels, producing hemorrhage in the adrenals and other organs, altering peripheral vascular resistance and leading to shock and death
a. Pili
b. Shiga-toxin like verotoxin
c. Enterotoxin
d. Polysaccharide capsule
e. IgA proteases
D
Endospores are present in the following bacteria EXCEPT
a. Clostridium spp
b. Thermoactinomyces
c. Bacillus spp
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
E
Which of the following will differentiate Listeria from Corynebacteria?
a. Listeria is able to produce hemolysin
b. Corynebacterium is able to produce hemolysin
c. Listeria is motile at 37 degrees Celsius
d. Corynebacterium is non motile
A
The movement of Listeria monocytogenes inside of host cells is caused by
a. Inducing host cell actin polymerization
b. Formation of pili (fimbrae) on the listeriae surface
c. Pseudopod formation
d. Locomotion of listeriae flagella
A
A patient developed Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) after accidentally inhaling some dust at the sheep’s farm. What is the determinant of pathogenicity of this organism that can resist phagocytosis?
a. Polyglutamate D capsule
b. Polysaccharide capsule
c. Peptidoglycan capsule
d. Mycolic acid capsule
A
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Western blot: band lines on gp41 and p24 for HIV
b. Particle agglutination test: Widal test for S. typhi
c. Immunofluorescent assay: Direct fluorescence assay for T. pallidum
d. Flocculation test: RPR and VDRL for T. pallidum
B
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a. Most species require a non-selective medium for growth
b. Mycoplasmas are example of bacteria with thick peptidoglycan on their cell wall
c. Mollicutes tend to form characteristic “fried egg” colonies on a solid medium
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
E
A mother to the clinic because of fever, sore throat and erythema. Upon physical examination patient manifested polyarthritis and carditis. Identify the causative agent
a. Gram positive, lancet- shaped diplococci
b. Gram positive, bacitracin resistant, bet-hemolytic
c. Gram positive, bacitracin sensitive, pyrollidonyl araylamidase positive
d. Gram positive, sporeforming rods
C
Which of the following test will differentiate Pseudomonas from Shigella?
a. Oxidase test
b. Growth on nutrient agar
c. Gram staining
d. Lactose fermentation test
A
A 79 years old woman had moderate grade fever and dysuria (painful urination) for 3 days. Urine culture which showed bacteria that are motile, non-lactose fermenters, grow on potassium cyanide medium (KCN), and ferment xylose but is Negative for urease test. What is the most likely organism?
a. Providencia rettgeri
b. Proteus mirabilis
c. Proteus vulgaris
d. Morganella morganii
A
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Metachromatic granules: stored polyphosphates
b. Lipid inclusions: stored PABA
c. Ribosomes: stored proteins
d. Polysaccharide granules: stored starch
C
All of the following statements regarding the hyaluronic acid capsule of S. pyogenes are correct except
a. It is antiphagocytic
b. It is an important virulent factor
c. It binds to CD44 on human epithelial cells
d. A vaccine against the capsule is currently available
e. It is responsible for the mucoid appearance of the colonies in vitro
D
Which of the following has more value to in vitro testing of antimicrobial susceptibility? a. Bioavailability
b. MIB
c. Pharmakinetics
d. MIC
D
A chronically ill patient developed High grade fever and cough. Sputum and blood culture were done. He was started with 1st generation cephalosporin however the fever didn’t resolve after 48 hours. Sputum culture showed mucoid colonies were motile gram negative bacteria which lysine decarboxylase Negative, but Citrate positive. Which of the following statement is true regarding this organism?
a. Produce prodigiosin
b. Resistance to antimicrobials is due to Plasmid
c. Most strains possess a chromosomal B-lactamase called ampC
d. The causative organism is Enterobacter
B
Important bacterial structure in the transfer of DNA
a. Pili
b. Plasmid c. Fimbrae d. Flagellum
A
Which organelle is a site of enzymes involved in respiration and ATP production and contains specific transport proteins that regulate passage of metabolites into and out of this organelle?
a. Invagination of the outer membrane of mitochondria
b. Cristae
c. System of inner folded membranes of mitochondria
d. Invagination of the outer membrane of mitochondria and system of inner folded membranes of
mitochondria
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
B
A cellular component among Acid fast organisms which can resist acidification and heating?
a. Polysaccharide capsule
b. Glycosaminoglycan
c. Peptidoglycan
d. Mycolic acid
D
The most important criterium in determining if an antibiotic should be given to a patient?
a. Laboratory test result
b. Host factor
c. Identification and cultivation of bacteria
d. Drug factor
e. Presence of bacterial infection
B
The reported incubation period for inhalational anthrax can be up to
a. 2 days
b. 12 days
c. 6 weeks
d. 10 months
e. 5 weeks
C
The “hallmark” of Adaptive immunity?
a. Humoral mediated response
b. Antibody production
c. Anamnestic memory in all exposures
d. Antigen recognition
e. Specific microbial killing
f. Self-recognition to prevent autoimmunity
D
Which of the following characteristic is correctly paired?
a. Bacillus anthracis= Hemolytic on Blood agar
b. Bacillus anthracis= grow in nitrogen and carbon
c. Bacillus anthracis inhalational anthrax= best specimen is sputum
d. Bacillus cereus= cut glass appearance
B
Which of the following cultivating media will be able to differentiate the hemolytic patterns of bacteria?
a. MacConkey agar
b. Eosin Methylene Blue agar
c. Blood agar
d. Chocolate agar
C
The following is/are true of Group B streptococcus EXCEPT
e. Nonhemolytic and PYR negative
f. M protein main virulence factor
g. Hydrolyze sodium Hippurate and give a positive CAMP test
h. Bacitracin sensitive B-hemolytic
G
Which of the following is NOT true on the Non-rational use of Antibiotics?
a. Poor compliance of the patient and preference
b. Poor recognition of infection
c. Newer antimicrobial discovery has lead to antibiotic resistance
d. Inappropriate prescribing and dosing regimen
C
Which of the following is a presumptive sign of Meningitis due to meningeal irritation?
a. Headache
b. Fever
c. Seizure
d. Stiff neck
B
The GIT of babies who are breastfed are colonized by these commensals a. Corynebacterial
b. Bifidobacterium
c. Lactobacillus
d. Bacteroides
B
patient presents with watery, foul-smelling diarrhea followed by bloody stools accompanied by fever and severe abdominal pain after eating an undercooked chicken. Which of the following is not part of the Reiter’s syndrome?
a. Cervicitis
b. Uveitis c. Urethritis d. Arthritis
A
In treating Gonococcal infection, which of the following antibiotics should be added to cover chlamydia trachomatis?
a. Doxycycline
b. Silver nitrate
c. Streptomycin
d. Erythromycin
B
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the difference of Endotoxin vs. Exotoxin?
a. All gram negative bacteria produce exotoxin
b. Exotoxins are released during bacterial lysis
c. Endotoxins are coded by bacterial chromosomes
d. Endotoxin is responsible for diarrheal manifestation
C
Metachromatic granules or volutin are inclusion bodies found in?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Bordetella pertussis
C
The site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cell is the ___ and in the prokaryotic cells is the ___
a. Mitochondria and cell membrane
b. Mitochondria and cell wall
c. Mitochondria and ribosomes
d. Mitochondria and none
A
Which of the following situations will the normal flora cause diseases in Hosts?
a. The normal flora is introduced to a sterile body site
b. There is overgrowth of normal flora
c. The normal flora becomes resistant to antibiotics
d. The normal flora is replaced by pathogenic bacteria
A
Bacterial commensals in the upper GIT that can potentially cause bacterial endocarditis if introduced in
the blood stream?
a. Staphylococcus epidermitis
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Group B streptococcus
d. Viridans streptococcus
D
Which of the following structure is not always present in ALL bacteria?
a. Ribosomes
b. Plasma membrane
c. Nucleoid
d. Cell wall
D
A bed ridden patient developed fever and cough, chest Xray showed a fleur-de-lis pattern. What is the causative organism?
a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Acinetobacter baumanii
d. Burkholderia cephacia
B
The display of cell adhesion molecules happens during which event of inflammation?
a. Delivery of plasma proteins
b. Release of inflammatory and chemotactic factors
c. Recruitment of immune cells
d. Vascular changes
D
Ferments only Glucose and Maltose
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Neisseria meningitides
c. Moraxella catharalis
d. All of them
e. None of them
B
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is due to what toxin?
a. Shiga-like toxin
b. Shiga toxin
c. Enterotoxin
d. Endotoxin
B
Which of the following immune cells travel and migrate to tissues permanently?
a. Basophils
b. Plasma cells
c. Monocyte
d. Lymphocytes
e. Eosinophils
C
Which of the following parameter is not included in the selection of antibiotics for your patient from a clinician perspective?
a. Safety profile of the drug
b. The infection site
c. The pathogen
d. Antimicrobial susceptibility pattern
D
A patient presents with bloody diarrhea after taking Marijuana-infused brownies. What is the most likely causative organism?
a. Campylobacter
b. Escherichia
c. Shigella
d. Salmonella
D
Which of the following bacterial structures is least likely to contain useful antigens when doing serologic tests?
a. Flagella
b. Capsule
c. Ribosomes
d. Lipid A
C
A hospitalized patient who recently had abdominal surgery developed high grade fever. Blood cultures was done to determine the presence of bacteremia. He was started with 3rd generation cephalosporins however the fever didn’t after 48hours. Culture showed mucoid colonies with motile gram negative bacteria which are lysine decarboxylase positive. What is the reason for antimicrobial resistance of this organism?
a. Adhesin
b. Prodigiosin
c. Plasmid
d. Camp C
D
20 days old baby had onset of seizure associated with moderate grade fever. Brought at the emergency room and CSF analysis was performed. What is the virulent factor of this organism?
a. K1 antigen
b. V1 antigen
c. O antigen
d. H antigen
A
A patient complain of watery diarrhea associated with abdominal pain after eating seafood. Stool culture revealed gram-negative rods which produced green colonies on Thiosulfate citrate bile salt sucrose agar (TCBS). What is the causative organism?
a. V. cholerae
b. v. vulnificus
c. v. parahaemolyticus
d. none of them
C
Which of the following statement differentiate Nocardia from Actinomycetes?
a. Cotrimoxazole is the drug of choice
b. Actinomycetes produce sulfur granules
c. Actinomycetes are partially acid fast
d. Nocardia are gram + Bacilli
A
Which of the following statements precisely describes the comparison of bacterial, fungal, and human cells?
a. Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different
b. Human cells undergo meiosis, whereas neither bacteria nor fungi do
c. Human and fungal cell walls have similar cell, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains
peptidoglycan
d. Human cells and bacterial cells have mitochondria, whereas fungal cells do not
A
One of the following is not true for Shigella infection
a. Can be infection through zoonotic transmission
b. Transmitted through contaminated water, hands and food
c. Can multiply intracellularly in the intestinal mucosa
d. Have smaller infective dose compared to salmonella
A
A man got punctured deeply by a rusty nail in a construction site yesterday. Which of the following is
the correct intervention?
a. Aggressive debridement of wound
b. Thorough cleaning of wound daily
c. Give 3 separate doses of Tetanus toxoid deep IM
d. Give intramuscular injection with tetanus toxoid 500 units
e. Give 3 separate doses of tetanus immunoglobulin at 5000 units each
D
Which of the following is not an effect to Cytokine release?
a. Promotes differentiation of cytotoxic T cells
b. Mediates inflammation
c. Mediates antigen specific interaction
d. Macrophage activation
C
Which cellular structure is composed of protein called tubulin?
a. Microtubule
b. Flagella
c. Cilia
d. All of the choices
e. None of the choices
D
Which of the following bacterial structure can potentially induce septic shock?
a. Outer membrane
b. Nucleus
c. Capsule
d. Flagella
A
The most common subgroup of Vibrio species in the Philippines a. Hikojima
b. Osaka
c. Inaba
d. Ogawa
C
What do you call the antigenic determinants of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
a. Forssman antigen
b. M protein
c. Coagulase
d. O antigen
A
. A virulent factor of Legionella that protects it from macrophages superoxide and hydroperoxide oxidative burst
a. Phospholipase
b. RNAse enzyme
c. Cu-Zn superoxide dismutase
d. Endotoxin
C
An important property of the bacteria that protects it from radiation, desiccation, lysozyme, temperature, starvation and chemical disinfectants which is also important for the survival of the species
a. Plasmid production
b. Slime layer
c. Endospore formation
d. Bacterial capsule
C
A patient from Zamboanga who just landed in Cebu yesterday for his face to face class had a sudden onset of diarrhea without fever. What is the likely causative organism?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Escherichia coli
D
In gram negative bacteria, the transport of nutrients is usually facilitated by specific binding proteins located in periplasmic space, while gram positive cells the binding proteins are attached to the outer surface of the cell membrane. Which of the following transport mechanism is responsible for this action?
a. Special transport process
b. Group translocation
c. Passive transport
d. Active transport
D
Which of the following is NOT a component of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?
a. Perihepatitis
b. Pelvic inflammatory
c. Disease
d. Ectopic pregnancy
e. Inflammation of hepatic capsule and diaphragm
D
One of the following is true for Salmonellosis
a. Can go to the liver, spleen, bone marrow
b. Does not spread through the bloodstream
c. Acid stable and can infect only with 200 live bacteria
d. Invade M cells of the intestine and then move into adjoining cells via actin polymerization
A
A woman who had induced abortion became hypotensive and in distress after a couple of days. Which
of the following statement is true about the pathogenesis of this infection?
a. Endotoxin causes septic shock by activating the polymorphonuclears
b. Enterotoxin causes respiratory paralysis due to toxin binding at the synaptic cleft
c. Exotoxin causes myonecrosis of the smooth muscles resulting in flaccid paralysis
d. Superantigen causes massive activation of the cytokines
D
Not a function of the complement system?
a. Promotes mobilization and activation of WBCs
b. Activation of macrophages to release interleukins
c. Forms the membrane attack unit to cause cytolysis
d. Opsonization to enhance phagocytosis
B
. A 12-year old who has no comorbidities presented with purulent white ear discharge for 3 days and do not complain of ear pain. Gram staining of discharge shows Gram Negative cocci, diplococci and sometimes coccobacilli. What is the drug of choice for his patient?
a. Doxycycline
b. Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid
c. Amoxicillin
d. Clindamycin
e. Erythromycin
f. Penicillin
B
Which of the following pairs is mismatched regarding the chemical subunits of glycocalyx for each bacterium?
a. Haemophilus influenzae: muramic acid
b. Neisseria meningitidis: sialic acid
c. Bacillus anthracis: D-glutamic acid
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae: glucuronic acid
A
Which of the following tests detects the presence of antibodies specific against a pathogen?
a. VDRL
b. Widal test
c. Western blot technique
d. RPR
e. Reverse transcriptase Polymerase chain reaction
C
An important structure in prokaryotic cells that is essential for Drug resistance of the organism? a. Flagella
b. Pili
c. Fimbrae d. Plasmid
D
True for infections, EXCEPT
a. Colonization of pathogenic bacteria is the first stage of infection
b. All infectious diseases are potentially communicable
c. When the microorganism enters the body, the person is considered infected
d. All communicable disease are potentially infectious
B
- A 10 year old girl develop a sore throat with erythema, exudates over the tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and fever. A pharyngeal swab was collected and beta-hemolytic colonies of gram positive ovoid shaped organism in chain grows in blood agar medium. What test can be used to identify the organism?
a. Bacitracin susceptibility
b. Bile solubility
c. Coagulase
d. Optochin susceptibility
A
Most common cause of scarlet fever?
a. Group A strep
b. Group B strep
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Viridans group strep
A
Which of the following is a type of immune-complex Mediated hypersensitivity reaction (Type III hypersensitivity reaction)
a. Erythroblastosis fetalis
b. Anaphylaxis due to peanut butter hypersensitivity
c. Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
d. Multiple sclerosis
C
You have isolated non-motile, gram positive cocci in pairs, chains, and clusters in a wound specimen. Which of the following biochemical tests is the next step to distinguish staphylococci from streptococci?
a. Oxidase test
b. Carbohydrate breakdown
c. Catalase test
d. Coagulase test
e. None of the above
C
Each of the following statements is true about the mechanism of action of antibiotics on bacteria, EXCEPT
a. Linezolid affects bacterial initial ribosome synthesis but not that of eukaryotic cells
b. Chloramphenicol affects the large subunits of bacterial ribosomes, which is different from the large
subunits of eukaryotes
c. Penicillin affects bacteria rather than human cells because bacteria have cell wall, while human
cells do not
d. Streptomycin affects the DNA polymerases of bacteria but not that of human cells
D
The following organisms are considered commensals of the GIT, EXCEPT a. Klebsiella
b. Yersinia
c. Escherichia d. Enterobacter
B
All structures are different in eukaryotic cells and bacteria, Except?
a. Membrane bound organelles
b. Cell wall
c. Cell membrane
d. Ribosomes
B
This is a clinical feature of yersinia pestis that has almost 100% mortality
a. Black plague
b. Pneumonic plague
c. Bubonic plague
d. Septicemic plague
B
The following have endotoxic properties, EXCEPT?
a. N-acetylmuramic acid
b. Lipid A
c. Core polysaccharide
d. O polysaccharide
A
Which of the following bacteria cannot be inhibited by Penicillin?
a. Streptococcus agalactiae
b. Mycoplasma pneumonia
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B
man had knee surgery 2 days prior when the developed compression syndrome. Which of the following sign would you suspect clostridium perfringens?
a. Toxemia due to endotoxin leaking into the blood stream
b. Necrosis of the tissue at the wound closure site
c. Crepitation in the subcutaneous tissue
d. Bullous formation at the dermal area
C
Streptomycin has specificity to which bacterial structure?
a. DNA
b. Cell wall
c. Ribosome
d. Cell membrane
C
- Which of the following organism has a distinguishing prominent capsule on the capsular staining technique?
a. Hemophylus influenzae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Klebsiella pneumonia
d. Salmonella paratyphi
C
Which of the following is the common reason for death from cholera?
a. Massive bloody diarrhea
b. Renal failure
c. Severe electrolyte imbalance
d. Hypovolemic shock
D
Which of the following statements is/are true?
a. The space between the inner and outer membrane is called the periplasmic space
b. Hydrophobic structure renders acid fast bacteria resistant to many harsh chemicals, including
detergents and strong acids
c. P. aeruginosa has outer membrane which is 100 times more permeable than that of E. coli
d. P. aeruginosa has outer membrane which is 100 times more permeable than of E. coli and
Hydrophobic structure renders acid fast staining resistant to many harsh chemicals, including
detergents and strong acids
e. Hydrophobic structure renders acid fast staining resistant to many harsh chemicals, including detergents and strong acids and the space between the inner and outer membranes is called the periplasmic space
E
Which of the following nuclei acid-based technique is considered as simplest and commonly used in epidemiologic studies?
a. Ribotyping
b. Western blot analysis
c. Southern blot analysis
d. Plasmid analysis
D
An alcoholic elderly developed cough and fever. Chest Xray showed lobar consolidation and was treated for moderate risk pneumonia. He was rushed to the emergency room and a chest CT scan was ordered showing necrotizing consolidation of the lungs. Culture showed lactose fermenting gram negative organism. Which of the following test will show that this organism can produce acetylmethylcarbinol from dextrose?
a. Lysine decarboxylase test
b. Triple sugar agar test
c. Voges-proskauer test
d. Arginine decarboxylase test
C
The “hallmark” sign of Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome
a. Meningeal irritation
b. Adrenal gland hemorrhage
c. Purpura on the face and trunk
d. Fever at 40 oC
B
A fisherman sustained a traumatic wound from a shellfish developed fever and expanding hematoma at the wound site. The culture of the wound discharge showed a Gram-negative rod, with darting motility. What is the drug of choice?
a. Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid
b. Doxycycline
c. Amoxicillin
d. Cefuroxime
B
Which of the following pairs is mismatched in gram-staining procedure?
a. Safranin O: counterstain
b. Crystal violet: primary stain
c. Acid alcohol: decolorizer
d. Gram’s iodine: mordant
C
Listeria monocytogenes is frequently a food borne pathogen because?
a. It can survive with high pH
b. It cannot survive in high salt concentration
c. It can survive at 4 oC
d. All of them are true
C
Which of the following is a non-selective media?
a. Thayer martin agar
b. Chocolate agar
c. CAN agar
d. MacConkey agar
B
Each of the following statements are true regarding murein later, Except?
a. It can be degraded by lysozyme
b. It has a backbone composed of alternating units of muramic acid and acetylglucosamine
c. It is thinner in gram-positive than in gram-negative cells
d. Cross-links between the tetrapeptides involve d-alanine
C
Which of the following gram negative is opportunistic?
a. E. coli 015:H7
b. Salmonella typhi serovar typhi
c. Burkholderia cephasia
d. Yersinia entercolita
C
