Compre Flashcards
Which of the following is based on phenotypic identification?
a. Base sequencing
b. DNA fingerprinting
c. Nucleic acid testing
d. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing
D
Which of the following terms refers to the negatively-charged content of a Gram-positive cell wall that contributes to the latter’s charge?
a. Peptidoglycan
b. Teichoic acid
c. Lipoteichoic acid
d. Muramic acid
B
Which of the following culture media would be best used to isolate bacteria capable of distinguishing carbohydrates fermentation?
a. Blood agar
b. Chocolate agar
c. MacConkey agar
d. CNA blood agar
C
Which of the following serologic tests is considered as sensitive and specific method for detection of antibodies against certain pathogens?
a. Particle agglutination test
b. Flocculation test
c. ELISA
d. Fluorescent Antibody test
e. Western Blot
C
What do you call the process of prokaryotes in which one cell (the parent cell) splits in half to become two daughter cells?
a. Binary fusion
b. Binary fission
c. Meiosis
d. Mitosis
B
Which cell structure is an essential part of genetic transfer (conjugation)?
a. Fimbriae
b. Sex pilus
c. Flagella
d. Cilia
B
What intracellular structure that allows organisms to withstand extreme conditions? a. Capsule
b. Plasmid
c. Endospores
d. Murein
C
The cellular membrane contains
a. Matrix porins
b. Endotoxins
c. Glycocalyx
d. Enzymes involved in bacterial oxidative phosphorylation
e. All of the above
D
What kind of stains are commonly used in the study of bacteria?
a. Acidic dyes
b. Basic dyes
c. Indirect stains
d. Negatively charged stains
B
Of the following, which one is NOT found in prokaryotic cells?
a. Cell membrane
b. Chromosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Plasmids
C
Each of the following statements is true about the mechanism of action of antibiotics on bacteria, EXCEPT
a. Chloramphenicol affects the large subunit of bacterial ribosomes, which is different from the large subunits of eukaryotes
b. Streptomycin affects the DNA polymerases of bacteria but not that of human cells
c. Penicillin affects bacteria rather than human cells because bacteria have cell wall, while human cells do not
d. Linezolid affects bacterial initial ribosome synthesis but not that of eukaryotic cells
B
All of the following are correct concerning culture media, EXCEPT
I. Blood agar and chocolate agar are examples of complex, selective media, that supports the growth
of many different bacteria
II. MacConkey agar is a differential media, which differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermenters of
Enterobacteriaceae
III. If the clinical samples are from non-sterile site (e.g. sputum) it is recommended to use selective
media like Columbia Colistin Nalidixic agar
IV.Most pathogens like bacteria, parasites and viruses can be isolated on a solid-agar containing media
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I and IV
d. II and III
C
Each of the following statements are true regarding murein later, EXCEPT
a. It has a backbone composed of alternating units of muramic acid and acetylglucosamine
b. It can be degraded by lysozyme
c. Cross-links between the tetrapeptides involve d-alanine
d. It is thinner in gram positive than in gram negative cells
D
Which of the following statements precisely describes the comparison of bacterial, fungal and human cells?
a. Human and fungal cell walls have similar cell, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains peptidoglycan
b. Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different
c. Human cells undergo meiosis, whereas neither bacteria nor fungi do.
d. Human cells and bacterial cells have mitochondria, whereas fungal cells do not
B
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding bacterial endospores?
a. Endospores are formed under adverse environmental conditions such as absence of carbon
source.
b. Endospores are resistant to boiling and sometimes UV radiation
c. Endospores are formed primarily by rod-shaped organisms like E. coli and C. diphtheriae
d. Endospores are metabolically inactive and contain dipicolinic acid and calcium.
C
Assume you stain Clostridium perfringens from an abscess by applying malachite green with heat and counterstain with safranin O. In the microscope, the green structures that taken up the malachite green are called?
a. Cell walls
b. Flagella
c. Endospores
d. Capsules
e. Impossible to identify
C
Bacterial surface structures that show antigenic diversity include each of the following, EXCEPT
a. Murein layer
b. Capsules c. Flagella d. Pili
A
All of the following are effects of Lipid A, EXCEPT a. Fever
b. Activation of coagulation cascade c. Hypotension
d. Opsonization and phagocytosis
D
Which of the following pairs is mismatched regarding the chemical subunits of glycocalyx for each bacterium?
a. Bacillus anthracis: D glutamic acid
b. Haemophilus influenzae: muramic acid
c. Neisseria meningitidis: sialic acid
B
Which type of plasmids turns the host of the plasmid into a pathogen?
a. Virulence plasmid
b. Resistance plasmid
c. Fertility plasmid
d. Col plasmid
A
Which of the following nucleic acid based technique is considered as simplest and commonly used in epidemiologic studies?
a. Plasmid analysis
b. Southern blot analysis
c. Ribotyping
d. Western blot analysis
A
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Immunofluorescent Assay: Direct Fluorescence assay for T. pallidum
b. Particle agglutination test. Widal test for S. Typhi
c. Western blot: band lines on gp41 and p24 for HIV
d. Flocculation test RPR and VDRL for T. pallidum
B
The bacterial fimbriae that are present on the outer cell surface, and there are used for
a. Cell motility
b. Sexual reproduction
c. Adherence and exchange of genetic information
d. Adherence to surfaces
D
. In gram negative bacteria, the transport of nutrients is usually facilitated by specific binding proteins located in periplasmic space, while gram positive cells the binding proteins are attached to the outer surface of the cell membrane which of the following transport mechanism is responsible for this action?
a. Passive transport
b. Special transport process
c. Active transport
d. Group translocation
C
All of the following are true about each protein secretion systems except:
a. Type I secretion requires outer membrane secretory proteins
b. Type II secretes protein and transported across the outer membrane by multiprotein complex
c. Type III secretion is achieved by contact with a host cell (contact dependent)
d. Type IV secretion only found in gram-negative bacteria
D
Which of the following organism lacks cell wall and do not synthesize the precursors of peptidoglycan?
a. Corynebacterium diptheriae
b. Viruses and prions
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D
What do you call the protein subunits that comprises microfilaments in the cytoskeleton?
a. Actin
b. Tubulin c. Flagellin d. Pilin
A
You have isolated non-motile gram positive cocci in pairs, chains and clusters in a wound specimen. Which of the following biochemical test is the next step to distinguish staphylococci from streptococci?
a. Catalase test
b. Oxidase test
c. Carbohydrate breakdown
d. Coagulase test
e. None of the above
A
Which of the following bacterial structures is least likely to contain useful antigens when doing serologic tests?
a. Capsule
b. Flagella
c. Ribosomes
C
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Cilia: feeding and circulation
b. Fimbrae: adherence
c. Capsule: Antiphagocytic
d. Flagella: locomotion
e. None of the above
E
Which of the following is the best technique in unculturable gram-negative microorganism in tissue specimens obtained from a patient with undescribed disease?
a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
b. Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
c. SDS and multilocus enzyme electrophoresis
d. PCR assisted with rRNA sequencing
D
The correct order of stains in gram staining procedure is
a. Crystal violet, alcohol, iodine, safranin O
b. Iodine, crystal violet, alcohol, safranin O
c. Safranin O, Alcohol, Iodine, crystal violet
d. Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin O
D
Which of the following pairs is mismatched in gram-staining procedure?
a. Acid alcohol: decolorizer
b. Safranin O: counterstain
c. Gram’s iodine: mordant
d. Crystal violet: primary stain
A
What do you call those bacteria that grow between 20C to 45C? a. Extremethermophiles
b. Psychrophiles
c. Mesophiles
d. Thermophiles
C
All are the functions of mitochondria Except:
a. Induced virulence to other cells
b. Production of ATP
c. Metabolic regulation and cell death
d. Innated response to viral infections
e. Reprogramming of induced pluripotent stem cells
A
Which of the following groups is mismatched?
a. Bacilli in pairs: diplobacilli: Mycobacterium tuberculosis (snapping form)
b. Short rod bacilli: coccobacilli: Escherichia coli
c. Cocci in pairs: streptococci: streptococcus pyogenes
d. Cocci in clusters: staphylococci. Staphylococcus aureus
C
All of the following are distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells. Except:
I. They usually lack-membrane bound organelles II. Their DNA is associated with histones
III. They lack a plasma membrane
IV.They have a cell walls containing peptidoglycan
a. IandII
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. IandIV
B
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Polysaccharide granules - stored starch
b. Metachromatic granules - stored polyphosphates
c. Lipid inclusions - stored PABA
d. Ribosomes- stored proteins
D
In the laboratory you are viewing a Gram-stained field pink cocci and purple bacilli through a compound microscope. You safely conclude that you have
a. Made a mistake in staining
b. Young bacterial cells
c. Old bacterial cells
d. Two different species
e. None of the above
D
The site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cell is the ____ and in the prokaryotic cells is the ____
a. Mitochondria and none
b. Mitochondria and cell wall
c. Mitochondria and cell membrane
C
What do you call the antigenic determinants of streptococcus pneumoniae?
a. Forssman antigen
b. M protein
c. O antigen
d. Coagulase
A
What do you call those bacteria that do not require oxygen but grow better in its presence?
a. Obligate aerobes
b. Microaerophiles
c. Facultative anaerobes
d. Obligate anaerobes
C
Statement 1: Nomenclature is the arrangement of organism into taxonomic groups based on similarities of relationships
Statement 2: Identification is the assignment of names to the various taxa according to international rules
a. Only statement 1 is correct
b. Only statement 2 is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Both statements are incorrect
D
Which of following best explain why mycobacterium tuberculosis stains better with acid fast stain than with gram stain?
a. They lack cell wall therefore cannot absorbs stains
b. They have a thin cell wall that does not retain the primary stain
c. They have a thick capsule that prevents the entry of mordant
d. They have a long chain and large amount of food in their cell wall that prevents the entry of the primary stain
D
FDA category for risk that outweighs the benefit
a. E
b. None of them
c. D
d. B
e. A
f. C
B
What important structure of the organism is recognized as the basis for selective toxicity?
a. Cell wall
b. Plasmid
c. Cell membrane
d. DNA
A
Which of the following is not included as your parameter as a clinician for the selection of antibiotics for your patient?
a. The infection site
b. The pathogen
c. Antimicrobial susceptibility pattern
d. Safety profile of the drug
C
Which of the following is NOT true on the non-rational use of antibiotics?
a. Poor compliance of the patient and preference
b. Inappropriate prescribing and dosing regimen
c. Newer antimicrobial discovery has lead to antibiotic resistance
d. Poor recognition of infection
C
Which of the following has more value to in vitro testing of antimicrobial susceptibility? A. Pharmacokinetics
B. MIC
C. MIB
D. Bioavailability
B
A healthy male patient came to Dr. Bitos for a follow up check up on his 3rd day of Antibiotics for his Pneumonia. Upon his PE, the patient’s chest and lungs are still remarkable with rales heard at the lower right lung field. She followed the guidelines for the treatment of pneumonia. Amoxicillin was given as the first line drug. What should be his next strategy?
a. Just continue antibiotic
b. Refer the patient to a lung specialist
c. Shift antibiotic to intravenous antibiotic to increase the bioavailability
d. Shift the antibiotic with beta lactamase inhibitor
e. Check the patient’s kidney and liver function
C
FDA category for “Risk that outweighs the benefit”
a. A
b. B
c. E
d. X
e. None of them
D
Pathogen A has an ID50 of 50 particles, pathogen B has an ID50 of 1,000 particles, pathogen C has an ID50 of 1x 10(6) particles and pathogen D has an ID50 of 1,000,000,000 particles. Which pathogen is most virulent?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. All of them
A
All of the following can be seen in the pharynx, except?
a. Gram negative rods
b. Neisseria
c. Streptococci
d. Gram positive rods
D
Which period in the stages of disease during which the patient begins to present general signs and symptoms?
a. Illness
b. Convalescence c. Prodromal
d. Incubation
C
All of the following can be help in adhesion, except?
a. Cilia
b. Biofilm
c. Capsule
d. Glycocalyx
e. All of them
f. None
F
Which of the following has more value in vitro testing of antimicrobial susceptibilities such as the culture and sensitivity test?
a. Minimum inhibitory concentration
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Absorption rate
d. MIB
e. Pharmacokinetics
A
A patient came to Dr. Farinas to seek consultation for a recurring multiple skin lesion. The patient said, the previous doctor gave her Levofloxacin (Fluoroquinolone) and claimed she took the antibiotic religiously but the lesions were not healed. What will you suspect?
a. Inappropriate antibiotic
b. Non bacterial lesion
c. The patient was lying
d. Antimicrobial resistance
D
Which of the following choices list the steps of pathogenesis in the correct order?
a. Exposure, Adhesion, Invasion, Infection
b. Invasion, Infection, Adhesion, Exposure
c. Disease, Infection, Exposure, Invasion
d. Adhesion, Exposure, Infection, Invasion
A
Which of the following event is Arrested when Quinolone drugs target the important cellular structures?
a. Blockage of porins
b. Cell division
c. Accumulation of reactive species of the drug in the cytoplasm
d. Release of the muropeptide subunits of peptidoglycan
B
All of the following drugs are absolute bactericidal, EXCEPT? a. Streptomycin
b. Flouroquinolones
c. Doxycycline
d. Penicillin
C
A specific bacterial component that is prevented by B-lactam antibiotic to cross-link the peptide chains.
a. Tetrahydofolic acid
b. Penicillin binding proteins
c. D-alanyl-D-alanine
d. Lipopolysaccharides
B
Vancomycin is specific for Gram-Positive organisms but not for Gram-Negative organisms a. Broad spectrum antibiotic
b. Narrow spectrum antibiotic
c. Botique spectrum antibiotic
d. Emperic antibiotic
B
Dr. Silvano diagnosed his patient with Bacterial sinusitis; Employing what he learned in microbiology, which of the following antibiotic is the Least effective as treatment?
a. Penicillin
b. 3rd generation cephalosporin
c. Erythromycin
d. 2nd generation cephalosporin
D
The following antimicrobials are Anti-folate drugs, EXCEPT?
a. Trimethoprim
b. Para-aminosalisylic acid
c. Gantrisin
d. Ethambutol
D
Dr. Magno saw a 19-year-old patient with a localized skin infection, she diagnosed the patient with folliculitis. What is the most appropriate treatment for this?
a. Amoxicilin oral
b. Bacitracin ointment
c. Momethasone ointment
d. Clotrimazole ointment
e. Vancomycin IV
f. Cefalexin oral
g. Linezolid oral
F
An important basis in rationalizing the dose of antibiotics?
a. Patient’s profile
b. Bacteriostatic effect of the antibiotic
c. Minimum bactericidal concentration
d. Absorption of the drug
A
Which of the following steps of pathogenesis usually requires a Pili?
a. Adhesion
b. Opsonization c. Invasion
d. Exposure
A
The dominant bacteria and makeup to 98% of total oral flora until 6-9 months in humans:
a. S. salivarius
b. S. oris
c. S. epidermidis
S. sanguis
e. S. mutans
A
All of the following phases of infection do not present with signs and symptoms, EXCEPT? a. Latent period
b. Prodromal period
c. Incubation period
d. Convalescence period
C
Dr. Duro started a 3rd Generation Cephalosporin IV antibiotic on a patient admitted for Pneumonia, when the patient does not respond to the antibiotic after 48 hours, what will you consider?
a. Antimicrobial resistance
b. The patient is tolerant to the antibiotic
c. The pneumonia is caused by non-bacterial etiology
d. Inappropriate antibiotic
A
Among the following Exotoxins, which causes scalded skin syndrome?
a. Erythrogenic toxin
b. Neurotoxin
c. Exfoliative toxin
d. Enterotoxin
C
Utilized for prevention to situations where the benefit outweighs the risk of superinfection or even bacterial resistance
a. Broad spectrum antibiotic therapy
b. Emperic therapy
c. Prophylaxis
d. Narrow spectrum antibiotic therapy
C
All of the ff are harmful effects of normal flora, except:
a. Induction of high-grade toxemia
b. Competition for nutrients
c. Agents of disease
d. Transfer to susceptible host
A
Pathogen A has an ID50 of 50 particles, pathogen B has an ID50 of 1,000 particles; pathogen C has an ID50 of 1,000,000,000 particles, and Pathogen D has an ID50 of 1x 10(5) particles. Which pathogen is the least virulent?
a. None of them
b. Pathogen B
c. Pathogen D
d. Pathogen C
e. Pathogen A
C
Known to cause interference in Pyridoxine metabolism causing B6 deficiency among TB patients. a. Pyrazinamide
b. Isoniazid
c. Ethambutol
d. Streptomycin
B
All of the ff are predominant bacteria found in the colon except: a. Enterics
b. Lactics
c. Bacteroides
d. Bifidobacteria
B
An important virulence factor of Helicobacter pylori for the colonization of the Stomach. a. Neuraminidase
b. Peptides
c. Urease
d. Proteases
C
Of the ff Virulence Factors, which among them acts to destroy the cell membranes: a. Kinase
b. Hyaluronidase
c. Lecithinase
d. Coagulase
C
Which of the following is an example of a Latent infection? Variola
Syphilis
Pulmonary tuberculosis Varicella
B
All of the ff can be found on the superficial layers of the epidermis, except:
a. Streptococus
b. Staphylococcus c. Micrococcus
d. Propionibacterium
A
Which of the following bacteria will you consider an infection of the pharynx?
a. Gram positive rods
b. Neisseria species
c. Gram negative rods
d. Streptococci species
A
The following are correctly paired, EXCEPT?
a. Concentration dependent killing. Azithromycin has an MIC of 500 mg
b. Time dependent killing: Ampicillin has a half-life of 4 hours
c. Pharmacodynamics: Cephalosphorins attack the 30s subunits of ribosomes
d. Pharmacokinetics: Intravenous route antibiotic are absorbed the fastest
C
Objective evidence of disease: a. Symptoms
b. Diagnosis
c. Sign
d. Syndrome
C
Thought to be the most important beneficial effect of normal flora:
a. Prevent colonization by pathogen
b. Stimulate production of natural antibodies
c. Synthesize and excrete vitamins
d. Stimulate development of certain tissues
A
The following factors are included for the selection of antibiotics for your patient, EXCEPT?
a. Safety of the drug
b. Infection site
c. Cost of the drug
d. Patient’s immunes status
e. Sensitivity of organism
f. Efficacy of the drug
g. The cause of infection
C
Which bacterial structure contributes to the selective toxicity for Antimicrobial agents?
a. DNA
b. 40s subunit
c. 80s subunit
d. 30s subunit
D
Which of the following antimicrobials target the RNA polymerase? a. Polymyxins
b. Rifampicin
c. Azithromycin
d. Clindamycin
B
The ff are ways of pathogen entry, EXCEPT?
a. Parenteral
b. None of them
c. All of them
d. Ingestion
e. Penetration
f. Inhalation
B
Natural killer cells fall under which category of the immune system?
a. Active immunity
b. Innate immunity
c. Adaptive immunity
d. Passive immunity
e. Both
E
The following are contraindications of vaccination except
a. A 57 year old with hepatocellular carcinoma with ongoing chemotherapy
b. A 45 year old female hypertensive and diabetic
c. A 16 year old female with history of anaphylaxis after eating peanuts
d. A 21 year old callcenter agent with high grade fever
B
An inherent property of adaptive immunity that differentiates it from innate immunity
a. T cell
b. Recognition of MHC
c. Antigen presentation
d. Antigen recognition
B
Which of the following is/are true about Diphtheria vaccines?
a. They are live attenuated vaccines
b. They are killed vaccines
c. They are toxin made by the organism that causes the disease
d. Higher dose diphtheria vaccines should be used for primary immunization
C
Which of the following has an opsonizing ability? a. Antigens
b. Plasma cell c. WBC
d. Antibodies
D
Which of the following confer(s) passive immunity?
a. Hepatitis B vaccine
b. MMR vaccine
c. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin
d. Cross placental transfer of maternal antibodies
D
Which of the following is an example of killed vaccine?
a. Polio vaccine
b. Hepatitis B vaccine
c. Flu vaccine
d. Diphtheria vaccine
A
Functions of the immune system, EXCEPT one?
a. Hemostasis
b. Defense against pathogens c. Homeostasis
d. Kills tumor cells
A
There are 4 main types of vaccine EXCEPT?
a. Killed attenuated vaccines
b. Killed inactivated vaccines
c. Conjugated vaccines
d. Toxoid vaccines
A
IgA transfer from the milk is what form of immunity?
a. Artificially active immunity
b. Naturally active immunity
c. Artificial passive immunity
d. Natural passive immunity
D
Corynebacterium jeikeium is
a. Catalase negative
b. Gram negative
c. Often multidrug resistant
d. Motile
C
Listeria monocytogenes is frequently a foodborne pathogen because a. It can survive at 4oC
b. It survives under conditions of low pH
c. It survives in the presence of high salt concentrations
d. All of the above
D
Listeria monocytogenes is frequently a foodborne pathogen because a. It can survive at 4oC
b. It survives under conditions of low pH
c. It survives in the presence of high salt concentrations
d. All of the above
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Lactobacillus species
e. Actinomyces israelii
D
A 45 year old Sherman imbedded a fishhook into his right forefinger. He removed it and did not seek immediate medical therapy. Five days later, he noted fever, severe pain and nodular type swelling of the finger. He sought medical therapy. The violaceous nodule was aspirated, and after 48hours of incubation, colonies of gram-positive bacillus that caused greenish discoloration of the agar and formed long laments in the broth culture were noted. The most likely cause of this infection is
a. Lactobacillus acidophilus
b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Rhodococcus equi
e. Nocardia brasiliensis
B
The reported incubation period for inhalational anthrax can be up to a. 2 days
b. 10 days c. 3 weeks d. 6 weeks e. 6 months
D
All of the following statements regarding Clostridium perfringens are correct EXCEPT a. It can cause intravascular hemolysis
b. It produces a double zone of hemolysis when grown on blood agar
c. Some strains are aerotolerant
d. It is most common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea
e. it produces enterotoxin
D
Movement of Listeria monocytogenes inside of host cells is caused by
a. inducing host cell actin polymerization
b. formation of pili (fimbriae) on the listeriae surface c. pseudopod formation
d. locomotion of listeria flagella
e. tumbling motility
A
Which of the following aerobic positive bacilli is modified acid fast positive?
a. Nocardia brasiliensis
b. Lactobacillus acidophilus
c. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae d. Listeria monocytogenes
A
A food commonly associated with Bacillus cereus food poisoning is a. Baked potato
b. Hot freshly steamed rice
c. Green beans
d. Honey
e. Fried rice
E
A recovery on laboratory media, the Actinomycetes are best identified by a. An automated system used in laboratory
b. Molecular methods such as 16SrRNA gene sequencing
c. Classical biochemicals
d. Antigen detection tests such as ELISA
D
Which of the following immune cells travel and migrate to tissue permanently?
a. Eosinophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Plasma cells
d. Monocytes
e. Basophils
D
A mother to the clinic because of fever, sore throat and erythema. Upon physical examination patient
manifested polyarthritis and carditis. Identify the causative agent
a. Gram positive, lancet-shaped diplococci
b. Gram positive spore-forming rods
c. Gram positive, bacitracin sensitive, pyrollidonyl araylamidase positive
d. Gram positive, bacitracin resistant, beta hemolytic
C
A 58 year old alcoholic man experience sudden onset of fever, shaking chills, sharp pleuritic pain and production of rusty sputum. He probably has an infection caused by
a. E. faecalis
b. S. viridans
c. S. pneumoniae
d. S. aureus
C
The “hallmark” of adaptive immunity
a. Antibody production
b. Antigen recognition
c. Specific microbial killing
d. Anamnestic memory in all exposures
e. Humoral mediated response
f. Self-recognition to prevent autoimmunity
B
Streptococcus pyogenes is the main human pathogen associated with poststreptococcal immunologic disorders. This bacteria becomes virulent in the presence of which of the following
a. Hyaluronidase
b. M protein
c. Streptokinase
d. F antigen
B
Not a function of the complement system
a. Promotes vasodilation
b. Opsonization to enhance pathocytosis
c. Promotes mobilization and activation of WBCs
d. Activation of macrophages to release interleukins
e. Forms the membrane attack unit to cause cytolysis
D
Which of the following is/are Novobiocin resistant organism?
a. Streptococcus agalactiae
b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c. Streptococcus mitis
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B
Which of the following is not an effect of Cytokine release?
a. Mediates antigen specific interaction
b. Mediates inflammation
c. Promotes differentiation of cytotoxic T cells
d. Macrophage activation
A
Which of the following organism is beta hemolytic?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus mitis
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B
Described as box car shaped rods
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Clostridium botulinum
B
A 10 year-old girl develop a sore throat with erythema, exudates over the tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and fever. A pharyngeal swab was collected and beta-hemolytic colonies of gram positive ovoid shaped organism in chain grows in blood agar medium. What test can be used to identify
the organism?
a. Bile solubility
b. Bacitracin susceptibility
c. Optochin susceptibility
d. Coagulase
B
The following statement differentiates innate immunity from adaptive immunity EXCEPT one
a. Genetic make up
b. Has no anamnestic response
c. Non specific response
d. Rapid response
B
Which of the following organism has “tumbling motility” in blood culture?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Corynebacterium diptheriae
B
Which of the following causes pseudomembranous colitis?
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium diptheriae
B
Most common cause of colitis media in children
a. Group A strep
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Group B strep
d. Staphylococcus aureus
C
What is the main virulence factor of strep pyogenes?
a. Protein A
b. M protein
c. Streptolysin O
d. Pneumolysin O
B
culture of skin lesion from a patient with pyoderma (impetigo) shows numerous colonies surrounded by a zone of beta-hemolysis on a blood agar plate. A gram stained smear shows gram positive cocci. If you found the catalase test to be negative. Which of the following organism you most probably have isolated?
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
D
Rheumatoid arthritis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. IgG mediated cytotoxic
b. Immune complex mediated
c. Cell mediated
d. IgE mediated
B