Complete a formal unit safety inspection

Question 1

Unit training shall include TCT as a _____ requirement for the personnel.

Answer 1

biennial

Question 2

Where does SAFETY AND ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH PROGRAM get it’s Authority.

Answer 2

Occupational Safety and Health Programs for Federal Employees, requires the Coast Guard to maintain a safety and occupational health program in accordance with the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 for civilian employees (Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 29 CFR 1960 Basic Program Elements for Federal Employees).

Question 3

Coast Guard Noise Standard

Answer 3

Environments or equipment that produce continuous noise levels at or above 85 dB(A) time weighted average (TWA) and impact noises exceeding 140dB(A) are considered hazardous and protective measures must be taken to reduce exposure to personnel.

Question 4

Hearing protective devices shall be worn by all personnel when they enter or work in an area where the operations generate noise levels of:

Answer 4

• Equal to or greater than 85 dB(A) continuous sound pressure level or
• 140 dB peak sound pressure level or greater.

Question 5

A combination of insert type and circumaural type hearing protective devices (double hearing protection) shall be worn in all areas where noise levels exceed _____.

Answer 5

104 dB(A)

Question 6

In cases where hearing protective devices do not provide sufficient attenuation to reduce the individual’s effective exposure level below 85 dB(A) and engineering controls are impractical, ______ control of exposure time will be necessary.

Answer 6

Administrative

Question 7

All personnel exposed to hazardous noise shall receive a minimum of one hour of initial Hearing Conservation Training and appropriate refresher training ______ thereafter.

Answer 7

Annually

Question 8

Define Flammable and Combustible Materials.

Answer 8

All liquids, solids and gases having a flashpoint below 93.3°C (200°F).

Question 9

Define Hazardous Material

Answer 9

Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration or physical, chemical or infectious characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when released or spilled into the environment.

Question 10

Define Hot Work.

Answer 10

Any activity involving riveting, welding, burning or the use of powder-actuated tools or similar fire-producing operations. Grinding, drilling, abrasive blasting, or similar spark-producing operations are also considered hot work except when such operations are isolated physically from any atmosphere containing more than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit of a flammable or combustible substance.

Question 11

Define Immediately Dangerous to Health and Life (IDLH).

Answer 11

An atmospheric concentration of any toxic, corrosive or asphyxiant substance that poses an immediate threat to life or would cause irreversible or delayed adverse health effects or would interfere with an individual’s ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere as found in 29 CFR 1910.120.

Question 12

Define Safe for Hot Work.

Answer 12

A space that meets all of the following criteria: the oxygen content of the atmosphere does not exceed 22.0 percent by volume; the concentration of flammable vapors in the atmosphere is less than 10 percent of the lower explosive limit (LEL); and the residues or materials in the space are not capable of producing a higher concentration than permitted in the above, under existing atmospheric conditions in the presence of hot work and while maintained as directed by a Marine Chemist or Competent Person.

Question 13

Define Safe for Workers.

Answer 13

A space that meets the following criteria: the oxygen content of the atmosphere is at least 19.5 percent and below 22.0 percent by volume; the concentration of flammable vapors is below 10 percent of the lower explosive limit (LEL); any toxic materials in the atmosphere associated with cargo, fuel, tank coatings, or inerting media are within permissible concentrations at the time of the inspection; and any residues or materials associated with the work authorized by a Marine Chemist, Certified Industrial Hygienist (CIH), or Competent Person that will not produce uncontrolled release of toxic materials under existing atmospheric conditions while maintained as directed.

Question 14

For best practice in confined space, consider the following: the space should have an oxygen level of 20.8% +/-0.2% indicated on the four gas meter. Whenever oxygen readings are outside of this range, this should be an indication to the tester that either the oxygen has been consumed or displaced by other gases in the space. Keeping in mind that for displacement, 1% volume = 10,000 ppm of “something”. Two significant causes of oxygen deficiency are __________________________.

Answer 14

The oxidation process (rusting of metal) and decay of organic materials.

Question 15

What are the four atmospheric test and their permisible entry levels?

Answer 15

• Test 1 Oxygen 19.5% to 22% (Ideal is 20.8%)
• Test 2 Combustible Gas Less than 10% of LEL
• Test 3 Carbon Monoxide Less than 25 ppm
• Test 4 Hydrogen Sulfide Less than 10 ppm

Question 16

Serious safety and environmental health hazards that cannot
be corrected within __ working days are documented in the
Unit’s Hazard Abatement Plan.

Answer 16

30

Question 17

Every air receiver has one or more spring-loaded safety
valves. The safety valves shall be set to prevent pressure in
the receiver from exceeding the maximum allowable
working pressure by more than __%.

Answer 17

10%

Question 18

Air receiver inspections and tests are recorded on form _____.

Answer 18

CG-5519

Question 19

All load bearing structures, including piers and docks, pole
buildings, elevated floor structures and warehouse storage
structures, are inspected by a licensed structural engineer atleast once every ___ years and when modified or damaged.

Answer 19

2 Years

Question 20

At least once every ____ years, every “Major ATON
Structure” is inspected to evaluate its structural integrity.

Answer 20

5 years

Question 21

Heating boilers are inspected by a licensed mechanical
engineer or a qualified marine inspector at what intervals?

Answer 21

• Annually for steam boilers.
• At least once every 3 years for hot water boilers.
• After repair of pressure parts.

Question 22

Power boilers are inspected by a licensed mechanical
engineer or authorized marine inspector at what intervals?

Answer 22

• At least once annually
• After repair of pressure parts

Question 23

Chain saws are refueled at least __ feet away from any open flame or ignition source.

Answer 23

10 feet

Question 24

Chain saws are started at least __ feet from the fueling area.

Answer 24

10 feet

Question 25

Chain saw is started with the chain brake _______.

Answer 25

ENGAGED

Question 26

Chain saws are shut down or chain brake engaged when
transporting saw __ feet or more or whenever terrain poses a hazard to the operator.

Answer 26

50 feet or more

Question 27

Cylinders inside buildings are stored in well-protected,
well-ventilated, dry locations, at least ____ feet from
highly combustible materials such as oil or excelsior.

Answer 27

20 feet

Question 28

Stored oxygen cylinders are separated from highly
combustible materials and fuel-gas cylinders by a minimum distance of 20 feet or by a noncombustible barrier at least _ feet high having a fire resistance rating of a least 1/2 hour.

Answer 28

5 feet high

Question 29

A __ inch emergency access area is maintained in front of
all electrical distribution panels with voltages of 600 volts
or less.

Answer 29

36 inch

Question 30

Marine Chemist Certificates are properly maintained by the Shipyard Competent Person. (The confined space has been re-examined at least every __ hours or if conditions have changed).

Answer 30

Every 24 hours

Question 31

Coast Guard personnel entering a confined space are
wearing a personal oxygen meter with an alarm set at
______________________.

Answer 31

19.5% (low oxygen) and 22% (high oxygen)

Question 32

When entering/exiting a confined space (other than the use of a ladder) climbing is limited to 5 feet over steel and to __ft over water without fall arrest protection.

Answer 32

15 feet

Question 33

A shore: Using oxygen-consuming equipment-such as portable propane heaters, torches, and furnaces, in a confined spaceis prohibited, unless sufficient air provided to assure combustion without reducing the oxygen concentration of the atmosphere below ___ percent by volume.

Answer 33

19.5%

Question 34

Fire extinguishers are within 75 feet of a Class A fire
hazard or __ feet of a Class B fire hazard in all locations.

Answer 34

50 feet

Question 35

Portable fire extinguishers with a gross weight greater than
40 pounds (except wheeled types), are installed so that the
top of the extinguisher is not more than __ feet above the floor.

Answer 35

3.5 feet

Question 36

Portable fire extinguishers are thoroughly examined,
recharged or repaired on an ______ basis.

Answer 36

Annual

Question 37

Appropriate (80 B:C) portable fire extinguishers are located
within ___ feet of fuel dispensing or testing areas.

Answer 37

100 feet

Question 38

All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers are hydrostatically
tested every _ years.

Answer 38

Every 5 years

Question 39

Carbon monoxide gas level where forklift operates is below __ PPM for an 8-hour day.

Answer 39

50 PPM

Question 40

When a forklift is left unattended the following items are
complied with:

Answer 40

• Forks are fully lowered;
• Controls are in the neutral position;
• Power is shut off; and
• Brakes are set.
• Wheels blocked if the forklift is parked on an incline.

Question 41

Forklifts are weight tested every ___ years.

Answer 41

Every 2 years

Question 42

Double hearing protection (e.g., plugs and muffs) is worn in
areas where noise levels exceed ______.

Answer 42

104 dBA

Question 43

The unit provides, and requires the use of, hearing
protective devices when personnel enter or work in areas
where the operations generate noise levels equal to or
greater than ___ continuous or 140 dBA peak sound
level.

Answer 43

85 dBA