Common Bacterial Pathogens Flashcards

1
Q

Staph. aureus: gram stain, carrier location, catalase?

A

gram positive cocci in clusters; carried in anterior nares and perineum; catalase positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Staph. epidermidis: gram stain, carrier location, catalase?

A

gram positive cocci in chains or pairs; normal skin flora; catalase negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Strep. pyogenes: gram stain, carrier location, catalase?

A

gram positive cocci in chains or pairs; strep throat; catalase negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Strep. pneumoniae: gram stain, carrier location, catalase?

A

gram positive diplococci; normal UR flora; catalase negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Staph. aureus pathogenicity?

A

pathogenic; cutaneous infections (folliculitis, boils, wound infections); foreign bodies and splinters; TSS; pneumonia; bacteremia/endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does Staph. aureus persist in cutaneous infections? What is the treatment?

A

formation of a fibrinous capsule; drainage of the abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

____ is an essential virulence factor that is assoc. with the formation of the fibrin capsule.

A

Coagulase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the major cytotoxic agent released by Staph. aureus?

A

Alpha-toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does Alpha-toxin work?

A

it forms a beta-barrel pore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why does Staph. aureus like foreign bodies?

A

they provide a surface for colonization and interferes w/ phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a superantigen toxin?

A

antigens that cause non-specific activation of T-cells, leading to massive cytokine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Superantigens can cause up to _____ of all T-cells to become activated, as compared to a normal antigen-induced T-cell response of _____.

A

25%; .0001-.001%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 3 staph toxin mediated diseases.

A
  1. TSS
  2. staph food poisoning
  3. scalded skin syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the s/s of TSS?

A

high fever, low BP, malaise, confusion, rash resembling a sunburn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can TSS lead to?

A

stupor, coma, multiple organ failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the causative factor of TSS?

A

local Staph. aureus infection that produces toxin that circulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the TSS rash look like, and what happens with it?

A

a sunburn over any part of the body, including lips, mouth, soles, and palms; it desquamates (peels off) after 10-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Staph. food poisoning?

A

ingestion of preformed toxin in contaminated/improperly stored food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Staph. aureus pneumonia is common in _____.

A

health care acquired settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mortality of Staph. aureus pneumonia?

A

about 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name one of the most common pathogens causing endocarditis/bacteremia.

A

Staph. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drugs can Staph. aureus be resistant to?

A

penicillin, methicillin, and vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is an SSNA?

A

staph species, not aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where do Staph. epidermidis normally live?

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Staph. epidermidis is usually a ____ infection involving _____.
localized; foreign body
26
What organism is assoc. with slime production?
Staph. epidermidis
27
What is the slime of Staph. epidermidis?
an extracellular glycocalyx allowing for adhesion and protective biofilm
28
What is Staph. epidermidis resistant to?
methicillin
29
Why is Staph. epidermidis hard to treat?
the biofilm is hard to penetrate and it's resistant to methicillin
30
What diseases does Strep. pyogenes cause?
pharyngitis/strep throat, skin and wound infections
31
Name 2 post-streptococcal diseases.
1. glomerulonephritis | 2. Rheumatic fever
32
What is glomerulonephritis?
type 3 immunopathology: strep antigen-antibody complexes deposited in the kidney and accumulate in the BM
33
What is Rheumatic Fever?
autoimmune inflammatory disease; antigens cross react to myocardium and heart valves--NOT a colonization of bacteria
34
What is unique about Group A Strep skin infections?
they spread
35
What is the primary virulence factor in Strep. pyogenes?
M-protein
36
What is M-protein?
a surface protein on Strep. pyogenes that inhibits phagocytosis, kills PMNs, and enhances adherence to epi
37
What protects against M-protein?
antibodies
38
Where is Strep. pyogenes normally found?
in the pharynx
39
How does Strep. pneumoniae evade host defenses?
it has an antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsule
40
What is PPSV23?
pneumovax; protects against invasive Strep. pneumoniae
41
What diseases are invasive Strep. pneumoniae?
meningitis, bacteremia/septicemia, pneumonia
42
What diseases are noninvasive Strep. pneumoniae?
pneumonia, sinusitis, otitis media, bronchitis
43
What are the predisposing factors for Strep. pneumoniae?
young or old age, alcoholism, respiratory viral infections
44
Why is alcoholism a predisposing factor for Strep. pneumoniae?
it negatively affects the mucocilliary escalator
45
What is Prevnar?
the children's pneumonia vaccine
46
What is Strep. pneumoniae resistant to?
penicillin
47
What does Viridans streptococci cause?
infective endocarditis and dental caries
48
Viridans streptococci are either ____ and turn green on blood agar plates, or are _____ and do not.
alpha-hemolytic; nonhemolytic
49
Where is Viridans streptococci normally found?
in the mouth
50
What does Viridans streptococci produce that allows it to adhere to teeth and heart valves?
dextrans
51
What do dextrans allow Viridans streptococci to do?
adhere to teeth and fibrin/platelets in damaged heart valves
52
What do Enterococcus faecalis/faecium cause?
UTIs, infections of surgical wounds, biliary tract infections, endocarditis
53
Where is Enterococcus faecalis/faecium normally found?
GI flora
54
What is Enterococcus faecalis/faecium resistant to?
vancomycin
55
What is a hospital-acquired infection called?
nosocomial infection
56
What is a nosocomial infection?
a hospital-acquired infection
57
The most common ____ in human disease are members of the genus Clostridium.
gram + rods
58
The most common gram + rods in human disease are members of the genus ____.
Clostridium
59
Clostridum are strict ____ and form ____, which are extremely resilient.
anaerobes; endospores
60
What diseases does Clostridium difficile cause?
hospital-acquired diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis
61
What diseases does Clostridium tetani cause?
tetanus
62
What diseases does Clostridium botulinum cause?
botulism
63
What diseases does Clostridium perfringens cause?
gangrene and other tissue infections
64
What kind of toxin does C. diff produce?
an entertoxin and a cytotoxin
65
How is C. diff diagnosed?
ELISA or PCR of stool sample
66
Name 2 gram negative rods.
1. E. coli | 2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
67
Name a gram negative cocci.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
68
What bacteria family lack cell walls?
Mycoplasma and ureaplasma