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Nuclear Medicine > COMBINED MCQS- PET, ONC, BONE, INFECT, GI, LIV & KID > Flashcards

COMBINED MCQS- PET, ONC, BONE, INFECT, GI, LIV & KID Flashcards

1
Q

PET is a non-invasive technique that examines biochemical, metabolic and receptor
processes (T/F)

A

TRUE

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2
Q

Of the positron emitters, 11C is most commonly used in clinical practice (T/F)

A

FALSE

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3
Q

Positron emitters are short-lived radionuclides (T/F)

A

TRUE

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4
Q

The most common way to obtain positron emitters is in a nuclear reactor (T/F)

A

FALSE

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5
Q

Positron emitters are incorporated into numerous biomolecules (T/F)

A

TRUE

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6
Q

The half-life of 18F is 120 minutes (T/F)

A

TRUE

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7
Q

Positron emitters can be obtained in the generator (T/F)

A

TRUE

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8
Q

Tumor cells have elevated intracellular concentrations of hexokinase, which
phosphorylate glucose and 18F-FDG thereby trapping them within the cell (T/F)

A

TRUE

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9
Q

18F-FDG-mechanism of accumulation in tumors:
a) Elevated levels of energy-dependent transmembrane transport protein (GLUT)
b) Tumor cells have elevated intracellular hexokinase concentration
c) Increased perfusion in tumors
d) All of the above (a, b, c)

A

D

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10
Q

18F-FDG accumulates:
a) Only in malignant tumors
b) In malignant tumors and in infectious / inflammatory regions
c) Only in benign tumors
d) All of the above (a, b, c)

A

B

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11
Q

18F-FDG is excreted:
a) Through the gastrointestinal tract
b) Through tubular secretion of the kidney
c) Free filtration into the glomerulus of the kidney
d) Glomerular filtration through the kidneys, of which one part is reabsorbed

A

D

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12
Q

PET is used in:
a) Oncology
b) Neurology
c) Cardiology
d) All of the above

A

D

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13
Q

Organ specific radiopharmaceuticals for thyroid testing are 99m Tc and 123 / 131 I-NaI (T/F)

A

TRUE

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14
Q

The main indication for scintigraphy of thyroid tissue are benign diseases of the
thyroid gland. (T/F)

A

FALSE

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15
Q

Scintigraphy of the adrenal medulla serves to confirm the diagnosis of
pheochromocytoma and other paragangliomas in patients with biochemically proven
disease (T/F)

A

TRUE

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16
Q

Positron emission tomography is a modern diagnostic and research visualization
technique (T/F)

A

TRUE

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17
Q

PET is a non-invasive technique that examines biochemical, metabolic and receptor
processes (T/F)

A

TRUE

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18
Q

Positron emitters emit gamma radiation (T/F)

A

FALSE

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19
Q

Of the positron emitters, 11 C is most commonly used in clinical practice (T/F)

A

FALSE

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20
Q

Positron emitters are short-lived radionuclides (T/F)

A

TRUE

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21
Q

The most common way to obtain positron emitters is in a nuclear reactor (T/F)

A

FALSE

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22
Q

Positron emitters are incorporated into numerous biomolecules (T/F)

A

TRUE

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23
Q

The half-life of 18 F is 120 minutes

A

TRUE

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24
Q

Positron emitters can be obtained in the generator (T/F)

A

TRUE

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25
Q

Tumor cells have elevated intracellular concentrations of hexokinase, which
phosphorylate glucose and 18 F-FDG thereby trapping them within the cell (T/F)

A

TRUE

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26
Q

18 F-sodium fluoride is used:
a) For imaging liver tumors
b) For PET diagnostics of the skeletal system
c) For the treatment of bone tumors
d) For PET brain diagnostics

A

B

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27
Q

Positron emission tomography is based on the physical principle:
a) Scintillations
b) Ionization
c) Annihilation
d) All of the above (a, b, c)

A

C

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28
Q

Indication for 18 F-FDG PET in breast carcinoma is:
e) detection od primary tumor
f) detection of lymh nodes involvements
g) detection of distant metastases after the treatment
h) Under a) and c)

A

G

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29
Q

Indication for 18 F-FDG PET in colorectal cancer:
i) rising value of CEA after the treatment
j) diagnosis of recurren disease
k) diagnosis tumor primary
l) Under a) and b)

A

I

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30
Q

Indication for 18 F-FDG PET in thyrpod carcinoma is:
m) negative posttreatment whole body scan
n) risig Tg values
o) evaluationa of disease progresion after the surgery
p) Under a) and b)

A

P

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31
Q

Sentinel lymph nodes labeling is useful for:
a) M staging
b) N staging
c) T staging
d) Under a and c)

A

B

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32
Q

Sentinel lymph nodes labeling allows
e) radical surgery of lymph nodes
f) minimally invasive surgery of lymph nodes
g) better surgery of primary tumor
h) Under a) and b)

A

F

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33
Q

Bone scintigraphy is a picture of the distribution of a given radiopharmaceutical in bones (T/F)

A

TRUE

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34
Q

Bone scintigraphy can be performed with gamma emitters and positron emitters (T/F)

A

TRUE

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35
Q

Bone scintigraphy is most often performed with 18F-FDG (T/F)

A

FALSE

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36
Q

Radiopharmaceuticals for bone scintigraphy are 99mTc labeled bisphosphonates (T/F)

A

TRUE

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37
Q

The distribution of radiopharmaceuticals in the skeleton is normally symmetrical (T/F)

A

TRUE

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38
Q

The mechanism of accumulation of osteotropic radiopharmaceuticals is adsorption for bone
hydroxy-apatite crystals (T/F)

A

TRUE

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39
Q

Pathological finding on bone scintigraphy most often the appearance of a "cold" field (T/F)

A

FALSE

40
Q

The main indication for skeletal scintigraphy is the detection of bone cancer metastases (T/F)

A

TRUE

41
Q

Radiopharmaceuticals for bone scintigraphy accumulate in the bones by a following
mechanism
a) Active transport
b) Passive diffusions
c) Microembolizations
d) Hemiadsorption for hydroxy-apatite crystals

A

D

42
Q

The main radiopharmaceuticals for gamma camera imaging of bones are
a) 99mTc-DPD
b) 99mTc-MPD
c) 99mTc-HMPD
d) All of the above

A

D

43
Q

The main radiopharmaceuticals for PET bone imaging are
a) 18F-NaF
b) 18F-FDG
c) 18F-DOPA
d) Under a) and b)

A

D

44
Q

The basic indication for scintigraphy of bones are:
a) Detection of congenital bone anomalies
b) Detection of benign bone tumors
c) Detection of rheumatic bone diseases
d) Detection of primary and secondary malignant bone tumors

A

D

45
Q

The normal scintigraphic finding on the bones in children is
a) Identical as a finding in adults
b) Shows increased accumulation in the epiphyses of long bones
c) Shows enhanced accumulation in the axial skeleton
d) Shows weaker accumulation in the epiphyses of long bones

A

B

46
Q

6.Bone scintigraphy with gamma emitters can be performed as:
a) Whole body scintigraphy

b) Spot, targeted scintigraphy of individual regions of the skeleton
c) SPECT scintigraphy of individual body regions
d) All of the above

A

D

47
Q

Three-phase bone scintigraphy is performed at
a) Suspicion of congenital skeletal anomalies
b) Presence of benign bone tumors
c) Suspected osteomyelitis
d) All of the above

A

D

48
Q

Scintigraphy of bones with gamma emitters is done:
a) Immediately after administration of radiopharmaceuticals
b) 2-3 hours following administration of radiopharmaceuticals
c) After 6 hours from the administration of radiopharmaceuticals
d) None of the above

A

B

49
Q

In detecting the focus of infection nuclear medicine procedures are the first-line imaging
modality (T/F)

A

FALSE

50
Q

Leucoscintigraphy is a method of detecting the infectious focus marked by autologous
leukocytes (T/F)

A

TRUE

51
Q

Immunoscintigraphy is a procedure of "in vivo" labeling of leukocytes with monoclonal
antibodies to leukocytes (T/F)

A

TRUE

52
Q

Leucoscintigraphy is performed in two times, 4 and 24h following application (T/F)

A

TRUE

53
Q

Disadvantage of immunoscintigraphy is creation of antibodies to applied monoclonal
antibodies (HAMA) (T/F)

A

TRUE

54
Q

The main indication for a scan with labeled ciprofloxacin is the diagnosis of chronic
osteomyelitis, especially when it is localized in the axial skeleton, when the clinical picture is not
clear and the The main indication for a scan with labeled ciprofloxacin laboratory finding is
unconvincing. (T/F)

A

TRUE

55
Q

The increased accumulation of 67 Ga-citrate may indicate an old infection, inflammatory focus
or malignant process. (T/F)

A

TRUE

56
Q

Three-phase bone scintigraphy is a method that is not routinely performed when osteomyelitis
is suspected. (T/F)

A

FALSE

57
Q

Nuclear medical procedures that localize the infectious focus are:
a) leucoscintigraphy and immunoscintigraphy
b)18F-FDG PET
c) Three phase bone scan
d) All the above

A

D

58
Q

18 F-FDG PET / CT is the method of choice in detection:
a)FUO with low probability of infective origin
b) FUO with high probability of infective origin
c) vascular graft infection
d) Under the a) and c)

A

D

59
Q

Leukocyte labeling is performed using
a) 99mTc
b) 99m Tc-HMPAO
c) 111 In and 99m Tc-HMPAO
d) 18 F-FDG

A

C

60
Q

Leucoscintigraphy is performed:

a) 4h following radiopharmaceutical application
b) 24h following radiopharmaceutical application
c) 4h and 24h following radiopharmaceutical application
d) 1-8h following radiopharmaceutical application

A

C

61
Q

Radiopharmaceuticals for dynamic renal scintigraphy are excreted by glomerular filtration and
tubular secretion (T/F)

A

TRUE

62
Q

Diuresis dynamic renal scintigraphy is a pharmacological modification of dynamic renal
scintigraphy in which furosemide is administered before, simultaneously with or after
administration of radiopharmaceuticals excreted by the kidneys. (T/F)

A

TRUE

63
Q

The most common indications for diuresis dynamic scintigraphy of the kidneys are obstructive
conditions in children due to cogenital anomalies on the ureteropielic or ureterovesical junction (T/F)

A

TRUE

64
Q

Radionuclide captopril test is a method of detecting functionally significant renal artery
stenosis (T/F)

A

TRUE

65
Q

Static renal scintigraphy with 99mTc-DMSA is superior in the presentation of cortical kidney
lesions in acute and chronic pyelonephritis (T/F)

A

TRUE

66
Q

Direct radionuclide cystography is an invasive nuclear medicine method that diagnoses VUR
after the introduction of radiopharmaceuticals into the urinary bladder through a previously
placed urinary catheter. (T/F)

A

TRUE

67
Q

Radiopharmaceuticals used for dynamic kidney scintigraphy are:
a) are excreted by tubular secretion
b) are excreted by glomerular filtration
c) bind to proximal tubular cells
d) under a) and b)

A

D

68
Q

Radiopharmaceuticals used for diuresis dynamic scintigraphy are:
a) are excreted by tubular secretion
b) are excreted by glomerular filtration
c) bind to proximal tubular cells
d) same as for dynamic renal scintigraphy

A

D

69
Q

A normal radiorenogram is three-segment in shape and has the following phases
a) vascular-rapidly ascending segment
b) parenchymal-slow ascending segment
c) excretory-descending segment
d) all of the above (a, b, c)

A

D

70
Q

The obstructive type of radiorenogram has:
a) slow growth of the parenchymal segment
b) slow slope of parenchymal segment
c) absent decline of the excretory segment
e) reduced slope of the vascular segment

A

C

71
Q

The most common indications for diuresis dynamic scintigraphy are:
a) obstructive conditions in children due to cogenital anomalies on the ureteropielic or
ureterovesical junction
b) parenchymal kidney disease
c) renal calculosis
d) renal failure

A

A

72
Q

Main indications for 99mTc-DMSA scintigraphy
a) detection of focal renal lesions, acute pyelonephritis
b) detection of chronic cortical sequelae 6 months after acute pyelonephritis
c) in case of suspicion of congenital anomalies
d) All of the above (a, b, c)

A

D

73
Q

Direct radionuclide cystography is a method by which we detect:
a) Vesicoureteral reflux
b) Cortical kidney lesions
c) Congenital anomalies of kidney position
d) Renal artery stenosis

A

A

74
Q

The presence of vesicourteral reflux on the image is shown as:

a) Properly delineated contours of the bladder
b) Increased activity over the ureter during micturition
c) Increased activity over the ureter during bladder filling
d) Under b) and c)

A

D

75
Q

Dynamic scintigraphy of the salivary glands is performed with 99mTc-pertechnetate (T/F)

A

TRUE

76
Q

Salivary gland scintigraphy is used to diagnose malignant diseases of the salivary glands (T/F)

A

FALSE

77
Q

In esophageal transit scintigraphy, the radiopharmaceutical is applied per os (T/F)

A

TRUE

78
Q

Radiopharmaceutical for esophageal transit is 99mTc-pertechnetate given with water (T/F)

A

FALSE

79
Q

Gastro-oesophageal reflux is shown as an increase in activity over the esophagus (T/F)

A

TRUE

80
Q

Detection of gastrointestinal bleeding is done with 18F-FDG (T/F)

A

FALSE

81
Q

Detection of gastro-intestinal bleeding can be done with 99mTc-S-colloid (T/F)

A

TRUE

82
Q

Scintigraphy of Meckel's diverticulum is used to detect ectopic gastric mucosa (T/F)

A

TRUE

83
Q

Scintigraphy of the liver and spleen is performed with 99mTc-labeled colloidal compounds
(sulfur, tin, phytate) (T/F)

A

TRUE

84
Q

Focal liver lesions (tumors, abscesses, cysts) on coloid scintigraphy are shown as “hot“ fields (T/F)

A

FALSE

85
Q

Dynamic scintigraphy of the salivary glands is a method that detects:
a) Sjögren's syndrome
b) acute inflammation of the salivary glands
c) chronic inflammation of the salivary glands
d) all of the above (a, b, c, d)

A

D

86
Q

Dynamic scintigraphy of the salivary glands is done with stimulation
a) vitamin C
b) vitamin A.
c) vitamin D
d) Lasix

A

A

87
Q

Esophageal transit is a method by which the following can be diagnosed
a) esophageal cancer
b) scarring of the esophagus
c) achalasia
d) Under a) and b)

A

D

88
Q

A liquid meal for the detection of gastro-oesophageal reflux consists of
a) 100ml of water and radiopharmaceutical 99mTc-S-colloid
b) 200 ml of juice and radiopharmaceutical 99mTc-S-colloid
c) 15 ml of water and radiopharmaceutical 99mTc-S-colloid
d) 15 ml of water or juice and radiopharmaceutical 99mTc-S-colloid

A

D

89
Q

Labeling of erythrocytes for detection of intestinal bleeding is performed with the following
radionuclide
a) 18F-FDG
b) 111In
c) 99mTc pertechnetate
d) All of the above (a, b, c)

A

C

90
Q

The presence of bleeding in the abdomen with labeled erythrocytes is shown as
a) pathological finding in the liver
b) “cold” field at the site of bleeding
c) “hot” field at the site of bleeding
d) “hot” field at the site of bleeding with accumulation distal to the site of bleeding due to
accumulation of blood

A

D

91
Q

The ectopic gastric mucosa in the Meckel's diverticulum is shown on the scintigram as
a) “cold” field
b) “hot” field in the region of the stomach
c) “hot” field paraumbilicular
d) all of the above (a, b, c)

A

C

92
Q

Scintigraphy of the liver and spleen is done with
a) 99mTc-S-colloid
b) 99mTc-Sn-colloid
c) 99mTc-phytate
d) All of the above (a, b, c)

A

D

93
Q

Indications for scintigraphy of the liver and spleen are
a) Determining the position, shape and size of the liver
b) determination of the etiopathogenesis of liver focal lesions
c) suspected asplenia
d) All of the above (a, b, c)

A

D

94
Q

The differential diagnosis of hepatic hemangiomas is made:
a) Labeled erythrocytes with 99mTc-Sn-pyrophosphate
b) Labeled leukocytes with 99mTc-Sn-pyrophosphate
c) Platelet-labeled with 99mTc-Sn-pyrophosphate
d) All of the above under a), b) c)

A

A

95
Q

Hemangioma is shown on the scintigram as:
a) “cold” field
b) “hot” field
c) “cold field” on the early and “hot” field on the late scintigram
d) None of the above

A

B

Nuclear Medicine (7 decks)

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