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Forget Nots > Colorectal > Flashcards

Colorectal Flashcards

1
Q

Compared to the traditional hemorrhoidectomies, using an electrothermal tissue-sealing device is associated with a lower rate of?

A

Immediate post-op pain- equivalates with traditional at 2 weeks post-op.

Faster return to work

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2
Q

Poor prognostic indicators of anal cancer? (5)

A

Size >5cm
>2/3 involvement of the anal canal circumference

Other:
Male sex
Presence of nodal disease
Hgb<13

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3
Q

Colonic stens for obstructing cancer vs operation without stens

  • what is the incidence of colonic obstruction with malignancy?
  • difference in 30d mortality?
  • % chance of successful laparoscopic resection?
  • surgical site infxn rate?
  • most common site of stent migration?
A
  • 30%
  • no difference in mortality
  • significant improved lap rxn rate (67% with stent vs. 31.4% without)
  • SSI lower with stent
  • MC site of stent migration is rectosigmoid jxn
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4
Q

When to do follow-up colonoscopies 3 yrs after polypectomy (4)

Low risk vs high risk polyps?

When to rpt at 6mo?

When to do rpt scope after completely resecting cancerous polyp with margin > 2mm?

A 
3 years: 
- >10 adenomas
- tubular adenoma > 10mm
- high grade dysplasia
- villous adenoma
(10, 10, high villain)

Low risk: 1-2 tubular adenomas, <10mm -> 5-10 years
High risk: 3 or more adenomas, or size >10mm -> 3 years

Large polyp removed in piecemeal fashion -> 6 mo

1yr

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5
Q

Multitarget stool DNA test vs. decal occult testing

Sensitivity for cancer vs. adenoma

Specificity?

A

Multitarget stool DNA: 92% sensitivity for detecting colorectal cancer but 42% for adenoma

Fecal occult: 74% for cancer and 24% for adenomas

Fecal occult specificity is better 96% vs 89

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6
Q

Criteria for transanal excision (4)

A

1) <3cm
2) <30% circumference
3) within 8cm from anal verge
4) T1

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7
Q

How do you do a ripstein repair? 3 steps

What is it’s most common morbidity? Whats the frequency?

What is the most severe complication?

A

1) mobilize the rectum
2) put a mesh around the rectum
3) fix the mesh to the presacral fascia

  • constipation >50% with pre-op constipation
    >10% without pre-op constipation

Most severe: mesh erosion but less common

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8
Q

Long term complications of J-pouch:

- what are the frequencies for sexual dysfunction, stricture, pouchitis

A

Pouchitis: 30-50%
Stricture: 7-15%
Sexual dysfunction: 1-20%

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9
Q

Treatment for obstetric tear, fecal incontinence?

What about for complex / recurrent cases?

A

Wrap around sphincteroplasty - mobilize the sphincters and reapproximate without tension

Gracillis muscle transposition with constant low freq stimulation

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10
Q

What innervates the external sphincter?

It is continuous with what muscles?

What innervates the internal sphincters?

A

Inferior rectal branch of the internal pudendal nerve
+
Perineal branch of the 4th sacral nerve

Continuous with puborectalis and levator ani

Internal sphincters are innervates by autonomic system. Continuous with circular muscle of the rectum.

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11
Q

What is lymphogranuloma venerum?

Treatment?

Treatment should begin immediately to prevent what kind of complications?

A

Chlamydia infxn

Tetracycline

Rectal stricture, perianal fistulas

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12
Q

When you’re removing a condyloma what skin layer should be removed with it?

A

Epidermis

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13
Q

What is the cause for urinary retention after hemorrhoidectomy?

A

Pelvic floor muscle spasm in combination with epidural or spinal anesthesia, pain, excessive fluid

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14
Q

What is a Whitehead hemorrhoidectomy?

A

Circumferential excision of the internal hemorrhoids just proximal to the dentate line

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15
Q

Most common site of recurrence after colon CA resection?

What is the rate of locoregional recurrence after colon CA rxn?

A

Liver

Locoregional recurrence: <5%

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16
Q

Colorectal cancer

  • what is the difference between T4a vs. T4b?
  • difference between N1 vs. N2a vs. N2b
  • what is stage IIC? IIIC?
A
  • T4a: invades through the visceral peritoneum. Includes gross perforation
    T4b: other organ
  • N1: 1-3 nodes
    N2a: 4-6 regional nodes
    N2b: seven or more nodes
  • IIC: T4b/N0/M0. Other organ, no nodes

IIIIC:
T4a/N2a/M0
T3-T4a/N2b/M0
T4b/N1-2/M0

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17
Q

What is the most common complication of strictureplasty? and incidence?

A

Bleeding. Up to 9% of cases

Leak, dehiscence, sbo all occur at about 2%

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18
Q

Recommended age of colonoscopy if father had colon cancer at age 62?

A

Current NCCN guideline in a pt with one or more first degree relatives who had colon cancer at ANY age is colonoscopy at age 40 or 10 years before the age at which the relative was diagnosed. Whichevers earlier.

Repeat scope every 5 years

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19
Q

dMMR good or bad? Does chemo work or not?

A

Mismatch repair deficiency considered favorable prognostic factor. Poor response to fluoropyrimidine based chemotherapy

chemo works well for pMMR but poorer prognostication compared to dMMR

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20
Q

Is APC a tumor suppressor or proto-onco? Is it the first step or the last step in the sequence of colon CA development?

HNPCC is associated with what defect?

Is p53 a tumor suppressor or proto onco?

A

APC is a tumor suppressor. First step. Then K-ras, DCC, p53

HNPCC: microsatellite instability

P53 is tumor suppressor

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21
Q

What supplies the transverse colon after an extended right?

What does Arc of riolan connect?

A

Marginal a. of drummond

Connects middle colic and left colic. Smaller contribution than marginal a. of drummond

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22
Q

What is the best prognostic indicators for resecting liver met after colon cancer?

A

Good response to chemo is the best prog. Indicator

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23
Q

Criteria for local excision of rectal cancer

A 
Size <4 cm
Mobile, non-fixed
<40% circumference
<8 cm from anal verge
T1/N0 or T2/N0
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24
Q

Incidence of appendiceal cancer in appendectomy specimen?

A

~1%

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25
Q

For what kind of tumors is appendectomy sufficient?

A

It has to be non-epithelial.

Size <2 cm
No involvement of the base.

histologic Grade < II
no goblet cells

Size >2 cm or involvement of base -> right hemi

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26
Q

Required timeframe for something to qualify as chronic appendicitis?

A

3 or more weeks. At least 1 episode of acute pain.

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27
Q

Mutation in mismatch repair (MMR)

Which colonic syndrome?

A

Lynch syndrome

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28
Q

Microsatellite instability

Which colonic syndrome?

A

Lynch syndrome

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29
Q

Screening recommendations for FAP

A

Flex sig starting at 10-15

Upper endoscopy starting at 25-30

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30
Q

When do you offer surgery for pts with FAP?

A

As soon as you start to see polyps

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31
Q

Young, <50yo pt with right sided colon cancer. Suspect what?

A

HNPCC

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32
Q

T3N0 colon CA in a pt with HNPCC. Chemo or no?

A

No. HNPCC have better prognosis stage for stage. T3N0 actually doesn’t benefit from getting chemo

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33
Q

Recommended surgical treatment for pts with HNPCC for young pt vs. older pt?

A

Younger: subtotal colectomy with IRA

older: segmental colectomy

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34
Q

Other associated cancers for HNPCC?

A

Uterine, gastric, GU tumors

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35
Q

Screening recommendation for known HNPCC?

A

Colonoscopy starting at age 20-25

Endometrial aspiration starting at age 25-35

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36
Q

Describe the haggitt classification

A

For pedunculated polyps
Haggitt 0: not invading muscularis
Haggitt 1: invades through the muscularis but only in the head
Haggitt 2: invades the level of the neck
Haggitt 3: invades any part of the stalk
Haggitt 4: invades into the Submucosa of the bowel wall below the stalk but above the muscularis propria

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37
Q

Proto oncogene or tumor suppressor?

  • APC
  • K-ras
  • p53
  • DCC
A
  • APC: Tumor suppressor. Defect in APC -> No tumor suppression
  • K-ras: proto oncogene
  • p53: tumor suppressor
  • DCC: tumor suppressor
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38
Q

Margin and # nodes you need for colon CA?

A

5cm margin, 12 nodes

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39
Q

Run of the mill T3N0 colon cancer. Chemo or no?

A

Yes chemo. HNPCC T3N0 don’t need chemo

this is stage IIa

stage IIb: T4a N0
stage IIc: T4b N0

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40
Q

IN THE HINDGUT, where is GIST found most frequently?

A

Rectum

Over GIST frequency
gastric pacemaker cells Stomach (50-70%) > small bowel (25-35%) > colorectal (5-10%) > mesentery/omentum (7%) > esophagus (<5%) > duodenum

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41
Q

Rate of bleeding required to detect GI bleed on angio?

A

At least 1mL/min

RBC scan: 0.1-0.5mL/min

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42
Q

Rate of bleeding required to detect bleeding on tagged RVC scan?

A

0.1-0.5mL/min

Angio: 1mL/min

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43
Q

What is the risk of colonic perforation in pts with recurrent uncomplicated diverticulitis?

A

<5%

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44
Q

What is a Turnbull blowhole colostomy?

A

An incision is made over the dilated transverse colon. The colon wall is sutured to the peritoneum to prevent intra-abdominal contamination. The colon is opened and the edges of the opened bowel are sutured to the skin

requires minimal anesthesia and operative time. for toxic megacolon and large bowel obstruction

45
Q

% risk factor for developing cancer for ulcerative colitis at 10 years, 20 years and 30 years after diagnosis?

A

10 years: 2%
20 years: 8%
30 years: 18%

0.5% per year between 10-20yr
1% per year thereafter

46
Q

What sort of ECF output is considered high output?

A

> 500cc/24hr

47
Q

What % of patients with Crohn disease develop cancer at 30 years after diagnosis?

What about risk for small bowel adenocarcinoma?

A

only 6%

Small bowel adeno: 10-12 fold higher risk, majority in the ileum

48
Q

Overall incidence of cancer in pts with ulcerative colitis?

At 10, 20, 30 years after diagnosis of UC, what % of UC pts will have colorectal CA?

A

5%

2% at 10 years
8% at 20 years
18% at 30 years

49
Q

What is the surgical procedure of choice for ppl with anal fissures and hypotonic sphincter?

What causes this?

A

Usually from previous surgery or obstetric injury

*treatment: Fissurectomy with an anocutaneous advancement flap

50
Q

What is a coloplasty and when do you do it?

A

Longitudinal incision along the antimesenteric border and close transversely.

Used when not enough colonic mobility exists for the Jpouch or if the ot has a narrow pelvis

51
Q

Pt had hartmann years ago. Persistent distal colitis. What to do?

A

Disuse colitis. Butyric acid enema

52
Q

anorectal infections in neutropenic patients

What is a preferred mode of imaging?

What is the most common/early sign?

Early surgical intervention necessary?

A

MRI > CT. Better at seeing fistulas and edema

Pain. Pus is a later sign because of neutropenia

Surgical drainage is reserved for later in the patient’s course when neutropenia resolves and abscesses or fluid collection develop. Surgical incisions at this time are usually smaller and localized. Earlier surgical exploration was often associated with larger incisions, creating wound management problems.

53
Q

For diverticular abscess s/p IR drainage, the abx should be stopped 4 days after what?

A

Wbc < 11k
T < 38
Able to eat at least half of regular diet

54
Q

As part of the eras protocol, why give 100g of glucose orally before the surgery?

what effect does this have on gastric emptying, blood glc, SSI rate?

A

Reduce insulin resistance.

Traditional fasting leads to depletion of glycogen, insulin resistance and gluconeogenesis.

Does not affect infection rate, gastric emptying. They don’t become hyperglycemic.

55
Q

For FAP, pts are at the highest risk of developing what types of cancer other than CRC?? Second highest?

A

1 other than CRS: soft tissue tumors. Desmoid tumors. Most common extraintestinal manifestation: gastric fundus polyps

56
Q

2 Chemo agents approved for metastatic colon CA and it’s mechanism of action and side effect?

A

1) Bevacizumab aka avastin (Anti-VEGF)

Impaired wound healing, bowel perf

2) Cetiximab aka erbitux (anti-egfr)

57
Q

Side effect of irinotecan?

A

Diarrhea

Myelosuppression

58
Q

What is the most common long term complication of colostomy?

A

Parastomal hernia. As many as 50% of all stomas

59
Q

Surgical options for rectal prolapse:

  • history of incontinence
  • history of constipation
A

Incontinence: do levatorplasty to bolster pelvic floor

Constipation: resection rectopexy

60
Q

Define the different types of FAP based on number of polyps seen on colonoscopy

A

50-100: attenuated FAP

100-1000: mild FAP

> 1000: severe/profuse FAP

61
Q

How does smoking affect Crohn’s disease?

A

Increases the incidence of relapse and failure of maintenance therapy

62
Q

Anal lesion: “large, eccentric nuclei with pale staining vacuolated cytoplasm”

A

Perianal pagets disease.

63
Q

What is the difference between hinchey Ia and Ib?

What is the size limit for hinchey stage II?

A

Ia: pericolonic and phlegmonous inflammation. No abscess

Ib: has abscess

II: <5cm

64
Q

What is the treatment for desmoid tumors?

A

Sulindac for stage I & II

Methotrexate and sorafenib for stage III

Doxorubicin for stage IV

65
Q

What are the stages of desmoid tumors and their screening/rx?

A

Stage I: lesions < 10cm, no symptoms

  • scan every year
  • sulindac

Stage II: lesions < 10cm, symptoms.

  • scan every 6 months
  • sulindac + raloxifene

Stage III: 11-20cm

  • scan every 3 months
  • methotrexate, sorafenib

Stage IV: >20 cm

  • scan every 6 months
  • doxorubicin
66
Q

Which gene accounts the most for cancer in lynch syndrome?

A

MSH2 (60%)

MLH1 (30%)

67
Q

19F has 10 synchronous polyps in R colon and a duodenal denoma. FMHx desmoid tumors, multiple colon polyps. FAP is negative. Diagnosis?

Inheritance pattern?

A

Mut Y homolog associated polyposis

Autosomal recessive

68
Q

In ulcerative colitis pt with high grade dysplasia, what is the risk of synchronous cancer?

A

40%

69
Q

UC pt has dysplasia. You’re planning an operation. How do you decide between total procto + end ileostomy vs total procto + J-pouch?

A

Sphincter fx.

If they already have poor sphincter function, fecal incontinence, give them an ostomy

70
Q

During the anal part of the APR, what structure is used as a guidance to olconne t the perineum and the pelvic dissection and separate the rectum from the levator Ani muscles?

A

Coccyx

After making the elliptical incision around the anus, tip the anus upward and sever it’s attachments to the coccyx. Then insert the finger into the presacral space and sweep the finger laterally to identify the levators on either side. Divide the levators as laterally as possible to avoid compromising the circumferential margins

71
Q

What types of tumor risks are increases in HNPCC?

A

Colon, endometrial

Transitional cell cancer of the ureter
Gastric cancer
Small bowel
Ovarian
Pancreas
72
Q

What’s the difference between condyloma lata vs condyloma accumunata?

A

Condyloma lata: secondary syphilis. flat, pale and smooth

Condyloma accumunata: HPV

73
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum

What’s the organism?

Clinical presentation?

A

Chlamydia

Multiple ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy

74
Q

Anal SCC. Gets nitro. After 8 weeks in your office, mass still there. When to biopsy or watch

A

If the size got bigger, biopsy right away

Same or smaller -> wait until 6 months then biopsy

75
Q

Horseshoe abscess.

What needs to be done?

A

Deep postanal space needs to be opened. Modified Hanley.

Posterior midline incision of deep postanal space with b/l counter incisions over the ischioanal fossa to drain each lateral extension of the abscess

76
Q

In a healthy pt low risk for CRS cancer, how do you decide to do 10 yr colonoscopy vs 5?

First colonoscopy at what age if no family history?

If (+) adenoma, what age for first colonoscopy?

A

If they had ONE family member with CRS cancer, then every 5 yrs

No fam hx: 45
(+) Adenoma or more: 40 or 10 yr prior to age at family’s diagnosis

77
Q

Best test to diagnose colovesical fistula?

A

CT - air in the bladder

78
Q

T/F: Once an epidermoid anal cancer is diagnosed, a colonoscopy is mandatory due to strong association with colon cancer

A

There is no association between anal cancer and colon cancer.

Strictly speaking colonoscopy is not required

79
Q

What is the stage II/III colorectal cancer recurrence rate with surgery/adj therapy

A

Up to 40%

80
Q

Isolated colorectal lung metastectimy 5yr survival rate?

A

35-45%

81
Q

What is defined as high output stoma?

What metabolic derangement do they get this this?

A

> 2000cc/24hr

Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis because you lose so much bicarb from the intestines

82
Q

Pt with FAP undergoes total colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis. Surveillance schedule?

A

Lower Endo every year

Upper Endo every <4 yrs

83
Q
  • What is the malignant potential of Peutz Jeghers polyps?

- what is the most commonly involved portion of the GI tract in Peutz Jeghers?

A
  • 3-6%

- jejunum and ileum are the most common sites for polyps

84
Q

Villous adenomas carry what % risk for malignancy?

A

42%

85
Q

Endoanal/endorectal advancement flaps should be avoided in what kind of pts?

A

Pts who already have incontinence because a small layer of circular muscle can be incorporated into the flap

86
Q

LIFT is typically used for what?

Describe the two key steps

A

Typically for simple fistula management after primary fistulotomy failed

1) fistulotomy
2) closure of the internal opening

87
Q

4 things in Amsterdam criteria

A

1 CRC or HNPCC related cancer under age <50
2 generations
3 family members with CRC
4 Rule out FAP

88
Q

In sporadic colon cancer, what is the first and last gene mutation in the cancer pathway?

A

First: APC

Last: p53

89
Q

Is APC a tumor suppressor or proto oncogene?

A

APC is a tumor suppressor gene

90
Q

[T/F] lungs are the most common site of HEMATOGENOUS spread of colon cancer

A

False. Liver is still #1 site of heme spread. Lung is #2

91
Q

What is the difference between stage IIIa vs IIIb vs IIIc colorectal cancer and the 5yr survival rates?

A

IIIa: N1 (3 or less nodes) + T1, T2 -> 89%
IIIb: N1 (3 or less nodes) + T3, T4 -> 69%
IIIc: N2 or more (>3 nodes) -> 53%

92
Q

What is the difference between stage IIa vs IIb vs IIc colorectal cancer and the 5yr survival rates?

A

IIa: T3 (cancer into subserosa), N0 -> 87%
IIb: T4a (cancer has gone through all layers up to visceral peritoneum), N0 -> 63%
IIc: T4b (cancer has grown through the colon wall and is attaching to other organs), N0

93
Q

C. Diff is gram [positive/negative]

[Aerobe/anaerobe]

Spore is heat [resistant/sensitive]

A

Gram positive anaerobe rods

Heat resistant spores

tangent: emphysematous cholecystitis also clostridium. gram positive anaerobe rods

94
Q

Question gives you an old psych guy with constipation. Has explosive diarrhea in the ED. volvulus or ogilvie’s?

A

Volvulus because it can spontaneously detorse and have bm.

Ogilvie you won’t have spontaneous explosive bm.

95
Q

5 risk factors that predict poor survival in patients with colorectal CA hepatic met

A

1) node positive primary tumor
2) post-op disease free survival <12 mo
3) multiple liver Mets
4) largest lesion > 5cm
5) CEA > 200

96
Q

Symptomology for

  • Muir Torre
  • Gardner
  • Turcot
A
  • Muir Torre: sebaceous glands + CRC
  • Gardner: CRC + desmoid + Mandible/skull osteoma + lipoma
  • Turcot: CNS + CRC + gastric
97
Q
A

true. doesn’t make a survival difference. but they do it anyway

98
Q

what is fecal immunochemical test? why is it useful?

A

it is specific for hemoglobin and not influenced by other perixodase reactions. it also does not react with hemoglobin from upper GI tract. so if the blood is detected by this test, that’s specific to the colon

99
Q

Crohn’s pt scheduled for an operation.

  • does steroids increase post-op complications?
  • does TNF inhibitor increase post-op complications?
A
  • steroids increase post-op complications

- TNF inhibitor does not change post-op outcomes (remicade/humira/cimzia)

100
Q

rectal cancer & neoadj rx

  • what is the rate of complete pathologic response? is it greater or smaller than the rate of clinical response?
  • if they recur, most recurn when?
  • predictors of recurrence? size? nodes? CEA?
A
  • 10-30% complete pathologic response. greater than clinical response. another 15-20% of clinical responders also have pathologic response
  • most recur within the 1st year
  • size is the best predictor of recurrence. nodes: no. CEA: no.
101
Q

hemorrhoidectomy open vs. closed vs. stapled

  • worst outcome?
  • main complications and advantage with stapled?
  • which one has the highest septic complication?
A
  • open and stapled had less stenosis and less pain
  • stapled has more rectal prolapse and tenesmus. stapled went back to normal activity faster
  • highest septic complication: stapled
102
Q

do T2 rectal tumors get neoadj?

which rectal cancers get neoadj?

A

T2N0 does not need neoadj

only T3+ or N1+ get neoadj

103
Q

desmoid tumors. do you enucleate it or WLE?

sporadic vs. FAP desmoid difference?

A

WLE

sporadic desmoid 2x more common in females. FAP desmoid same in males & females

asymptomatic intra abdominal desmoid you can watch. FAP desmoid you have to cut it out

104
Q

complete obstruction caused by rectal cancer 5cm from the anal verge. treatment?

A

no stenting for low rectal cancer

loop sigmoid colostomy is the treatment

105
Q

Post-AAA ischemic colitis. Flex sig shows gray mucosa. Treatment?

A

Colectomy, colostomy. Not observation and abx. Gray mucosa = transmural disease

106
Q

What are the measurements for toxic megacolon?

A

Cecum > 12cm

Colon > 6cm

107
Q

Use of heparin during angiography increases the sensitivity but is associated with what complication? How frequently?

A

Up to 1/5 associated with ischemia if heparin used

108
Q

Appendiceal tumors > 2cm are associated with what % of nodal met?

T/F: any appendiceal tumor associated even a little bit of mucin production should undergo hemicolectomy even with a negative margin and no evidence of lymphovascular invasion

A

30-60%

True. ANY mucin production -> hemicolectomy

109
Q

Femalenwith fecal incontinence + thin perineal body. What’s the likely etiology? First treatment?

A

Likely obstetric tear.

Loperamide. No need for US

Forget Nots (27 decks)

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