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3.3 Forensic psychology > Colleges > Flashcards

Colleges Flashcards

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1
Q

What traits are studied in genetic research on criminal behavior?

A
  1. Criminal behavior: Arrests, convictions, cautions, or self-reported offenses.
  2. Dimensional personality traits: Impulsivity, aggression, hostility.
  3. Psychiatric diagnoses: Conduct Disorder, Antisocial Personality Disorder, Substance Use Disorder.
  4. Protective factors: Intelligence, empathy.
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2
Q

What is the heritability estimate for criminal behavior?

A

Research suggests a genetic contribution of 40-50% for criminal behavior (Moffitt, 2005).

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3
Q

What are the findings from family studies on heritability and crime?

A
  1. 40% of criminal sons have criminal fathers (Osborn & West, 1979).
  2. 75% of criminal parents produce criminal children (Farrington & West, 1996).
  3. Crime runs in families (Farrington et al., 1975; Farrington et al., 2021).
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4
Q

What is the key assumption in twin studies?

A

The equal environments assumption: Identical (MZ) twins and fraternal (DZ) twins experience equally similar environments.

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5
Q

What do twin studies show about heritability and antisocial behavior?

A
  1. Severe antisocial behavior is more heritable than nonsevere behavior.
  2. Genetic effects on antisocial behavior increase with age, while shared environmental effects decrease.
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6
Q

What are the main challenges of adoption studies?

A
  1. Selective placement: Matching adoptive families with biological parents.
  2. Late adoption: Older age at adoption may involve trauma.
  3. Adverse environments: Children often come from and are placed into challenging conditions.
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7
Q

What is the role of the prefrontal cortex (PFC) in crime?

A

The PFC is responsible for executive functions like planning and impulse control.

  • Reduced grey matter and lower PFC activity are linked to antisocial and aggressive behavior.
  • The PFC develops fully by age 25-30, supporting the age-crime curve.
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8
Q

How does the amygdala influence aggression?

A
  1. Overstimulation: Leads to violent, aggressive behavior.
  2. Lesions: Result in flat affect and reduced emotional responses.
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9
Q

What is the relationship between traumatic brain injury (TBI) and crime?

A
  • TBI, particularly in frontal and temporal regions, is linked to increased aggression and antisocial behavior.
  • Juvenile offenders have a high prevalence of brain injury history.
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10
Q

What did studies by Bufkin & Lutrell (2005) find about prefrontal dysfunction and aggression?

A
  • Lower prefrontal activity and reduced grey matter are linked to impulsive aggression.
  • Excessive subcortical activity is common in individuals with intense violent behavior.
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11
Q

What is the significance of the limbic system in aggression?

A

The amygdala and hypothalamus regulate emotions, fight-or-flight responses, and aggression.

  • Overstimulation causes uncontrolled violence, while lesions result in reduced emotional responses.
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12
Q

What ethical concerns arise in genetic research on crime?

A
  1. Labeling: Associating individuals with criminal potential based on genetics may lead to bias and discrimination.
  2. Determinism: Misinterpretation of genetic findings could undermine personal accountability.
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13
Q

How do adoption studies support heritability of criminal behavior?

A
  • Crowe (1974): 50% of children with criminal biological mothers committed crimes by 18, compared to 5% without criminal biological mothers.
  • MZ twins raised apart show genetic influences on behavior independent of shared environment.
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14
Q

What is the difference between Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) and Antisocial Personality Pattern (APP)?

A
  • APD: Clinical diagnosis involving pervasive disregard for the rights of others.
  • APP: Behavioral and personality traits linked to criminal conduct; does not need to reach clinical levels.
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15
Q

What is Social Learning Theory according to Bandura?

A
  • New behaviors are learned through observation and imitation of others.
  • Focuses on rewards and punishments others receive for their actions.
  • Similarity to the observed person increases likelihood of learning.
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16
Q

What were the results of Bandura’s Bobo Doll Experiment?

A
  • Children who observed an aggressive model were more likely to show aggression toward the doll.
  • Aggression occurred whether the model was live, filmed, or cartoon.
  • Punishment and reward influenced the likelihood of imitating aggression.
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17
Q

What are the criticisms of the Bobo Doll Experiment?

A
  1. Ecological validity: Lab settings differ from real-world experiences.
  2. Novelty of the doll: Children may not know what behavior is expected.
  3. Individual differences: Ignores temperament and personality traits.
  4. Ethical concerns: Would not pass modern ethical standards.
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18
Q

What are social scripts and schemas in social cognitive learning?

A
  • Schemas: Rigid beliefs used to organize information.
  • Scripts: Predict how situations will unfold and guide behavior.
  • Shaped by experiences and exposure (e.g., media, upbringing).
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19
Q

What is the hostile attribution bias?

A
  • The tendency to perceive ambiguous actions of others as hostile or threatening.
  • Strongly linked to aggression, especially in young people.
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20
Q

What are the implications of exposure to violent video games?

A
  • Associated with aggressive beliefs, attitudes, and behaviors.
  • Leads to desensitization to violence and reduced prosocial behavior.
  • Protective factors, like non-violent family role models, can mitigate effects.
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21
Q

How does violent pornography affect behavior?

A
  • Linked to sexual aggression, especially in individuals with preexisting deviant sexual scripts or antisocial traits.
  • Exposure to violence and domination in pornography may reinforce harmful attitudes.
  • Causality: Individuals with positive attitudes toward violence are more likely to seek out violent pornography.
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22
Q

What is the General Personality and Cognitive Social Learning (GPCSL) Theory of criminal conduct?

A
  • Crime results from the interaction of personality traits, antisocial associates, and cognitive patterns.
  • Emphasizes the role of dynamic risk factors like attitudes, self-control, and peer influence.
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23
Q

What is the Dark Tetrad of personality traits?

A
  • Subclinical psychopathy
  • Subclinical narcissism
  • Machiavellianism
  • Everyday sadism
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24
Q

How do antisocial associates influence behavior?

A
  • Social exclusion may push individuals toward antisocial peers.
  • Peers reinforce criminal behaviors, creating a “school of criminal behavior.”
  • Group therapy in prison can inadvertently strengthen these associations.
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25
Q

What are the key components of risk assessment in offender rehabilitation?

A
  1. Risk: Level of risk (high, medium, low).
  2. Needs: Criminogenic needs or factors influencing risk.
  3. Responsivity: Matching interventions to individual and situational factors.
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26
Q

Why is dynamic risk assessment critical in offender management?

A
  • Targets criminogenic needs that are changeable (e.g., procriminal attitudes, substance abuse).
  • Helps monitor progress and adjusts interventions.
  • Includes both stable factors (long-term) and acute factors (short-term triggers).
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27
Q

What is the difference between static and dynamic risk factors?

A
  • Static Factors: Fixed, cannot change (e.g., age at first offense, criminal history).
  • Dynamic Factors: Can change and be targeted for intervention (e.g., substance abuse, antisocial attitudes).
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28
Q

What is the purpose of the Responsivity Principle in RNR?

A
  • Ensures treatment is tailored to the offender’s learning style, motivation, and individual characteristics.
  • Includes General Responsivity (evidence-based strategies like CBT) and Specific Responsivity (adapting to demographic and personal factors).
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29
Q

Why is it problematic to apply risk assessment tools designed for men to women?

A
  • Most tools are based on male samples and overlook gender-specific factors (e.g., childcare responsibilities, trauma history).
  • Women may require assessments that address emotional well-being and different life circumstances.
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30
Q

How do protective factors differ from risk factors?

A
  • Protective factors enhance resilience and mitigate risk, even in high-risk environments.
  • Examples: positive school climate, prosocial peers, and effective parenting.
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31
Q

What are the benefits of using actuarial prediction over clinical judgment in risk assessment?

A
  • Actuarial prediction is objective and based on statistical relationships between known risk factors and outcomes.
  • Ensures consistency and reduces biases compared to unstructured clinical judgment.
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32
Q

Why can high-intensity treatment harm low-risk offenders?

A
  • Labeling effects may increase antisocial tendencies.
  • Exposes low-risk offenders to high-risk peers, potentially leading to negative influences.
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33
Q

What is the DRAEOR used for in offender re-entry?

A
  • A dynamic risk assessment tool for monitoring changeable risk factors in reentry.
  • Focuses on protective factors like prosocial relationships and positive social supports.
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34
Q

What is sensitivity in risk assessment?

A

The proportion of actually violent individuals correctly identified as high-risk.

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35
Q

What is the specificity of a risk assessment tool?

A

The proportion of nonviolent individuals correctly identified as low-risk.

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36
Q

What are the key measures for defining effectiveness in offender treatment?

A

Recidivism rates (general and specific).
Adherence to treatment and probation terms.
Regular evaluation of risk reduction.
Drop-out rates as a factor.
Length of the follow-up period.

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37
Q

What are the principles of effective intervention?

A
  • Intensive, behavioral programs matched to the offender’s risk level.
  • Target predictors of crime using standardized assessments.
  • Match program to offender characteristics (e.g., gender, cognitive ability).
  • Enforce behavioral strategies firmly but fairly (no threats, consistent rules).
  • Use well-trained, qualified staff who relate to offenders respectfully.
  • Provide relapse prevention strategies and advocate with community agencies.
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38
Q

What is the objective of effective offender programs?

A
  • Reducing the risk of recidivism.
  • Secondary goal: Reducing institutional misconduct.
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39
Q

What manuals should be part of an accredited offender program?

A
  • Program manual (session content).
  • Theory manual (rationale and evidence base).
  • Management manual (effective intervention requirements).
  • Staff training manual (training and support).
  • Assessment and evaluation manual (tools and psychometric tests).
40
Q

What are moderators of success in offender treatment?

A
  • Treatment integrity: High quality reduces recidivism by 22% (Goggin & Gendreau, 2006).
  • Setting: Community-based programs outperform institutional ones.
  • Staff characteristics: Therapist warmth, empathy, and non-confrontational style predict success.
41
Q

What are the key components of trauma-informed therapy?

A
  • Recognize signs of trauma in clients, families, and staff.
  • Provide safety and trust through choice and control.
  • Identify and address fight, flight, or freeze responses.
  • Use strengths-based approaches and focus on collaboration.
42
Q

Why is offender confession or taking responsibility not a treatment focus?

A
  • It is not meaningfully related to treatment outcomes.
  • Shame = “I am bad,” leading to defensiveness.
  • Guilt = “I did something bad,” leading to reparative action.
43
Q

What are the functions of forensic behavior analysis?

A
  • Understand why the offense occurred.
  • Assess risk of reoffending.
  • Identify interventions to prevent recidivism.
  • Manage the treatment process.
44
Q

What is offense-paralleling behavior?

A
  • Patterns resembling the sequence of offending behavior, even if no offense occurs.
  • Involves overt behaviors, expectations, emotions, and behavioral scripts.
45
Q

What is the role of relapse prevention in offender treatment?

A
  • Identify high-risk situations and lapses.
  • Enhance self-efficacy in handling risky scenarios.
  • Develop strategies to avoid or cope with high-risk situations effectively.
46
Q

What is the role of mindfulness in offender rehabilitation?

A
  • Reduces impulsivity, emotional reactivity, and psychological distress.
  • Improves self-regulation, empathy, and problem-solving.
  • Promotes cortical growth and reduces deviant sexual thoughts.
47
Q

How can animal-assisted therapy benefit offenders?

A
  • Provides unconditional social support.
  • Reduces cortisol and increases oxytocin and endorphins.
  • Helps reduce aggression and anxiety.
48
Q

What are cognitive distortions, and how are they categorized?

A
  • Diffusion of responsibility: “It wasn’t my fault.”
  • Distorting consequences: “No one got hurt.”
  • Attribution of blame: “They provoked me.”
  • Dehumanization: “They weren’t important.”
49
Q

What percentage of violent crime in the U.S. is attributed to serious mental illness (SMI)?

A

3–10% of violent crime is attributed to SMI, with individuals with SMI being 2–8 times more likely to commit a violent offense than the general population.

50
Q

What are common risk factors for violence in both general and psychotic populations?

A
  • Substance abuse
  • History of violence
  • Social deviance
  • Anger control issues
51
Q

What is the “geographic drift hypothesis” regarding schizophrenia?

A

This hypothesis suggests that individuals with schizophrenia tend to drift into poverty and social isolation during the preclinical phase, explaining the higher incidence in urban poverty centers.

52
Q

What is the relationship between PTSD and violence?

A
  • Combat veterans with PTSD show up to 95% aggression symptoms and 7 times higher aggression rates compared to veterans without PTSD.
  • Risk factors include trauma intensity, comorbid disorders, and socioeconomic status.
53
Q

What percentage of incarcerated individuals report a substance abuse problem?

A

More than 70% of incarcerated offenders in the U.S. and Canada report current or past substance abuse.

54
Q

How is alcohol linked to violent crime?

A
  • Alcohol is more closely linked to murder, rape, and assault than other substances.
  • 48% of homicide offenders globally had alcohol in their system at the time of the crime.
55
Q

How does psychosis influence violence timing?

A
  • Most offending occurs in first-episode psychosis, prior to mental health contact.
  • Risk of homicide is 15.5 times higher during untreated first-episode psychosis.
56
Q

What are the key features of antisocial personality disorder (ASPD)?

A
  1. Deceitfulness
  2. Impulsivity
  3. Irritability/aggressiveness
  4. Disregard for safety
  5. Consistent irresponsibility
  6. Lack of remorse
57
Q

What is the role of psychopathy in predicting recidivism?

A

Psychopathy is a significant predictor of violent and general recidivism, particularly for male and juvenile offenders. Impulsivity and antisociality are strongly linked to criminal behavior.

58
Q

What are the three explanations for the relationship between substance abuse and crime?

A
  1. Forward causation: Drug use causes crime (e.g., funding addiction, psychopharmacological changes).
  2. Reverse causation: Crime leads to drug use (e.g., increased opportunities).
  3. Confounding: Both share common underlying causes.
59
Q

How does PTSD prevalence compare between general and offender populations?

A
  • General population prevalence: 4–6%.
  • Offender population prevalence: 4–21.4%.
  • Higher rates among incarcerated adolescents and women with histories of trauma.
60
Q

How does substance abuse contribute to violence?

A
  • Drug-seeking behavior can lead to aggression.
  • Withdrawal symptoms increase irritability and anger.
  • Chronic use can result in paranoia or psychosis.
61
Q

What is the link between childhood trauma and PTSD-related aggression?

A

Childhood abuse, neglect, poverty, and exposure to violence increase the risk of developing PTSD and associated aggression and antisocial behavior.

62
Q

Why is alcohol considered unique among substances linked to violence?

A
  • Alcohol is present in most homicides from arguments.
  • Contributes to domestic violence, child molestation, and spousal abuse.
63
Q

What are the four factors in the psychopathy model?

A
  1. Interpersonal: Egocentric, manipulative.
  2. Affective: Lack of empathy, remorse.
  3. Lifestyle: Impulsivity, irresponsibility.
  4. Antisocial: Early behavior problems, criminal versatility.
64
Q

What is the definition of domestic violence?

A

Any incident or pattern of controlling, coercive, threatening behavior, violence, or abuse between individuals aged 16+ who are or were intimate partners or family members.

65
Q

Name the categories of abuse in IPV.

A
  1. Emotional abuse
  2. Psychological abuse
  3. Physical abuse
  4. Sexual abuse
  5. Financial abuse
66
Q

What is the prevalence of violence against children?

A
  • 9% experienced psychological abuse.
  • 7% suffered physical abuse.
  • 7% suffered sexual assault.
  • 8% witnessed domestic violence during childhood.
67
Q

What are the two main perspectives on gender differences in IPV?

A
  1. Feminist Perspective: IPV stems from patriarchy, entitlement, and control, primarily perpetrated by men.
  2. Family Violence Perspective: Focuses on conflict theory, emphasizing situational triggers and bidirectional violence.
68
Q

What does the Conflict Tactics Scale (CTS) measure?

A
  1. Physical, psychological, and sexual coercion.
  2. Injuries caused.
  3. Negotiation tactics.
69
Q

What are the criticisms of the CTS?

A
  • Fails to account for motivation (e.g., control vs. retaliation).
  • Ignores contextual factors (e.g., power dynamics).
  • Skews data by treating actions without considering intent.
70
Q

What is Coercive Controlling Violence (CCV)?

A

A chronic pattern of control using threats, intimidation, isolation, and violence. Primarily male-perpetrated and linked to severe harm and fear.

71
Q

What are the 4 types of IPV according to Johnson’s Typology?

A
  1. Situational Couple Violence: Arises from conflicts, not control.
  2. Intimate Terrorism: Chronic, coercive control by one partner (typically male).
  3. Mutual Violent Control: Both partners vie for control using violence.
  4. Violent Resistance: Victims defending themselves from Intimate Terrorism.
72
Q

What does Social Learning Theory suggest about IPV?

A
  • IPV is learned through observing violence (e.g., parents, media).
  • Violence relieves stress, reinforcing abusive behavior.
  • Childhood exposure increases risk of becoming a victim or perpetrator.
73
Q

According to Attachment Theory, which styles are more common in IPV perpetrators?

A
  1. Preoccupied: Overly dependent and fear rejection.
  2. Dismissing: Avoiding intimacy, valuing independence.
  3. Fearful: Craving intimacy but fearing rejection.
  4. Secure: positive self and other schemas
    - ‘best’ attachment style. They think positively about others and themselves.
74
Q

What does Dutton’s Nested Ecological Model explain?

A
  1. Macrosystem: Cultural attitudes and societal norms.
  2. Exosystem: Media, policies, and institutions.
  3. Mesosystem: Immediate environments like family, finances.
  4. Ontogenetic: Individual factors like attachment styles, substance use.
75
Q

What are dynamic risk factors for IPV?

A
  1. Past physical/sexual violence.
  2. Violent thoughts and threats.
  3. Separation or relationship problems.
  4. Substance abuse.
  5. Attitudes favoring IPV (e.g., victim-blaming).
76
Q

What is Clare’s Law / Domestic Violence Disclosure Scheme (DVDS)?

A

This isa police policy giving people the right to know if their current or ex-partner has any previous history of violence or abuse.

77
Q

What is the highest-risk period for IPV turning lethal after separation?

A

The first year after separation is the most dangerous.

78
Q

How does IPV differ for men and women?

A
  • Men commit severe and chronic IPV more frequently.
  • Women more often use violence in self-defense.
  • 70% of female victims report fear; 85% of male victims do not feel frightened.
79
Q

What are unique IPV challenges for LGBT and transgender individuals?

A
  • Forced outing and denying access to medical treatment.
  • Use of inappropriate pronouns as psychological abuse.
  • Intersectional oppression amplifies IPV risks.
80
Q

What are risk factors for IPV lethality?

A
  1. Escalating violence or stalking behavior.
  2. Delusional jealousy or persecution.
  3. Violation of court orders.
  4. Financial or employment struggles.
81
Q

What are predictors of femicide in IPV?

A
  1. History of escalating violence.
  2. Stalking behavior.
  3. Separation or attempts to leave.
82
Q

What are the three key features of the clinical/academic definition of stalking?

A
  1. A pattern of repetitive, unwanted pursuit, harassment, or following.
  2. A credible explicit or perceived threat.
  3. The experience of fear by the victim.
83
Q

What is the common clinical definition of stalking?

A

A course of conduct consisting of unwanted attention directed by one individual toward another that induces fear in the victim.

84
Q

What percentage of stalking cases involve violence?

A

30% of stalking cases involve violence, and some escalate to domestic homicide.

85
Q

What percentage of stalkers reoffend?

A

55% of stalkers reoffend, and 36% have a prior conviction for harassment.

86
Q

What are common consequences of being stalked?

A
  • Chronic stress leading to PTSD, anxiety, and mood disorders.
  • Financial loss, social isolation, and economic difficulties.
  • Physical symptoms like headaches, hair loss, amnesia, and suicidal thoughts.
87
Q

What marks the transition from unwanted attention to stalking?

A

Stalking typically begins when the behavior persists for two weeks or more and involves multiple methods of harassment.

88
Q

According to attachment theory, what early experiences may predispose someone to stalking behavior?

A
  • Insecure attachment.
  • Changes in primary caregivers (63%).
  • Childhood abuse by caregivers (55%).
  • Social withdrawal and recurring behavioral problems in childhood.
89
Q

What does social learning theory suggest about stalking?

A

Stalkers may learn behaviors from peers, adopt favorable attitudes toward stalking, and balance risks and rewards based on perceived benefits.

90
Q

What are some high-risk markers for violence in stalking?

A
  • Strangulation assault (24%).
  • Threats to kill (55%).
  • Suicidal threats (23%).
91
Q

What is erotomania, and how does it relate to stalking?

A

A delusional disorder where the individual believes someone is in love with them. It is more common in women but more likely to lead to violence and stalking in men.

92
Q

How does the victim-offender relationship impact stalking risk?

A

Stalking by ex-intimates carries the greatest risk of violence due to motivations like anger and unresolved issues.

93
Q

What are the steps in the 8-step homicide timeline related to stalking? –> do not need to know the exact steps

A
  1. Pre-relationship stalking or abuse.
  2. Rapidly developing romance.
  3. Coercive control in the relationship.
  4. Trigger threatening perpetrator’s control.
  5. Escalation of control tactics.
  6. Change in perpetrator’s thinking.
  7. Planning of homicide.
  8. Execution of homicide.
94
Q

What are common perpetrator-victim relationships in cyberstalking?

A
  • Ex-partners: 35%.
  • Friends/acquaintances: 28.5%.
  • Strangers: About one-third.
95
Q

What is the Electronic Use Pursuit Behavioral Index?

A

A set of behaviors including:
* Obtaining someone’s online passwords.
* Sending excessive friend requests.
* Sharing someone’s private information online.
* Sending unwanted pornography.
* Tracing internet activity.

96
Q

What group is more likely to engage in cyberstalking?

A

Non-white and non-heterosexual individuals, often over 21 years old and non-single (Reyns et al., 2012).

3.3 Forensic psychology (9 decks)

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