COGNITIVE FOUNDATIONS OF BHD Flashcards

1
Q

Classical conditioning

A

occurs unconsciously through associations between stimuli within our environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Operant conditioning

A

learning controlled by the
consequences of our behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Unconditioned Stimulus

A

Naturally elicits a reflexive response.
Example: Food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Unconditioned Response

A

Reflexive response to the US.
Example: Salivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neutral Stimulus

A

Initially does not elicit the response.

Example: Bell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Process of Operant conditioning

A

Pairing: Repeatedly pairing the NS with the US.

Conditioned Response (CR): After repeated pairings, the NS becomes a Conditioned Stimulus (CS) and elicits the response on its own.

Example: The bell (CS) causes salivation (CR) after being associated with food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Conditioned Stimulus

A

A previously neutral stimulus that is able to elicit a particular response after being paired with the unconditioned stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Conditioned Response

A

The response elicited by the conditioned stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Acquisition

A

learning phase during which a conditioned response is established.
* Impacted by frequency and timing of stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Extinction

A

gradual reduction and elimination of the CR after the CS is presented repeatedly without the UCS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

a seemingly extinct CR reappears if the CS is presented again.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stimulus generalisation

A

individual responds to stimuli that are similar to the CS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stimulus discrimination

A

individual can discriminate between stimuli that are similar to the CS less pronounced CR, or NO RESPONSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chemotherapy

A

Nausea is a common side effect of chemotherapy.
* Conditioned taste aversions
* Neutral stimuli CS when
paired with the UCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

OPERANT CONDITIONING

A

Learning controlled by the consequences of our
behaviour probability that a behaviour will occur is
influenced by the previous consequences of that behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Thorndike’s Law of Effect

A

Behaviours which lead to a “satisfying state of affairs”
are more likely to be repeated in the future.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

THE SKINNER BOX

A

B.F. Skinner: expanded on the Law of Effect with the
development of the operant chamber (Skinner Box)
manipulate the consequences of behaviour to examine the effect on future behaviour operant conditioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Reinforcement

A

stimulus which occurs after the behaviour and increases the likelihood that the behaviour will occur again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Punishment

A

stimulus which occurs after the behaviour and decreases the likelihood that the behaviour will occur again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

The presentation of a pleasant stimulus after a behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Positive punishment

A

The presentation of an unpleasant stimulus after a behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

The removal of an unpleasant stimulus after a behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Negative punishment

A

The removal of a pleasant stimulus after a behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Extinction (operant)

A

the fading out of a behaviour when reinforcement of the behaviour stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Extinction burst

A

initial increase in behaviour following withdrawal of reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Stimulus generalisation

A

eliciting a response to stimuli which are similar, but not identical, to the original stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Stimulus discrimination

A

displaying a less pronounced
response (or no response) to
stimuli that differ from the
original stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Continuous reinforcement schedules

A

Reinforcement occurs after every response (after each time the behaviour is performed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Intermittent/partial reinforcement schedules

A

Reinforcement occurs intermittently rather than
after every response
* Fixed or variable
* Ratio schedules or interval schedules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fixed Ratio

A

Reinforcement occurs after a fixed number of behavioural responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Variable Ratio

A

Reinforcement occurs after variable number of behavioural responses, the average of which is predetermined.
* VR schedules usually yield the highest rates of responding, and are most resistant to extinction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fixed Interval

A

reinforcement occurs for the first behavioural response performed following a specified time interval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Variable Interval

A

reinforcement occurs for the first behavioural response performed after a variable time interval, the average of which is predetermined.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Key factors of observational learning

A

Motivation
Attention
Retention
Reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Vicarious Conditioning

A

Definition: Learning through observation of others being rewarded or punished for their behavior.
Impact: Behavior is more likely to be imitated if the model is observed being rewarded, and less likely if punished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Imitation Factors:

A

Model’s Characteristics:
Prestige: Higher status increases likelihood of imitation.
Likeability and Attractiveness: More likely to imitate someone who is likable and attractive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cognition

A

the mental action or process of acquiring knowledge and understanding through thought, experience, and the senses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

SOCIAL-COGNITIVE LEARNING is influenced by

A
  • Interpersonal differences in perception
  • Subjective interpretation of our environment and
    personal relationships.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Learned helplessness

A

the tendency to feel helpless in the face of events that we cannot control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The path to learned helplessness

A

Uncontrollable Adverse Events: Trigger feelings of helplessness.
Perceived Lack of Control: Leads to the belief that one cannot escape aversive events.
Feelings of Helplessness: Result in helpless behavior.
Explanatory Style: Expectation that one cannot escape aversive events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Three Types of Deficits

A

Motivational: Slow to initiate known actions.
Emotional: Appear rigid, lethargic, frightened, or distressed.
Cognitive: Demonstrate poor learning in new situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

LOCUS OF CONTROL

A
  • We form expectations about the consequences of our behaviours
  • We might believe that reinforcements and/or
    punishments lie inside or outside of our
    control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Internal locus of control

A

Belief that our own actions
determine our fate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

External locus of control

A

Belief that our lives are
governed by forces outside
of our control, or by
people more powerful
than ourselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Locus of Control in Healthcare

A

Impact on Health:
Internal Locus of Control: Individuals who believe they control their own health are more likely to engage in healthy behaviors and practice good healthcare habits.

External Locus of Control: Those who believe their health is controlled by external factors may take fewer actions to improve their health, potentially leading to poorer health outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Self efficacy key factors

A

Mastery
Experience
Vicarious
Experience
Persuasion
Emotional
Arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

High self-efficacy in health context

A

people feel in control of their own health, and the effects of their health condition become less of a stressor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Low self-efficacy in health context

A

negative impact on their health outcomes.
* Complex / strict diet
* Self-injecting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Dispositional attributions

A

behaviour is caused by an internal or personal factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Situational attributions

A

behaviour is caused by an external, or environmental factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Optimistic style

A

credits success to internal factors, failures to external-> confidently work for
success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pessimistic style

A

Credits success to luck and failure to lack of ability-> low expectation of success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Fundamental Attribution Error

A

Definition: The tendency to attribute another person’s behavior to their personality (disposition) while ignoring situational causes.

Key Points:

Underestimation of Situational Factors: Even when strong situational cues are present, we often downplay their influence.

Reasons for Making the Error:
Lack of Information: We often don’t have enough information about the situational factors affecting the other person.

Self-Reflection: We may not reflect on how we would behave in the same situation.

Cultural Influences: Cultural norms and values can shape our tendency to make dispositional attributions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

FUNDAMENTAL ATTRIBUTION ERROR
HEALTH CONTEXT

A

*Can influence communication in a health care team and hinder collaboration
* Can influence how interpret a patient’s adherence to a medication/treatment/
lifestyle change
* Can exacerbate health inequity, e.g. judgment about missed appointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Self-Serving Bias

A

Definition: The tendency to attribute personal successes to internal factors (e.g., talent, effort) and personal failures to external factors (e.g., luck, circumstances).

Short-Term Effect: Can be protective, boosting self-esteem.

Long-Term Impact: May prevent learning from mistakes and hinder personal growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

WHAT IS PAIN?

A

“An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience
associated with actual or potential tissue damage.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Sensation

A

activation of sense organ → neural impulses transmitted to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Perception

A

the brain’s organisation + interpretation of sensory input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the starting point of the pain pathway?

A

The site of injury, where nociceptors detect harmful stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What type of fibers transmit sharp, acute pain signals?

A

A-fibers (fast, myelinated fibers).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What type of fibers transmit slow, dull, aching pain signals?

A

C-fibers (slow, unmyelinated fibers).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where do pain signals first synapse in the spinal cord?

A

In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the role of the somatosensory cortex in the pain pathway?

A

It interprets the physical sensation of pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How does the limbic system contribute to the pain response?

A

The limbic system processes the emotional and cognitive response to pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the role of the thalamus in the pain pathway?

A

The thalamus acts as a relay station for pain signals to various parts of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the name of the pathway that transmits pain signals to the brain?

A

The spinothalamic tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for processing both the sensation and emotional response to pain?

A

The cerebrum, involving the somatosensory cortex, limbic system, and thalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

WHY DO WE EXPERIENCE PAIN?

A

Pain is an evolved defence mechanism which informs
the individual of injury or dangerous stimuli → critical
for our survival…
* Prevents tissue damage and/or protects from
further damage
* Promotes immobilisation for healing

69
Q

Traditional biomedical perspective assumes

A

Symptoms are the result of tissue damage
* Pain severity is proportional to the amount of tissue damage
* There is an organic explanation for all pain symptoms. Therefore… everyone with the same injury should experience the same amount of pain!

70
Q

PAIN BEHAVIOURS

A

Responses can include:
* Outward expressions of the pain
* Attempts to reduce the pain (i.e. medication, withdrawing
from activities)
* Attempts to cope with or ignore the pain (i.e. distraction). Pain behaviours can impact the way we perceive and experience pain

71
Q

CHRONIC PRIMARY PAIN

A

Pain in one or more body systems that:
(a) persists or recurs for longer than 3 months,
(b) is associated with significant emotional distress and/or
significant functional disability, and
(c) includes symptoms that are not better accounted for by another diagnosis.

72
Q

GATE CONTROL THEORY

A

A “gate” exists at the spinal cord that can block some
pain signals while allowing others through to the brain
The “gate” receives two-way input:
* Ascending messages are biological in nature (activation of pain receptors); can be modulated by non-painful stimuli → i.e. touch/pressure
* Descending messages are psychological in nature →
i.e. attention, emotional state (stress, anxiety)

73
Q

What does Gate Control theory explain?

A

explains how psychological
states can influence pain
perception…
* Negative emotional states
(stress, anxiety) + focused
attention = GATE OPEN
* Positive emotional states
(acceptance, calm) +
distraction = GATE CLOSED

74
Q

PAIN MANAGEMENT (Gate)

A

Focuses on techniques to ‘close’ the gate
- Rubbing the site of injury
- Distraction techniques
- Relaxation exercises
- ‘Non-traditional’ therapies, i.e. acupuncture or massage therapy

75
Q

OPERANT THEORY

A

Operant model offers a behavioural approach to pain, particularly the development and maintenance of
chronic pain + associated behaviours.

76
Q

Pain Management (Operant)

A

Pain behaviours → create a cycle of chronic pain,
where the patient receives positive consequences for
being in pain (i.e. rest, attention from others)

Focuses on changing behaviours (behaviour modification)
Uses principles of learning through conditioning to:
* Decrease unhelpful behaviours, i.e. avoidance
* Increase helpful behaviours, i.e. exercises, relaxation
Interventions seek to:
* Identify/modify antecedents of experiences/behaviours
* Identify controlling consequences of behaviours
* Reinforce helpful behaviours
* ‘Punish’ unhelpful behaviours

77
Q

COGNITIVE BEHAVIOURAL THEORY

A
  • Initially developed as a treatment framework for
    mental health problems → since been applied to
    management of chronic pain.
  • Role of patient’s appraisals (experience, perception)
    and coping strategies (behavioural responses) is key.
78
Q

Active coping

A

Focus on trying to control pain or function despite it
* Regular exercise
* Maintaining ADLs
* Distracting yourself from
pain sensation
* Relaxation exercises

79
Q

Passive coping

A

Focus on avoiding the pain
* Using medications, and
increasing clinician visits
* Avoidance of activity +
socially withdrawn
* Increased reaction to
painful stimuli

80
Q

COGNITIVE BEHAVIOURAL THEORY - Pain management

A

Helps individuals develop skills to change negative
thoughts and behaviors.
* Improves coping strategies: passive → active coping.
* Explores patient’s expectations + understanding of
pain → reframing beliefs regarding chronic pain
* Promotes relaxation + distraction skills
Multidisciplinary approach, i.e. medications, physical
therapy, lifestyle changes

81
Q

What does EEG measure?

A

EEG measures the electrical activity of the brain in the form of nerve impulses.

82
Q

What are the four basic brain waves?

A

The four basic brain waves are Alpha, Beta, Delta, and Theta.

83
Q

How are brain waves measured?

A

Brain waves are measured by their frequency (Hz) and amplitude (microvolts).

84
Q

Which brain wave is associated with relaxation?

A

Alpha waves

85
Q

Which brain wave is linked to active thinking?

A

Beta waves

86
Q

Which brain wave is dominant during deep sleep?

A

Delta waves

87
Q

Which brain wave is associated with light sleep and drowsiness?

A

Theta waves

88
Q

How long does NREM Stage 1 last?

A

NREM Stage 1 lasts 5-10 minutes.

89
Q

What happens during NREM Stage 1?

A

It is the transition from drowsiness into sleep, where eye movements slow, blood pressure drops, muscles relax, and the body enters a calm state.

90
Q

Which brain waves start to appear in NREM Stage 1?

A

Slower Theta waves start to appear in NREM Stage 1.

91
Q

NREM: Sleep Stage 2

A
  • Sleep deepens
  • Main body of light sleep
  • Memory consolidation + synaptic pruning
  • Alpha waves disappear
  • EEG shows slightly larger Theta waves along with bursts of:
  • Sleep spindles (fast, low amplitude)
  • K complexes (slow, high amplitude)
92
Q

NREM: SLEEP STAGE 3 & 4

A
  • Also known as Delta sleep or deep sleep
  • Characterised by relaxed muscles, lowering of body
    temperature; muscles rest and rejuvenate
  • Stage 3 characterised by large, slow Delta waves
  • When delta waves make up 50% of recorded brain activity
    you have entered Stage 4 sleep
  • Stage 4 – Delta waves >50% of brain activity
93
Q

REM SLEEP (STAGE 5)

A

Rapid Eye Movement (REM) Sleep:
* Named for the darting eye movements in this stage
* Stage in which most dreams occur
* EEG shows an active pattern resembling awake state
(Beta waves) but body movement is inhibited
* HR and BP increase
* Respiration becomes fast and irregular

94
Q

What are the three main factors affecting sleep?

A

Biological, Psychological, and Social/Environmental factors.

95
Q

Biological Factors

A

Age
Genetics
Hormonal changes (e.g., during puberty, menopause)
Circadian rhythm
Physical health conditions (e.g., sleep apnea, chronic pain)
Neurotransmitter levels
Medications and substances (e.g., caffeine, alcohol, drugs)

96
Q

Psychological Factors

A

Stress and anxiety
Depression and other mental health disorders
Emotional trauma
Cognitive patterns (e.g., racing thoughts, worry)
Mental health conditions (e.g., bipolar disorder, schizophrenia)

97
Q

Social/Environmental Factors

A

Sleep environment (e.g., noise, light, temperature)
Work schedule (e.g., shift work, long hours)
Lifestyle habits (e.g., diet, exercise, screen time)
Social interactions and relationships
Cultural norms and expectations
Life events (e.g., moving, job changes, personal loss)

98
Q

LACK OF SLEEP & HEALTH

A

Insufficient / poor sleep can lead to a range of health problems:
* Obesity
* Cardiovascular health
* Diabetes
* Impaired self regulation
* Mood
* Memory problems

99
Q

What is encoding in the memory process?

A

Encoding is converting information into a form usable in memory.

100
Q

What is storage in the memory process?

A

Storage is the process of retaining information in memory.

101
Q

What is retrieval in the memory process?

A

Retrieval is bringing to mind information stored in memory.

102
Q

Encoding initial stimuli & short term memories

A

The set of processes involved in transforming
external events & internal thoughts into both temporary & long lasting memories

103
Q

Encoding long-term memories

A
  • Anatomical change via neurotransmitter release
  • Engram created: physical memory trace in brain
  • Long Term Potential: gradual strengthening of the connections among
    neurons from repetitive stimulation
104
Q

What does good memory depend on?

A

Good memory depends on the depth and elaboration of the initial encoding.

105
Q

What is Semantic encoding?

A

Semantic encoding involves processing information based on its meaning, which leads to deeper memory.

106
Q

What is Phonemic encoding?

A

Phonemic encoding involves processing information based on how it sounds, which is a more shallow level of encoding compared to semantic.

107
Q

What is Structural encoding

A

Structural encoding involves processing information based on its physical or visual features (e.g., letters or appearance), which is the shallowest level of encoding.

108
Q

What is the relationship between depth of processing and memory?

A

Deeper levels of processing, such as semantic encoding, lead to better memory retention compared to shallow levels like structural encoding.

109
Q

What is the capacity and duration of sensory memory?

A

Sensory memory has a large capacity but a short duration.

110
Q

How long does Iconic memory last?

A

Iconic memory lasts about 1 second.

111
Q

How long does Echoic memory last?

A

Echoic memory lasts 5-10 seconds.

112
Q

How long does Haptic memory last?

A

Haptic memory lasts about c1 second.

113
Q

What is the capacity of working memory?

A

Working memory typically has a capacity of about 7 ± 2 chunks of information.

114
Q

What is the duration of information in working memory?

A

The duration of information in working memory is about 15-30 seconds without rehearsal.

115
Q

What is a chunk in working memory?

A

A chunk is a meaningful unit of information that can be a single item or a group of items grouped together based on their significance.

116
Q

What is the duration potential of Long-Term Memory (LTM)?

A

Long-Term Memory (LTM) has a potentially long duration, lasting a lifetime.

117
Q

What is the capacity of Long-Term Memory (LTM)?

A

Long-Term Memory (LTM) has a huge capacity.

118
Q

What does Long-Term Memory (LTM) include?

A

Long-Term Memory (LTM) includes past experiences and events, thoughts and feelings, skills and abilities, and identity and sense of self.

119
Q

Semantic memory example

A

Our knowledge of
facts about the world

120
Q

Episodic memory

A

Recollection of events and
experiences in our lives

121
Q

Explicit memory

A

Knowing “what”
* Memory for facts, events & beliefs about the
world that we are consciously aware of
* We recall intentionally (split into semantic and episodic)

122
Q

What does the multi-store system of Long-Term Memory (LTM) include?

A

The multi-store system of Long-Term Memory (LTM) includes knowing “how” and experiential or functional forms of memory.

123
Q

How is information in the multi-store system of LTM typically remembered?

A

Information in the multi-store system of LTM is not deliberately remembered and cannot be consciously recalled or reflected on.

124
Q

What types of skills are part of the multi-store system of LTM?

A

The multi-store system of LTM includes motor skills, habits, and “how to do things.”

125
Q

What is a characteristic of memory retained in H.M. related to the multi-store system of LTM?

A

Memory retained in H.M. included the ability to identify stimuli more easily after prior exposure

126
Q

What forms of learning are associated with the multi-store system of LTM?

A

Forms of unconscious learning, such as procedural memory and motor skills, are associated with the multi-store system of LTM.

127
Q

Anatomical change of LTM

A
  • memory trace may reflect alterations in neurotransmitter release at specific
    sites
  • Engram – physical memory trace of info in brain
  • Patients with brain injury/surgery tell us about link between brain
    structure and function
  • E.g. famous surgery patient, H.M. (no new LTM capacity but working
    memory & procedural memory mostly intact)
128
Q

What part of the brain is associated with sensory memories?

A

The thalamus

129
Q

Which brain structure is important for habit formation?

A

The striatum

130
Q

Which part of the brain is linked to memories about emotions?

A

The amygdala

131
Q

What role does the cerebellum play in memory?

A

It is associated with procedural memory, involving motor skills and tasks.

132
Q

Which brain structure is involved in the consolidation of memories and semantic memory?

A

The hippocampus.

133
Q

Three ways to access memories:

A

. Recall: Generate a mental
representation of
information/stimuli now absent
2. Recognition: Notice that
info/stimuli is like the one
experienced before
* Recognition than recall
3. Reconstruction: Piece together memory based on info/stimuli that can be recalled

134
Q

Factors affecting LTM performance

A
  1. Stress/arousal
  2. Serial position of information
  3. The context
  4. Failure to encode
135
Q

Stress, arousal & memory

A
  • Level of attention or arousal related to memory performance
  • Relationship between stress and memory is not linear
  • Affects ability to encode (if fail to encode, memory not there to retrieve)
  • Directly relevant to information
    giving in stressful clinical context
136
Q

Emotional arousal

A
  • Flashbulb memories - Strong, vivid (usually visual) and detailed
    memories of dramatic events
  • Because vivid, belief that resistant to decay – BUT evidence
    questions this
  • Emotional arousal triggers adrenalin release > enhanced memory
137
Q

Serial Position

A
  • Relates to position of information when given lots of info at once
  • Primacy effect – first items recalled better (long term memory)
  • Recency effect – last items recalled better (working memory)
  • Clinical context – important info first, repeat last
138
Q

Context

A

External & internal context state can affect retrieval
* Environment
* State
* Encoding specificity – context embedded with info
* The more overlap between conditions at encoding & retrieval, the better the retrieval
* Use environmental cues to aid episodic memory retrieval

139
Q

Failure to encode

A
  • Failing to effectively put material into LTM
  • Too much stress
  • Not enough attention
  • Lack of rehearsal
  • No elaboration of information
  • Serial position
140
Q

Decay theory

A
  • Memory traces fades over time
  • Points to impermanence of memory storage
  • Relates to how frequently recalled/rehearsed
141
Q

Interference

A
  • Confusion or entanglement
    of similar memories
  • Greatest when competing
    info most similar
142
Q

Motivated forgetting

A
  • Motivated forgetting:
  • Forgot what don’t want to think about repression
  • Usually due to trauma
143
Q

Memory, development and clinical context

A
  • Age – development in childhood, decline in later life
  • Mental health, stress, sleep
  • Hormones: menopause, thyroid
  • Medications and substance use
  • Diet/fluid intake
144
Q

Infantile amnesia

A

The lack of explicit memory for events before age of 3
years

  • Adults’ earliest autobiographical memory averages back to 3 – 3 ½ years
145
Q

Infancy (0-1 years)

A
  • Implicit memory
    predominates
  • Recognition not recall
  • Object permanence
  • Implicit memory
  • Semantic & episodic memory
    forming
  • Able to recall names, objects &
    places
  • Development of language
  • Recognition better than recall
146
Q

Toddler (2-3 years)

A
  • Implicit memory
  • Semantic & episodic memory forming
  • Able to recall names, objects & places
  • Development of language
  • Recognition better than recall
147
Q

Memory in early childhood (3-6yrs)

A
  • Significant improvement due to advances in:
  • Attention
  • Speed & efficiency of information processing
  • Language development
  • Influences on children’s episodic memory:
  • Remember things they did better than things they saw
  • Drawing helps children’s memory
  • How parents talk during shared experience
148
Q

Implicit memory in early childhood

A

Implicit memory develops first
* Can produce behavioural change without
conscious awareness
* E.g. how to catch a ball

149
Q

Explicit memory in early childhood

A

Explicit memory continues to improve
* Memories people know they have
* Facts, names and events

150
Q

Memory in middle childhood (6-10 years)

A
  • Gradual increase in own understanding of memory
  • Become aware that we forget things
  • Can learn and use mnemonics
  • Learn to use external aids
  • E.g. shoes ready for school
  • Rehearsal
  • Basic repetition then associations
  • Organisation
  • Elaboration
151
Q

Causes of memory problems in childhood

A
  • ADHD / executive functioning
    differences / learning disabilities
  • Cerebrovascular events
  • Epilepsy
  • Trauma or stress
  • Fetal alcohol syndrome
152
Q

Accuracy of Memory

A
  • Misinformation Effect
  • Misleading information is incorporated into one’s memory after an
    event
  • Suggestive memory techniques
  • False memory
  • Recollections that feel real but are not
153
Q

Implications for interviewing

A
  • Suggestive interviewing can lead to construction of false memory
  • Stories/reports told in response to free-recall prompts are more accurate
    than stories told in response to a series of closed questions. E.g.:
  • Tell me more about that?
  • What happened next?
  • Avoid praise for revelations
  • Make it ok to not know answer
154
Q

Changes in memory & information
processing across adulthood

A
  • Crystallised intelligence
  • Skills that depend on accumulated knowledge, experience,
  • Judgment & social skills
  • Semantic & procedural memories
  • Fluid intelligence
  • Depends on information processing skills
  • Speed of analysing information
  • working memory capacity
155
Q

Memory in adulthood (20s – 60s)

A
  • Brain volume peaks in 20s and gradually declines
  • Information in working memory diminishes
  • Use of memory strategies declines
  • More difficulty retrieving info from LTM
  • Sustaining two complex tasks becomes harder
  • Focusing on relevant info becomes more difficult
  • Ability to combine pieces of visual info into a pattern declines with age
  • Compensation – allow more time for processing
  • Memory skills used daily decline less
  • General, procedural & occupational
    knowledge unchanged or increase
  • Great increase in cognitive competence
    in midlife – apply vast knowledge and life
    experience to problem solving
156
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

Decreases over time
* Working memory (e.g., planning,
organising, flexible thinking)
* Episodic (“did I take my medication?”)
* Source (“which doctor told me about my treatment?”)

157
Q

Crystalised intelligence

A

Stability over time
* Semantic (words, facts & concepts)
* Procedural learning without conscious effort (I can ride a bike)

158
Q

Why does memory decline in late adulthood? - Biological hypothesis

A
  • Decline in neuron density of frontal cortex & hippocampus
  • Vulnerable to injury as blood pressure rises
  • Extensive loss of nerve cells in hippocampus early sign of Alzheimer’s disease
159
Q

Dementia

A
  • On the rise, though not an inevitable part of ageing
  • A set of progressive disorders marked by global disturbance of higher
    cognitive function
  • A syndrome and umbrella term that other illnesses fall under
  • E.g., Alzheimer’s Disease & cerebrovascular dementia
  • Half of dementia cases are related to Alzheimer’s disease (AD)
  • AD associated with brain damage and loss of neurons critical for memory
160
Q

Cerebrovascular dementia

A
  • Strokes leave dead brain cells & can lead to dementia
  • Risk of stroke increased via:
    – Indirect genetic factors: Blood pressure, CVD, diabetes
    – Indirect behavioral/psychological factors: E.g., substance use, stress, obesity, smoking, heavy alcohol use
  • Men at higher risk
161
Q

Signs of stroke

A
  • Weakness, numbness in arm, leg or face
  • Sudden vision loss or double vision
  • Speech difficulty & severe dizziness, imbalance
  • Important to pick up signs early and treat swiftly
162
Q

Sporadic AD

A

*No obvious family history
*Later onset (over 65)
*But heredity may play role through somatic mutation (e.g., abnormal gene on chromosome 19)

163
Q

Familial AD

A

Early onset
More rapid progress
*linked to genes on chromosomes 1, 14 and 21

164
Q

Symptoms of alzheimer’s

A

Memory Problems:
Recent memory problems first
Severe memory problems

Communication Issues:
Problems with speaking, reading, and understanding
Judgment:
Poor judgment

Disorientation:
Disorientation to time and place

Personality Changes:
Changes in personality

Sleep Disturbances:
Sleep disturbances

Mood:
Depression

Motor Skills:
Deterioration of skilled and purposeful movements

165
Q

Mild cognitive impairment

A
  • Transitional state between cognitive
    changes of normal ageing & dementia
  • Some memory loss
  • Still maintain daily functioning
  • Mild cog impairment = higher risk of dementia
  • Differentiate via Mini-mental state exam (MSE)
166
Q

Alzheimer’s: Brain deterioration

A
  • Neuron death
  • Inside neurons
  • Neurofibrillary tangles
  • Outside neurons
  • Plaques
  • Chemical changes
  • E.g., Serotonin (50-75%) drop may contribute to sleep
    disturbances and depression
167
Q

Alzheimer’s: Risk & protective factors

A

Risk factors
* High blood pressure
* Obesity & diabetes
* Smoking
* Depression & chronic stress
* Head trauma

Protective factors
* High education (more synaptic connections  cognitive reserve
* Physical activity & active lifestyle
* Some evidence about diet (e.g. Fish oils, coffee)
* HRT & Anti-inflammatory drugs (aspirin)

168
Q

*Memory & Music project

A
  • Reductions in depression & anxiety
  • Increased activity
  • ‘Bus stop’ programme
  • Addresses wandering
  • Virtual Reality for dementia care
  • Nursing homes that resemble familiar environments
  • ’Reminiscence therapy’
    Supporting patients with dementia
169
Q

Preventing memory loss

A
  • Healthy lifestyle
  • Exercise & good diet
  • Limit alcohol
  • Stress management
  • Improve self–efficacy/address stereotypes
  • Social engagement
  • Stay mentally active
  • Years of education
  • Learn a new language
  • Learn a new instrument
  • Short mental workouts