Cognitive-affective bases of behavior Flashcards

1
Q

_____________ deals with the observation that two individuals confronted with the same
stimulus presentation may come to different conclusions, that is, they may not
agree as to whether a simple stimulus was present. Disagreement may occur due
to differences in discriminability or response bias

A

Signal detection theory

process interpreting physical sensations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

___________ of the stimulus is described by the mathematical function of separation/
spread, with separation representing signal strength and spread representing the
background noise present during the stimulus presentation.

A

Discriminability

d′

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Response bias is a function of where the criterion for stimulus detection is set. The criterion can be set low to avoid _________ at a more
liberal threshold, or the criterion can be set high to avoid ____________ at a more
conservative threshold

A

False negatives; false positives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____________ is the branch of psychology that deals with the detection and interpretation
of sensory stimuli.

A

Perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

__________ means that a perceived stimulus will undergo successive elaboration. For a
visual stimulus this means edge and orientation processing at early stages, the detection of features such as corners or curves or shapes at middle stages, and the identification of an object from a memory store at a later stage.

A

Hierarchical Processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ means that there is a separate central nervous system unit for processing each
visual feature (i.e., shape, color, and motion). Integration occurs by the simultaneous activity of processing units gaining access to each other’s contents (parallel and distributed processing).
A

Functional Segregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_______________ defined as the cognitive process by which a unified internal representation of a
stimulus is formed from the activity of multiple mental modules. FB requires greater attentional resources than single feature processing, is
more likely to rely on the activity of the frontal and parietal cortex, and is supported
by cholinergic activity.

A

Feature Binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____________ (Bayesian
approaches) has been used to understand sensory/perceptual processes (Brainard,
2009; Simoncelli, 2009). By applying optimal estimation theory (also known as
statistical decision theory) to a simple example, such as color recognition, we can
outline its basic principles and extrapolate to a more complex process such as
objection recognition.

A

optimal estimation theory

more recent than signal detection theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Given several possible interpretations of a visual scene, the visual system selects the most probable interpretation a priori (Brainard et al., 2006),
or, put another way, the actual image data are combined with prior assumptions
(Brainard, 2009).

A

this is what is meant by Bayesian approaches, such as how we know the color of an object doesn’t change even though the lighting / environment may change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cocktail party effect

A

The term attention can
also mean a process occurring during alert states by which a stimulus can either
be attended to or ignored. (Selective attention).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

___________ is a neuropsychological test often used to assess attention. Formulated by Michael Posner,[1] the task assesses an individual’s ability to perform an attentional shift. It has been used and modified to assess disorders, focal brain injury, and the effects of both on spatial attention.

A

The Posner cueing task, also known as the Posner paradigm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the classic demonstration of a______________________, individuals who are actively tracking an aspect of a sports event fail to notice a person in a gorilla suit walking
directly through the game—clearly, attention cannot be directed everywhere.

A

Attentional blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when attentional resources are taxed through
increased processing load, or by dividing them between two tasks, performance
______ are observed; however, those resources can be increased through
practice (Treisman, 2009).

A

decrements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

______ the more similar tasks are, the more they
compete
for limited attentional resources. Similar tasks tend to share the same
sensory/
perceptual modality.

A

Structural Interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

___________________there is a general limit to the extent of attentional resources.
Evidence for this limit can be found even when attention is divided between
two noninterfering (i.e., different modalities) tasks and performance decrements
occur. These decrements are less than those occurring with high structural interference,
but they are still meaningful enough to indicate a drain on a general
attentional resource that is occurring.

A

General Interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

______—the unity of our actions places limits on attentional

resources in preparing responses.

A

Behavioral coherence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_________ is an example of
attention to objects (i.e., word identity) taking precedence over attention to attributes
(i.e., the color of ink the word is printed in)

A

The Stroop Effect (Stroop, 1935)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

________ helps to explain the push–pull relationship of the facilitative and inhibitory
mechanisms at work (Pinsk, Doninger, & Kastner, 2004). The theory posits the
degree to which an ignored stimulus is processed depends on the extent of processing
required by the attended stimulus. According to ____________, reduction of interference caused by distractors is greatest when the processing
demands to the attended stimulus are highest.

A

Attentional load theory (Lavie &

Tsal, 1994)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Attention can be “captured” in a stimulus-driven fashion, referred to as _______
mechanisms or reflexive attention, or in a strategic fashion, referred to as _______
mechanisms (Treisman, 2009).

A

bottom-up (odor of smoke, name said across a room); Gestalt
principles of perceptual organization (i.e., similarity, proximity, and common fate)
are part of bottom-up attentional influences (Kastner et al., 2009)

top-down (Anne Treisman’s conjunction search paradigm (Treisman & Gelade,
1980); find the O in red ink); lateral parietal and frontal
lobes; Top-down attentional
control helps to resolve competition between stimuli by introducing bias toward one stimulus over another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Latent variable analysis suggests that _______ is a critical component of EFs, as there is a near perfect correlation of WM and non-WM executive
functioning tasks, leading some experts to refer to a unitary underlying construct
of executive attention

A

Working memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

“_____” EFs are thought to involve cognitive functions, whereas “___” EFs involve social and affective processing.

A

Cold; Hot; EFs are the only neuropsych tested constructs that relate to personality. (e.g., frontal lobe injury, HM).

Wisconsin Card Sort Test (set establishment and maintenance), the Stroop Color Word Test (attentional control), and the Controlled Oral Word Association Test
(verbal fluency).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

______ viewed intelligence tests as probing the limited range of linguistic, logical, mathematical,
and spatial abilities, and so expanded to a theory of multiple intelligences to incorporate musical, bodily-kinesthetic, naturalistic, interpersonal and
intrapersonal abilities

A

Gardner

(compared to Stanford-Binet, Weschler, etc).
(Weschler: Intelligence is the aggregate or global capacity of the individual to act
purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_________ theory, from the bottom up are: (1) regulation of cortical
arousal and attention; (2) receiving, processing, and retention of information; and
(3) programming, regulation, and verification of behavior.

A

Luria’s (1980) theory of intelligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

________ theorized that each mental ability represented by a mental test
was influenced by a general factor and a specific factor, which he designated as
lower case g and s

A

Spearman (same guy as ranked correlation -1 - +1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cattell (1941) proposed that g was actually composed of _______ (Gf) and _______ (Gc) ability.
Gf was described as a facility for reasoning and adapting to new situations.
Gc was described as accessible stores of knowledge.

A
General Fluid (decreases with age);
General Crystallized (stays same with age; increases with age, correlates with SES / education).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The _________ model is often referred
to as Cattell–Horn–Carroll (CHC) theory, and most, but not all, contemporary
intelligence tests are based on it (Schneider & McGrew, 2012).

A

three-stratum model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

_________ refers to the value of an assessment in selecting and implementing interventions and treatments that will benefit the
examinee.

A

Treatment validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

African Americans differ from Caucasians by about ____ standard deviation, with Caucasians obtaining the higher scores, a finding that has
been relatively consistent across time and assessment methods but is a difference
that diminishes to a ____ standard deviation when socioeconomic status is accounted for (Reynolds & Ramsay, 2003).

A

1; 0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Sternberg (2003) has demonstrated in __________ that measures of practical and creative
ability contribute significantly to predicting first-year undergraduate grade
point average (GPA) above and beyond Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) scores.
Relative to ethnic differences in SAT and GPA, the ________ practical and
creative ability measures reduced ethnic difference gaps, particularly for Hispanic
Americans.

A

Project Rainbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The dominant learning theory of the early 20th century was based on the work of ________ (1898), in the United States, and independently, _______ (1927),
in Russia. Their findings were known as related forms of conditioning and became
the cornerstone of behaviorism.

A

Thorndike and Pavlov

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Classical / Pavlovian conditioning

A

US: meat powder; UR: drooling
CS: metronome; CR: drooling to metronome

Goal: I want to get the dog to drool when they hear the metronome, something the dog doesn’t usually drool to.

CS/US > UR until conditioning has occurred, when the UR takes place as soon
as the CS appears and the US is not needed any more, and the paradigm becomes
simply CS > CR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Little Albert

A

Watson conditioned him to be scared of white rabbits in few trials. The fear generalized (stimulus generalization) to other white objects. Things like anxieties can develop from generalizing responses to stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Operant Conditioning

A

Thorndike noticed the principles of operant conditioning by noticing bxs were repeated only if they were rewarded.

CS > CR/US > UR. The paradigm is read as: a stimulus that precedes a
behavior that leads to a “satisfying state of affairs” will tend to be repeated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If the reinforcer follows every instance of the CS, it is called ___________, or CRF. CRF is the fastest way to learn, but, because it requires
so many reinforcers, it is not efficient.

A

continuous reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If the schedule does not vary in proportion, say, consistently every fifth press is
rewarded, it is called _________

A

Fixed Ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If the presses that are rewarded are randomly spaced, it is _________.

A

Variable Ratio;

Both ratio
schedules produce high rates of output. That is, they follow the rule that the more
the work, the more the reward, or to maximize rewards, one maximizes output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

_____________ means

that the first press after a set interval is rewarded.

A

Fixed Interval;

An FI schedule leads to
intermittent behavior that, when graphed, looks scalloped because responses right
after the reward are never rewarded, and as a result, responses stop for a time.
After a while, the responses start again slowly, reaching a high rate just before the
end of the interval. Responses are never rewarded at the beginning of an interval,
but are always rewarded at the end, so responses stop at the beginning, and
become rapid at the end. Responses stop again for a bit, and the cycle continues.
Work on term papers nicely illustrates this schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Intervals between reinforcements can be of
unpredictable length. This is called ____________, and a very steady response
rate is produced, but of only medium speed. Again, this rate maximizes reinforcement,
while minimizing work.

A

Variable Ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ebbinghaus (1885), the
method with himself as subject involved memorizing nonsense syllables to see
where the errors occurred. One approach presented a list in order over and over
until there were no mistakes. It was called the ____________________ because after
each syllable Ebbinghaus would try to anticipate the next syllable.

A

anticipation method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

______ and _______
effects referred to the first and last syllables being the easiest to remember,
respectively.

A

primacy; recency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

These and other studies showed that the concept of reinforcement had to be expanded to
include cognitive and social reinforcements. Similarly, a number of human behaviors,
such as solving puzzles; observing art; and expressing emotion in art, dance,
or music, also call for expanded reinforcement concepts.

A

Examples include Harlow’s monkeys (pressing levers more or less to see certain stimuli), Tolman with rats in maze with no food reward vs. food reward at end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Rather than learning rote responses,
human subjects may be learning the relationship between the two stimuli, resulting
in wide flexibility rather than rigid reflexes.

A

Rescorla, reinterpretting Pavlov’s work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

_______ involves learning through observation of the consequences of actions for other people. When a learner observes someone they identify with and the role model receives reinforcement, the learner is motivated to imitate the behaviour as if they had been reinforced themselves.

A

Vicarious reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The “modal model”
of information processing originated with Waugh and Norman (1965) and was
expanded by Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968). It was composed of three levels:

A

sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

________ involves
chopping the flow into memories to compare to others in processing their meaning; it’s based on retaining visual images and auditory inputs for
just milliseconds. In turn, these residual images can be used by the visual system.

A

Sensory memory

46
Q

_________ represents storage of information that can
be retained only for a brief time, and in limited amounts. “One is always very conscious
of information in _______” (Springer & Deutsch, 1998).

A

Short-term memory (STM)

47
Q

It represents the material we are

thinking about at a given moment, and has come to be called____________

A

Working Memory

48
Q

________ refers to all the information that has been learned, but is not needed at the moment. It represents a relatively permanent memory
bank. It is a vast library of information and comes in two main categories, declarative
and nondeclarative.

A

Long Term Memory

49
Q

__________ (part of explicit memory, concious) is composed of things one knows

(explicit) and can access, and, according to the analysis of Squire (1992), it has two
divisions: semantic and episodic

A

Declarative memory

50
Q

Memories of things that have happened to you.
Prroposed by Tulving (1972) and is autobiographic memory.
Everyday experiences are recorded here and are connected to other events of
the day. These memories are essentially stored automatically

A

Episodic Memory

51
Q

_______ refers to knowledge of the world
such as facts, meanings, concepts, and rules of culture. These are often learned in
school, and as we all know, may require hard work to store.

A

Semantic Memory

52
Q

___________ consists of items the person is unaware of knowing (implicit), yet can still demonstrate knowledge of.

A

Non-declarative memory (implicit memory, unconscious)

53
Q

________ means presenting similar words or word parts previous to a test, which will reduce the
time to identify a word fragment. It may be a form of cuing, in that both techniques
involve activating associated brain areas, so that search there becomes
faster and more efficient. It is an implicit characteristic when one is not aware of

A

priming

54
Q

Greenwald and Leavitt (1984) worked out
a theory of four levels of processing in perceiving stimuli, which they labeled
as follows:

A

Presensory (the catching-attention phase),
Focal Attention (the paying-attention phase), Comprehension (the understanding phase),
Elaboration (making-connections and storing phase).

55
Q

Craik and Lockhart (1972),
who had proposed that rather than discrete memory stores, memory was a function
of ___________. The deeper the level of processing, the better
the recall would be.

A

cognitive level of processing

56
Q

Affect picks up the stimulus
as a source of _________, and the cognitive system then analyzes it to find out why
(Zajonc, 1980, 2000).

A

Cognitive

57
Q

___________ was the first psychologist to propose a theory of emotional
experience. His theory postulated that changes in physiological sensation are the
primary elements of emotional experience (James, 1884)

A

William James

58
Q

the ________theory models emotion as the psychological response to the changes in
the physical systems of the body after the presentation of a stimulus.

A

James–Lange

59
Q

The ________ theory proposes that the physiological responses associated
with emotion are a consequence of experiencing emotion, not a necessary
precursor.

A

Cannon–Bard

60
Q
  1. The individual observes a threatening bear in the woods.
  2. The individual runs away and has increased autonomic activity (increased heart
    rate, increased respiration, etc.).
  3. The individual observes his increased autonomic activity and that he is running
    away from the bear.
  4. The individual concludes that he is experiencing fear.
A

James-Lange

61
Q
  1. The individual observes a threatening bear in the woods.
  2. The individual processes the sensory information and recognizes a threatening
    situation.
  3. The individual experiences fear.
  4. The individual begins to experience physiological changes, such as autonomic
    arousal and an urge to flee.
A

Cannon-Bard

62
Q

Stimulus cortical -> processing thalamic -> processing behavior

A

Cannon-bard

63
Q

____________ concluded that individuals must cognitively appraise a situation in order to
determine their emotional states—they referred to this as the “two-factor” model
of emotion:
Autonomic arousal -> Cognitive interpretation -> Emotion

A

Schacter and Singer

64
Q

_______ has been the dominant model of emotion since the 1960s

A

cognitive appraisal

65
Q

_______________’s early work
identified two stages of appraisal. In primary appraisal, the valence and threat
of the stimulus are identified in a general sense (positive vs. negative; benign vs.
stressful). During secondary appraisal, the individual identifies the resources and
options that may be available to cope with the stimuli. Both processes combine
into the experience of a particular emotion.

A

Richard Lazarus

66
Q

_______ described a model of emotion that allowed for the experience of
affect without cognitive contribution. He challenged the idea that cognition is a
necessary component of emotional experience, though he did not conclude that
cognition never contributed to emotion.

A

Zajonc (1980)

67
Q

The central tenet behind the _________________________ is that decision making is influenced by
marker signals that arise from multiple levels of operation, both consciously and
unconsciously. Marker signals arise in bioregulatory processes (e.g., changes in
heart rate, blood pressure, and glandular secretion) and in emotions and feeling.

A

somatic marker hypothesis (SMH)

68
Q

_____________- often results in significant

changes in the ability to make decisions

A

ventromedial prefrontal cortex (VMPFC; Damasio)

69
Q

The main figure associated with the basic emotion model is ______________.
In 1971, he published an article
reporting the ubiquity of facial expressions related to emotion by studying facial
expressions across several cultures.
They identified six basic/primary emotions
as defined by these facial expressions

A

Paul Ekman;
happy, sad, surprised, disgusted, angry,
and afraid.

70
Q

________ models of emotion attempt to incorporate flexibility into a simple
model in an effort to provide a broader description of emotional experience.
They did not begin to be well described and researched until
_______________.

A

Dimensional;

Osgood, Suci, and Tannenbaum (1961)

71
Q

two dimensions of emotion—usually identified as _________, the pleasantness
of a stimulus, and _________, the autonomic arousal in response to a stimulus

A

valence and arousal

72
Q

The nucleus accumbens, a small cluster of neurons within the basal ganglia,
has been shown to be particularly important to the process of positive reinforcement
and reward and is often identified as the brain’s “___________________”

A

pleasure center

73
Q

Motivation is the internal force that pushes the individual toward action and is
generally considered to be composed of three components—____________________

A

arousal, direction,

and intensity

74
Q

A drive such as hunger is defined as a _______ drive—these are drives that are
biological and innate. Drives that are learned through experience, such as achieving
wealth, are ______ drives, as they are not innate and do not directly support
a biological need.

A

primary; secondary

75
Q

________ is among the most influential of motivational theorists who
described a drive theory; he believed that there are internal drives that motivate
behavior.

A

Clark Hull

76
Q

Work by Amsel and colleagues (Amsel & Roussel, 1952;
Amsel & Ward, 1965) demonstrated that frustration can _______ motivation more
than reward.

A

increase

77
Q
  1. Physiological—food, water, sleep, and sex
  2. Safety—shelter, employment, and health
  3. Love/belonging—friendship and family
  4. Esteem—self-esteem, achievement, and respect of others
  5. Self-actualization—morality and creativity
A

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

78
Q

_________ theory, which
postulates that motivation is governed by three considerations—achievement,
authority, and affiliation (McClelland, 1965). Achievement is the need to find a
sense of accomplishment through advancement and feedback. Authority is the
need to lead and to make an impact. Affiliation is the need to be liked and to
develop positive social interactions.

A

Need for Achievement

79
Q

___________, focuses on the idea that humans have “inherent growth tendencies” that lead to consistent effort (Deci &
Vansteenkiste, 2004). This theory centers on intrinsic motivation and consists of
three basic needs—competence, relatedness, and autonomy. Competence is the
need to develop mastery. Relatedness is the need to develop relationships with
others. Autonomy is the need to have control in one’s own life while maintaining
relationships with others.

A

self-determination theory (SDT)

80
Q

_________: when individuals behave in
a manner that is inconsistent with their values or beliefs, they will change their
beliefs to manage the psychological tension created by the mismatch

A

Cognitive Dissonance (Festinger)

81
Q

______________________relies
on three components—valence, expectancy, and instrumentality—to understand
behavioral motivation. Valence refers to how much one values a particular consequence
and will lead an individual to approach or avoid a behavior. Expectancy
is the belief that one possesses the resources to achieve a certain goal,
whereas instrumentality is the belief that completing a behavior will lead to
a predictable outcome.

A

Expectancy Theory; Victor Vroom

82
Q

_____________was the first psychologist to describe the importance of the interaction
of cognition and emotion in normal and abnormal functioning, particularly
in disorders like depression. In 1955, he established rational emotive behavior
therapy (REBT), which focused on how thoughts determine emotion

A

Albert Ellis

83
Q

________ expanded on the influence of cognition on emotion when he
developed cognitive therapy in 1967 with his seminal work, Depression: Clinical,
Experimental, and Theoretical Aspects.

A

Aaron Beck

84
Q

The theory of ____________ was developed
to explain research that found that animals exposed to inescapable pain will eventually
stop trying to avoid the pain, even when opportunities to escape were presented.

A

learned helplessness (Seligman & Maier, 1967)

85
Q

Weiner developed the concept of __________and globality/specificity,
stability/instability, and internality/externality (Weiner, 1986). Globality/specificity
refers to whether an individual interprets events as a general response or a
situation-specific response.

A

attributional style

86
Q

A ___________style is characterized by explanations of the causes of negative outcomes as being stable, global, and internal, and the causes of positive outcomes as being unstable, specific and external in nature.

A

pessimistic explanatory

87
Q

_______________ styles are characterized by explanations for negative outcomes as being due to unstable, specific and external causes, while positive outcomes are perceived as due to stable, global and internal causes.

A

optimistic explanatory

88
Q

_________ (Adams, 1965) was
among the first theories to apply cognitive/emotional interactions to these areas.
This theory indicates that individuals assess the rewards from their work. If they
feel under-rewarded or over-rewarded, they experience emotional distress and
attempt to rectify these feelings through changing either their evaluations of or
contributions to their work.

A

Equity theory

89
Q

___________ incorporated the fact that humans can plan for and form
expectations about the future and that these expectations can assist individuals in
reaching peak performance.

A

Goal-setting theory (Locke)

90
Q

_____ affect behavior in four ways:

  1. by directing attention
  2. by mobilizing efforts and resources for the task
  3. by encouraging persistence
  4. by facilitating the development of strategies to complete the goal
A

goals

91
Q

The observable effects of
anxiety on performance have been described with the ______________, which
indicates that there is an optimal level of anxiety that will lead to peak performance. If anxiety is too low or too high, performance will be
negatively affected.

A

Yerkes–Dodson law

92
Q

____________ postulates that increased anxiety associated with
performance under pressure leads the individual to exert conscious control over
a skill or activity that otherwise can be completed with automatic processing
(Masters, 1992). This conscious focus on the skill disrupts the normally smooth
automatic processing and leads to decrements in performance.

A

Conscious Processing Hypothesis (CPH)

93
Q

______, on the other hand, focuses on the effect anxiety has on the
cognitive resources available to the individual. PET predicts that increased stress
will reduce the capacity of WM, thereby increasing the difficulty of completing
the task for the individual (Eysenck & Calvo, 1992).

A

Processing Efficiency Theory (PET).

94
Q

______________
postulates that the impact of stress and emotions on performance can be understood
as a function of individual and group resources (Hobfoll, 1998). According
to this theory, an individual is primarily motivated to build and maintain
resources that will protect both the individual and the social system that supports
the individual.

A

Conservation of Resources (COR)

95
Q

_____________________(Sarason, 1984), which postulates that negative self-talk unrelated
to the task interferes with the individual’s ability to perform adequately by
drawing cognitive resources, such as attention, away from the task. This differs
from the more contemporary understanding of self-talk in that current research
tends to focus on self-talk related to the task.

A

Cognitive Interference Theory

96
Q

_______: a high
probability behavior is used to reinforce a low probability behavior. A therapist would be
using the Premack Principle to increase the amount of time a student spends studying when,
after learning that the student frequently watches television, she tells him he can watch TV
only after studying for at least one hour. In this situation, watching TV (a high probability
behavior) is being used to reinforce studying (a low probability behavior) to ftlcrease study
time. The Premack Principle is particularly useful when it’s difficult to identify a stimulus
that would act as a reinforcer for a particular individual.

A

Premack Principle: When using the Premack Principle (Premack, 1965)

97
Q

__________ combines positive reinforcement
with extinction and involves reinforcing alternative behaviors while ignoring the target
behavior. As an example, a child who engages in stereotyped hand movements (which are
self-reinforcing) might be reinforced with nickels or tokens for each two-minute period she
plays with available toys rather than engaging in the hand movements. In this situation,
playing with toys is being reinforced, while hand movements are being extinguished.

A

Differential reinforcement

98
Q

________ is illustrated by Foxx and Azrin’s ( 1972) treatment of a hospitalized woman
with severe retardation who constantly disrupted the ward by throwing objects and
overturning her bed. When the woman engaged in these behaviors, she was required to
straighten the entire room (restitution) and then to practice more desirable behaviors such as
making up all of the beds on the ward (positive practice).

A

Overcorrection

99
Q

_____________: Negative practice is essentially the opposite of the positive practice
component of overcorrection and involves requiring the individual to deliberately repeat the
undesirable behavior to the point that it becomes aversive to the individual or the individual
becomes fatigued. It’s especially useful for eliminating habits and other behaviors that the
individual would like to eliminate but has been unable to control such as nail biting, hair
twisting, pica, motor tics, stuttering, and smoking. As an example, when used to eliminate a
motor tic, the individual is instructed to .. practice”

A

Negative Practice

100
Q

___________ is an application of negative punishment and involves
removing a specific reinforcer each ll:me the target behavior is performed. Although response
cost is most commonly associated with token economies (in which token fines are imposed
for undesirable behavior), it can be used whenever the control of positive reinforcers is
possible.

A

Response cost

101
Q

______ involves removing all sources of positive
reinforcement for a brief, prespecified period of time following a behavior in order to decrease
that behavior.

A

Time-out

102
Q

• Cognit£ve Modeling: The client observes a model perform the task while the model
makes self-statements aloud. Self-statements include questions about the nature of the
task, answers to those questions, specific instructions on how to do the task, and
self-reinforcement.
• Cognitive Participant Modeling: The client performs the task as the model verbalizes
the instructions.
• Overt Self-Instruction: The client performs the task while instructing him- or herself
aloud.
• Fading Overt Self-Instruction: The client whispers the instructions while carrying out
the task.
• Covert Self-Instruction: The client performs the task while saying the instructions
covertly.

A

Self-instructional Therapy

103
Q

• Self-Monftortng: Depressed people selectively attend to negative events and to the
immediate (versus delayed) consequences of their behavior.
• Self-Evaluation: People who are depressed make inaccurate internal attributions and
compare their behavior to standards that are excessively rigid and perfectionistlc.
• Self- Refnjorcement: Depressed individuals engage in low rates of self-reward and high
rates of self-punishment.

A

Rehm’s self-control therapy

104
Q

_______attributes depression to a low rate of
response-contingent reinforcement due to inadequate reinforcing stimuli in the environment
and/or the lndivtduars lack of sklllin obta1ning reinforcement.

A

Lewinsohn’s (1974) behavioral model

105
Q

describes memory as consisting of three components - sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory.

A

information-processing model

Atkinson & Shtffrtn, 1968

106
Q

____________, which
involves relating new information to existing information, than with maintenance
rehearsal, which involves simply repeating the information with little or no processing.

A

elaborative rehearsal

107
Q

_____________ as another component of L TM that is responsible for the capacity to remember to do things in the future (i.e., to “remember to
remember”).

A

prospective memory

108
Q

___________ of working memory consists of a central executive and
three subsystems - the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the episodic
buffer.

A

multi-component model of WM (Baddeley).

109
Q

According to this view, forgetting results when cues needed to
retrieve information from long-term memory are insufficient or incomplete. The
tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is believed to be due to inadequate retrieval cues.

A

Cue-dependent forgetting

110
Q

satiation

A

reinforcer losing its value d/t overuse

111
Q

thinning

A

moving from continuous reinforcement to intermittent reinforcement

112
Q

behavioral contrast

A

cleaning and raking the yard both earn allowance. Dad stops giving allowance for raking but keeps giving allowance for cleaning. What will happen?
Cleaning bx with increase and raking will decrease.