CNS Tumors Flashcards

1
Q

Pilocytic Astrocytoma

A

Most common childhood (sometimes young adults)
Cerebellum, optic pathway, hypothamlus, thalamus, spinal cord, temporal lobe
Demarcated boundaries, easier to resect
Bipolar neoplastic cells
Astrocytoma: BRAF: K1AA fusion

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2
Q

BRAF: K1AA

A

BRAF:MAPK in ras/ raf pathway (almost no mitotic activity)
Plays a role in proliferation, cell survival, differentiation, apoptosis
Understanding these genetics helps us give target rx when surgery is not an option

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3
Q

Diffuse Astrocytoma

A
Adult (30-40)
Grade 2
Cerebral hemisphere (rarely post. Fossa)
Cannot tell where the tumor starts and stops- HARD TO RESECT
Whole brain disease
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4
Q

Anaplastic Astrocytoma

A

dult (45)
Grade 3
Cerebral Hemispheres
IDH1 mutation (+no LOH 1p/19q +p53/ATRX mutation) important in metabolic pathway. When mutated, starts using onco-metbolite

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5
Q

Oligodendroglioma

A

Adult (42)
Grade 2
May show up as calcified
May infiltrate gray matter, may present w/ sz

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6
Q

Anaplastic Oligodendroglioma

A

Adult (48)

WHO Grade 3

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7
Q

Glioblastoma

A
Adult (1o= 62, 2o= 45)
Grade 4
Usually involves cerebellar hemispheres 
Hemorrhagic, granular appearance 
Primary GBM: symptoms less than 4 months
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8
Q

Ependymoma

A

Younger: 0-20
Occurs near ependymal cells most of the time
4th ventricle, presents with hydrocephalus (peds)
Adults get these in the spinal cord

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9
Q

Medullobastoma

A
Most common malignant brain tumor 3-8 yo
Grade 4
~50% survival rate 
Chromo 17 deletion
These can spread through CSF pathways 
Homer wright rosettes 
(Always starts in cerebellum maybe?)
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10
Q

Perkingie Cells

A
class of GABAergic neurons located in the cerebellum. They are named after their discoverer
Sonic hedgehog signal there migration
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11
Q

Meningioma

A

RARE in childhood, women in 50s
Grade 1
Arise from memngies/dura

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12
Q

Schwannoma

A

Slow growing
Rarely maligenet transformation
CN 8 and spinal nerve roots

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13
Q

include tumors with low proliferative potential and possibility of cure following surgical resection alone.

A

Grade I lesions

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14
Q

lesions are generally infiltrative in nature, and, despite low level proliferative (ie., mitotic) activity, often recur

progress to a higher grade of malignancy

A

Grade II lesions

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15
Q

Grade II lesions Rx

A

II tumors may either be treated with watchful waiting (ie., close- interval neuroimaging scans to detect upgrading) or external beam cranial irradiation, depending on location, clinical features, type and size of lesion.

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16
Q

tumor is a designation generally reserved for lesions with histological evidence of malignancy, including nuclear atypia and brisk mitotic activity.

A

Grade III

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17
Q

Grade III Rx

A

In most settings, patients with Grade III tumors receive adjuvant radiation and/or chemotherapy

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18
Q

tumor is assigned to cytologically malignant, mitotically active, necrosis-prone neoplasms often associated with rapid pre- and post-operative disease evolution and fatal outcome.

Common examples include glioblastoma and medulloblastoma.

A

Grade IV neoplasms

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19
Q

these tumors appear demarcated from surrounding brain and often contain a cystic component

A

Pilocytic Astrocytoma

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20
Q

the tumor is often cystic and may present with a cyst and mural nodule configuration. It is generally fairly well demarcated and is even more likely to be calcified

A

Ganglioglioma

WHO Grade 1

21
Q

This tumor is almost always identified in intraventricular locations and can closely mimic the morphological features of normal choroid plexus, except that the fronds or “papillary formations” are more abundant, and the choroid plexus-like cells covering the fronds more crowded and numerous.

A

choroid plexus papilloma

22
Q

arise in white matter of the cerebral hemisphere predominantly in patients in their 3rd to 5th decade.

boundaries are often impossible to define radiographically, surgically, grossly and microscopically, they can rarely be totally excised.

A

Diffuse astrocytomas

23
Q

often associated with Rosenthal fibers, an eosinophilic accumulation of intracytoplasmic glial filaments.

A

Pilocytic Astrocytoma

24
Q

_________, WHO grade II, is characterized by mild hypercellularity compared to normal brain, mild nuclear pleomorphism, irregular distribution of tumor astrocytes, slight variation from one cell to the next in nuclear features and cytoplasmic content and an absence of necrosis, mitotic activity, or microvascular proliferation.

A

Diffuse astrocytoma

25
Q

originate in cerebral hemispheric white matter, they quickly infiltrate the overlying cortex and present clinically as seizures due to cortical involvement.

A

oligodendroglioma

26
Q

______________ is composed of cells with round monotonous nuclei that are roughly equally spaced from each other; cells contain little or no visible cytoplasm on H&E and thus manifest a diagnostically-helpful feature of tumor cells with a “fried egg” appearance.

A

oligodendroglioma

27
Q

Activation of the gene for B-Raf is a common finding in__________

A

pilocytic astrocytomas

28
Q

This tumor may have mutation in BRAF V600E gene; this allows the possibility of targeted drug therapy in mutated cases.

A

Ganglioglioma

WHO Grade 1

29
Q

Both tumors possess mutations in IDH1 or less commonly, IDH2

A

diffuse astrocytomas and oligodendrogliomas

30
Q

This tumor arises from ependymal cells which line the ventricle and most, but not all, are found in intraventricular locations.

A

ependymomas

31
Q

___________ is diagnosed by histological tissue criteria although usually these tumors lack enhancement or necrosis on preoperative neuroimaging studies.

By definition, it DOES NOT show histological features of necrosis or microvascular proliferation

A

Anaplastic astrocytoma

32
Q

_____________ is diagnosed by histological tissue criteria although usually these tumors DO show enhancement on preoperative neuroimaging studies

A

Anaplastic oligodendroglioma

33
Q

___________ are commonly calcified tumors that typically protrude upward from the floor of the 4th ventricle as exophytic masses. When they occur in the spinal cord they are usually fairly well demarcated from cord and total or near total excision may be possible

A

Ependymomas

34
Q

Often microvascular proliferation is present histologically, which corresponds to the “enhancement” seen on preoperative neuroimaging studies after administration of contrast dye (gadolinium). If this feature were present in a pure astrocytoma, that would be sufficient to UPGRADE THE LESION, often to ______________; in contrast, in oligodendroglial lineage tumors this histological feature is “allowed” and still compatible with WHO grade III.

A

WHO grade IV glioblastoma

35
Q

As with ALL WHO grade III tumors, there is significantly MORE___________ than with WHO grade II oligodendrogliomas.

A

mitotic activity and a higher MIB-1 labeling index

36
Q

more mitotically-active ependymoma than WHO grade II, usually is seen in childhood examples involving the 4th ventricle, and not in adult examples involving the spinal cord

A

anaplastic ependymoma

37
Q

This is the most common of all gliomas and is also unfortunately the most malignant.

peak incidence for primary GBM is in the 5th to 6th decades

prognosis for these patients remains dismal with median survivals of less than 1 year

A

glioblastoma

38
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for GBM?

A
nuclear abnormalities (nuclear atypia, hyperchromatism, variation in nuclear size and shape)
mitotic activity microvascular proliferation necrosis.
39
Q

Why can’t we cure GBMs?

A

these tumors are infiltrative, heterogeneous, evolve over time in response to the therapies directed at them, and occur in an eloquent organ that doesn’t allow indiscriminate removal of the tumor without severely neurologically impairing the patient. Different cells express different markers.

40
Q

is a malignant embryonal tumor of the cerebellum that usually occurs in children and tends to spread (metastasize) throughout the cerebrospinal fluid pathways.

A

Medulloblastoma

41
Q

A number of molecular abnormalities have been characterized in medulloblastoma, several of which:

A

involve the sonic hedgehog (Shh) signaling pathway

42
Q

__________s common among intracranial neoplasms, and the vast majority are WHO grade I. The peak incidence is among women in their 50s.

A

Meningioma

43
Q

these peripheral or cranial nerve sheath tumors are mostly benign, though a very small percent may degenerate into a malignant form known as a neurofibrosarcoma.

A

Schwannomas

44
Q

__________ is an autosomal dominant disorder associated with intra- and extracranial Schwann cell tumors. Optic gliomas, astrocytomas, and meningiomas also occur at higher frequency in NF1.

The NF1 gene encodes a protein, neurofibromin that serves to inhibit RAS.

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

45
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2) is characterized most commonly by bilateral vestibular schwannomas and multiple meningiomas. The NF2 gene product, merlin, is believed to regulate

A

cell surface receptor signaling.

46
Q

__________ is an autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutation in the TSC1 and TSC2 genes. Their protein products, respectively known as hamartin and tuberin, form a complex that inhibits the kinase mTOR, a regulator of cell size/ growth.

characterized by hamartomas and benign neoplasms of the brain and other tissues, including the sub-ependymal giant cell astrocytoma.

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

47
Q

The five most common primary sites to metastasize to the CNS are:

A

lung, breast, melanoma, kidney, and GI tract.

48
Q

Summary Statement of Age/Rx

A
Kids= grade 1 cut it out
23-30= grade 2 biopsy/rad
30-40= grade 3 chemo/rad
50+= grade 4 every gun you got