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PHGY209 > CNS > Flashcards

CNS Flashcards

1
Q

what types of cells allow for sensory input?

A

afferent cells

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2
Q

what are efferent cells?

A

motor cells found in the CNS

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3
Q

what cells innervate skeletal muscles and can only be excited by acetylcholine?

A

somatic efferent cells

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4
Q

what cells innervates interneurons, are found in smooth and cardiac muscles and can be both excitatory or inhibitory?

A

autonomic efferent cells

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5
Q

what does the cranial nerve innervate?

A

neck
shoulders
arms
hands

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6
Q

how many cranial nerves do we have?

A

8 pairs

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7
Q

what do the thoracic nerves innervate?

A

shoulders
chest
upper abdominal wall

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8
Q

what do the lumbar nerves innervate?

A

lower abdominal wall
hips
legs

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9
Q

what does the sacral nerve innervate?

A

genitals

lower digestive track

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10
Q

how is the nervous system developped? (stages)

A
  1. fertilized egg
  2. ball of cell
  3. blastocyte week 1 begin to see a inner cell mass
  4. blastocyte week 2
  5. blastocyte week 3 formation of embryonic disk, neural plate
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11
Q

at what stage does the neural tube begin to develop?

A

week 3

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12
Q

explain the stages of neural tube development

A
  1. at week 3 the neural plate begins to form, separated as the ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
  2. midway through week 3 the ectoderm folds in creating a neural groove
  3. week 4 the neural groove is now the neural tube(CNS and part of PNS), the neural crest is a part of PNS, mesoderm becomes dura
  4. during week 4 vesicles begin to develop
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13
Q

what are the neural tube vesicles that develop?

A

forebrain
midbrain
hindbrain

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14
Q

what part of the CNS does the forebrain transition into?

A

-central hemisphere and thalamas

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15
Q

what part of the CNS does the midbrain transition into?

A

midbrain

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16
Q

what part of the CNS does the hindbrain transition into?

A

PONS
medulla
cerebellum

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17
Q

what does the neural tube become in the CNS?

A

the spinal chord

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18
Q

what does the neural tube cavity become in the CNS?

A

the ventricles and central canal

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19
Q

what do the ventricles contain?

A

150 ml of CSF

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20
Q

what produces the CNF?

A

choroid plexus

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21
Q

which ventricles mostly produce the CNF?

A

2 lateral ventricles

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22
Q

what are the 3 main fcts of the CNF?

A

supports and cushions the CNS
nourishment to the brain
absorbs metabolic waste

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23
Q

what absorbs the metabolic waste?

A

arachnoid villi

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24
Q

what is the CNF composition?

A

its a sterile, colorless fluid that contains glucose

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25
Q

how does the CNF circulate through the brain?

A

through passive diffusion

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26
Q

what space does the CSF enter?

A

subarachnoid space

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27
Q

what are the 2 types of hydrocephalus?

A

communicating

non communicating

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28
Q

what is hydrocephalus?

A

accumulation of CSF in one ventricle

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29
Q

what are the 3 meningeal layer

A

dura mater
arachnoid membrane
pia matter

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30
Q

what is the space between arachnoid matter and pia matter

A

subarachnoid space

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31
Q

what do meninges cover?

A

cover the brain and spinal cord

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32
Q

how does the CSF return to the blood

A

at the dural sinus

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33
Q

what is the only substrate used to metabolize in the brain?

A

glucose

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34
Q

is their alot of glycogen in the brain?

A

no, glucose is not stored in the brain

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35
Q

what does the brain need a continuous supply of?

A

glucose and oxygen

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36
Q

is glucose transport to de brain dependent on insulin?

A

no

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37
Q

what can a few seconds of loss of blood supply to the brain cause?

A

loss of consciousness

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38
Q

what can a few minutes of loss of blood supply to the brain cause?

A

stoke

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39
Q

how does the blood travel to the brain

A

from the hear > common cartoid artery > vertebral a. > internal > external cartoid A.

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40
Q

what is the safety factor in the transport of blood to the brain

A

circle of willis

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41
Q

what Artery enables the blood to pass from vertebra and carotid A. into the circle of willis and into the brain?

A

basilar A.

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42
Q

briefly what is the blood brain barrier?

A

unless you are lipid soluble of can use active transport of glucose or AA, nothing can pass the blood into the brain

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43
Q

what structure fuses to form tight junctions with the capillary?

A

astrocytes

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44
Q

what is sensation?

A

its the awareness of sensory stimulation

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45
Q

what is perception?

A

the understanding of a sensation’s meaning.

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46
Q

is the energy of a sensory stimulus directly perceived?

A

no

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47
Q

what is the thing produced by the sensory stimulation that is perceivable?

A

only the neural activity is perceived

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48
Q

what law is being described
regardless of how the sensory receptor is activated, the sensation felt corresponds to that of which the receptor is specialized for

A

law of specific nerve energies

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49
Q

when you rub your eyes and see light, what is that an example of?

A

law of specific nerve energies

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50
Q

what law is being described

regardless of where in the brain you stimulate a sensory pathway, the sensation will always be felt at the sensory receptors location

A

law of projection

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51
Q

the somatic sensory cortex is electrically stimulated and causes for patients to percieve somatic sensations in their bodies, what is this an example of?

A

law of projection

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52
Q

the feeling of pain in “phantom leg” of amputees is an example of what?

A

law of projection

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53
Q

what is a modality?

A

a general class of a stimulus

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54
Q

what is the modality encoded by?

A

labeled-line code

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55
Q

what is labeled-line

A

the brain knows the modality and location of every sensory afferent

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56
Q

how do sensory receptors function?

A
  1. stimulus energy interacts with the receptor membrane
  2. transduction, involving activation of ions channels if Action Potential is sufficient
  3. information is sent to the brain (afferent)
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57
Q

do receptor cells accept all stimulus and respond to them all?

A

no, receptor cells are specific and require for the adequate stimulus in order to respond to it

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58
Q

what is the stimulus energy converted into?

A

afferent activity

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59
Q

what are the steps involved in the conversion of stimulus energy?

A

stimulus energy causes for the opening of ion channels (membrane depolarization)
threshold is reached= production of action potential
propagation of action potentials= release of neurotransmitters into the CNS

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60
Q

what happens if the stimulus energy is subthreshold?

A

the magnitude of receptor potential is low along with the frequency of the action potentials thus preventing the release of neurotransmitters

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61
Q

what is considered to be a weak stimulus?

A

a weak stimulus will cause for the receptor potential to be sufficiently big, and the frequency of action potentials to be sufficiently high to release minimum neurotransmitters

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62
Q

the strength of the stimulus energy determines what?

A

if transduction is activated or inhibited

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63
Q

what is a property of afferents that allow us to be sensitive to changes in sensory input?

A

adaptation

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64
Q

what type of stimulus changes are associated with rapidly adapting afferents?

A

fast stimulus changes

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65
Q

what type of adaptation will have some stimulus intensity and moderate stimulus changes?

A

slowly adapting

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66
Q

what happens in non adapting afferents?

A

the stimulus intensity is encoded and the changes are very slow

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67
Q

what is the receptor field?

A

the region in space that activates a sensory receptor or neuron

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68
Q

what part of the receptor filed is the most responsive?

A

the center is the strongest and as periphery is approached, weaker it becomes

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69
Q

what is produced when receptor fields overlap?

A

it produces a population code.

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70
Q

what is the relationship between stimulus acuity and receptor field size?

A

inversely proportional, hence small RF means high acuity and Large RF means low acuity

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71
Q

what is acuity?

A

the ability to differentiate a stimulus from another

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72
Q

what can sharpen sensory acuity?

A

lateral inhibition

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73
Q

with lateral inhibition, how does the perception of a stimulus differ?

A

much sharper perception over a smaller range

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74
Q

what mechanisms shape sensory information transmission to the CNS?

A

top-down

bottom-up

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75
Q

what is a top down mechanism?

A

the brain will send a signal down somewhere in the body

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76
Q

what is bottom up mechanism?

A

a peripheral organ or body part will send signal to the brain

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77
Q

is it possible for a signal to be inhibited before reaching CNS

A

yes, There are excitatory and inhibitory neurons, and some may be inhibited presynaptically

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78
Q

what do sensory neurons respond to?

A

respond selectively to stimulus modality (type)

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79
Q

if light changes color, what afferent is being stimulated?

A

visual

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80
Q

if sounds are getting louder what afferent is being stimulated?

A

auditory

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81
Q

are somatic sensations mediated exclusively by one type of receptor?

A

no, by several types of receptors

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82
Q

what type of receptor is involved in touch?

A

mechanoreceptors with specialized end organs

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83
Q

what is the function of the end organs on mechanoreceptors

A

allow for selective mechanical info to activate the nerve terminal

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84
Q

what composes the superficial layer of the nerve terminal?

A

meissner’s corpuscle

Merkel’s disk

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85
Q

what is the fluid filled structure that encloses the nerve terminal?

A

meissner’s corpuscle

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86
Q

what part of the nerve terminal is rapidly adapting and responds to light stroking and fluttering

A

meissner’s corpuscle

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87
Q

what are the small epithelial cells that surround the nerve terminal?

A

merkel’s disk

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88
Q

what part of the nerve terminal is stimulated by pressure and texture and is slowly adapting

A

merkel’s disk

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89
Q

what composes the deep layer of the nerve terminal?

A

pacinian corpuscle

ruffini endings

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90
Q

what are the large concentric capsules of connective tissue that surround the nerve terminal

A

pacinian corpuscle

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91
Q

how to pacinian corpusle respond?

A

they are rapidly adapting and respond to strong vivrations

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92
Q

what are the nerve endings that wrap around a spindle like structure?

A

ruffinini endings

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93
Q

how does ruffini endings respond to a stimulus?

A

they are responsible for the stretching and bending of the skin (takes the shape of the object)
will be slowly adapting

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94
Q

what is propriorecption?

A

muscle spindles provide a sense of static position and movement of limbs and bodu

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95
Q

what activates mechanoreceptors?

A

the stretching of the cytoskeletal strands

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96
Q

what happens when the cytoskeletal strands are stretched?

A

deformation of the nerve terminal
activation of action potentials
opening of ions channels via mechanical energy from the mechaoreceptors

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97
Q

how is temperture detected by the touch?

A

thermoreceptors contain ion channels that respond to different temperature ranges

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98
Q

what will activate cold afferents?

A

menthol

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99
Q

what temperature will be detected by cold afferents

A

0-35 degrees

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100
Q

what temperature will be detected by warm afferents

A

30-50 degrees

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101
Q

what can activate war afferents?

what type of sensation is obtained?

A

capsaicin and ethanol

will cause for a burning sensation

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102
Q

what will be activated by extreme temperatures?

A

pain receptors

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103
Q

what receptors are activated by pain?

A

nociceptors

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104
Q

what are nociceptors?

A

free nerve endings containing ion channels that open in response to intense mechanical deformation, excessive temperature or chemicals

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105
Q

what will activate visceral pain receptors?

A

inflammation

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106
Q

what afferent is highly modulated?

A

pain afferents

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107
Q

what may sensitize nociceptors?

A

chemicals

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108
Q

how is pain encoded?

A
  1. stimulus is percieved (cut by knife)
  2. activation of receptors
  3. substance P gets released
  4. pain is felt
  5. tissue is damaged, sensitization of surrounding nociceptors by injured tissue, afferent feedback onto mast cells
  6. dilation near blood vessels
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109
Q

what term is used to describe feeling pain?

A

hyperalgesia

110
Q

how is touch an proprioception received in the brain?

A

passes through dorsal root, ascends to medulla and goes up contralateral in to somatosensory cortex

111
Q

how is temperature and pain received by the brain?

A

passes through dorsall root and crosses contralateral where it asecends to somatosensorty cortex

112
Q

what part of the body has the highest acuity?

A

fingers

113
Q

relative to the somatosenory cortex, what does the somatotopic map look like?

A

laterally: head
center: arms
medially legs

114
Q

what causes for referred pain?

A

visceral and somatic pain afferents commonly synapse on the same neurons in the spinal cord

115
Q

what is referred pain?

A

pain that originated at one place (from one organ) but is felt on the skin region elsewhere

116
Q

what type of pathway regulates nociceptive information?

A

descending pathways

117
Q

describe the concept of descending pathways

A

pain will travel up to the midbrain and will descent into the spinal cord and inhibit pain by inhibiting afferents and secondary neurons

118
Q

what in analgesia?

A

inability to feel pain

119
Q

what are opitate neurotransmitters important for?

A

regulation of pain

120
Q

what is commonly used to regulate opitate neurotransmitters?

A

drugs such as morphine which will inhibit release of substance P in the spinal cord

121
Q

what parts of the eyes serve to refract light?

A

cornea and lens

122
Q

between the 2 refracting surfaces of the eye, which refracts more?

A

the cornea will refract more light

123
Q

what does the lens accomodate for?

A

changes in object location

124
Q

what are the muscles that control the shape of the lens?

A

ciliary muscles

125
Q

what is an other name for someone who is nearsighted?

A

myope

126
Q

what happens in nearsightedness?

A

the refraction occurs prior to the retina because the eye is too long

127
Q

what is farsighted?

A

someone who can not see well from close (hyperopic)

128
Q

what happens in farsightedness?

A

eye ball is too short and the image will be refracted behind the retina

129
Q

identify the following condition

the lens/cornea is not spherical

A

astigmatism

130
Q

identify the following condition

the lens gets stiff and is unable to accommodate for near vision

A

presbyopia

131
Q

what is cataract?

A

changes in lens color

132
Q

what part of the eye has the highest acuity, and is where the rods and cones are located?

A

fovea centralis

133
Q

where is the blind spot located?

A

optic disk

134
Q

what does light strike at the back of the eye?

A

retina

135
Q

when is a image said to be in focus?

A

when the light hits the retina, it will be perceived in focus

136
Q

what part of the eye allow for the eye to accommodate?

A

the shape of the lense will change

137
Q

in nearsightedness, where is the light refracted and why?

A

the light is refracted in front of the retina due to excessive bending

138
Q

why does the image end up behind the retina in farsightedness?

A

insufficient refraction

139
Q

where must light travel to?

A

the photoreceptors located at the back of the eye

140
Q

what must the rods and cones be close to and why?

A

close to the pigment epithelium in order to interact with it

141
Q

where does transduction occur

A

in the photoreceptors

142
Q

what is the function of ganglion cells?

A

they fire action potentials that go to the optic nerve

143
Q

what does light activate in phtotransduction?

A

it activates opsin molecules which change shape and desactivate

144
Q

when are there more G proteins? in light or in dark?

A

in the dark

145
Q

when are Na+ channels open?

A

in the dark (depolarizes)

146
Q

what happens when cGMP is converted to GMP

A

the Na channels closes (hyperpolarizes)

147
Q

what does the depolarization cause to be released in the dark?

A

neurotransmitters

148
Q

what happens when photons hit the chromophore?

A

induces conformation change of the opsin molecules
activates g protein cascade
conversion of cGMP into GMP which causes for sodium channels to close and stop the release of neurotransmitters

149
Q

what are some properties of rods

A 
-for night vision
higly sensitive to ligth
-rhodopsin
-high amplification
-slow response time
-more sensitive to scattered light
-low acuity
-no color
150
Q

what are some properties of cones

A
  • day vision
  • low sensity to light
  • lower amplification
  • less opsin
  • faster response
  • sensitive to bright intense light
  • high acuity
  • color vision
151
Q

how many opsions are found in codes?

A

3

152
Q

what is dark adaptation?

A

going from bright light to a dark environment

153
Q

what type of change occurs in dark adaptation?

A

in bright light rods are saturated and inactive while the cones are activated
in dark light, we have temporary blindness until the rhodopsin moelcules build up and put back together

154
Q

what is light adaptation?

A

from dark to light environment

155
Q

what type of change occurs in light adaptation

A

in dark the cones are inactive and the rods active, however when switching to light temporary blindness occurs until the cones take over, the rods go nuts do the bright light causing for a conformational change that will stop them from working

156
Q

what type of receptor fields are present in retinal ganglion cells?

A

center surround receptive fields

157
Q

what happens if bright light is flashed only at the center RF in light center, dark surround?

A

only the action potential is field

158
Q

what happens when bright light is flashed on the surrounding region in light center, dark surround?

A

inhibits the cell and no action potential is fired

159
Q

what happens if bright light is flashed only at the center RF in dark center, light surround?

A

inhibits the cell and no action potential is fired

160
Q

what happens if bright light is flashed only at the surround RF in dark center, light surround?

A

the action potential is field

161
Q

what happens when their is uniform light on the cell?

A

indeed, the amount of action potentials fired will cancel out and yield no net change

162
Q

what do retinal ganglions signal the difference of across their RFs?

A

the difference in light (contrast)

163
Q

what are photoreceptors sensitive to?

A

wavelength

164
Q

what are the 4 types of opsin molecules

A
  • blue cone
  • rods
  • green cones
  • red cones
165
Q

what is determined by the opsin molecule?

A

the chromatic sensitivity of the photoreceptor

166
Q

what is the component that varies between the cones, what stays constant?

A

the protein found within the cones will vary but the opsin stays the same

167
Q

how are the RFs of retinal ganglion cells for color?

A

color opponent RFs (center surround RF with color)

168
Q

what is being compared in center surround RF with color?

A

the color in the middle to that of the surround

169
Q

what gets encoded by the output of the retina?

A

relative values of brightness and color

170
Q

what are the 2 possible color sets?

A
  • red and green

- blue and yellow

171
Q

what is color blindness?

A

inability to see color due to the lack color sensitive pigments in the cone cells

172
Q

what type of information is carried by the optic nerve?

A

it carries information from one eye, including both visual fields

173
Q

what part of the eye is responsible for the inversion of the image?

A

the cornea

174
Q

what type of information is carried by the optic tract?

A

carries information from both eyes with contralateral receptor fields, hence the right visual fields will be received by the left optic tract and the right optic tract will receive information from the left visual fields

175
Q

what is the optic chiasm?

A

where the nerves from nasal fibers both eyes cross

176
Q

what fibers do not cross at the optic chiasm?

A

the fibers closer to the temporal side

177
Q

where is the visual cortex found?

A

occipital lobe

178
Q

how is the visual cortex generally viewed?

A

both eyes with contralateral visual fields

179
Q

what happens if there is lesion to the optic nerve?

A

loss of vision in the ipsilateral (same) eye

180
Q

what happens if there is lesion after the optic tract?

A

loss of vision in the contralateral fields
this means that if the lesion is on the right optic tract, then the vision of the left fields in both eyes is affected and vice versa.

181
Q

what happens if their is a vertical lesion of the optic chiasm?

A

bilateral loss the the temporal visual hemifields
thus
the right eye will lose its left visual field
the left eye will lose its right visual field

182
Q

what happens if there is lesion of the optic radiations

A

loss of vision in the contralateral fields
this means that if the lesion is on the right optic radiation, then the vision of the left fields in both eyes is affected and vice versa.

183
Q

relative to the eyes, what is the left and what is the right visual field

A

imagine you split eyes in 2, the right will always correspond to your left half hence contralateral relation

184
Q

how are the RF of the primary visual cortex?

A

small

185
Q

what types of images are perceived in the primary visual cortex?

A

simple image features such as line segments

186
Q

what does the temporal visual stream allow to recognized?

A

recognition of things (what)

187
Q

how are the RFs in the temporal visual stream?

A

large RF

188
Q

what does the parietal visual stream allow to recognize?

A

spatial features and sensitive to motion (where things are)

189
Q

how are the RFs of the visual parietal stream?

A

large RF

190
Q

what is perceived polymodal?

A

its a mix between visual and other sensory modalities which are combined which allows to put visual information together

191
Q

what is sound a result of?

A

pressure waves that are going around the head

192
Q

what happens when the particles of air get closer together?

A

pressure increases,

193
Q

how is the frequency measured?

A

hertz

194
Q

what is the frequency a measurement of?

A

the # of cycles (pressure wave)/second

195
Q

what does sound amplitude determine?

A

the loudness of the sound perceived

196
Q

how is the amplitude measured?

A

in dB

20Xlog(frequency)

197
Q

what does a lower threshold mean?

A

means that hearing is more sensitive (low sounds are not well tolerates

198
Q

how are the thresholds ordered?

A
  • threshold
  • damage threshold
  • pain threshold
199
Q

what is the function of the pinna?

A

helps determine where the sound is coming from (up or down)

200
Q

what are the name of the 3 small ear bones?

A

malleus, incus, stapes

201
Q

what is another name for the eardrum?

A

tympanic membrane

202
Q

what is the function of the eardrum?

A

it separates the external from the middle ear

203
Q

what happens to the eardrum when air particles move

A

it vibrates

204
Q

what is the opening in the middle ear that connects to the throat and helps with pressure?

A

eustachian tube

205
Q

what is the middle ear filled with?

A

air

206
Q

what is the role of the semicircular canals?

A

gives sensitivity to head circulation

207
Q

what angle separated the semicircular canals?

A

90 degree angles

208
Q

where are the round and oval window?

A

they are openings found in the inner ear

209
Q

what part of the inner ear is the cochlea?

A

it is the rolled up part (shell like structure)

210
Q

how does the flow of sound energy function?

A
  1. air particles push on the eardrum which pushes the 3 bones (mallus, incus, stapes)
  2. bones are modulated by skeletal muscles which prevent them from moving (flow of fluid) limiting the perception of sound
  3. ear drum pushes back and forth on oval window causing it to be pulled while the round window gets pulled in
  4. amplification of bones pushes fluid in the cochlea
  5. fluid travels down to round window
  6. pressure wave causes basilar membrane to vibrate
211
Q

what does the motion of the basilar membrane depend on?

A

depends on frequency

212
Q

what happens to the basilar membrane at high frequency?

A

vibrate towards the front

causing a stiffer part of the membrane to vibrate

213
Q

what happens to the basilar membrane at low frequency?

A

a less stiff part of the membrane will vibrate

214
Q

what type of frequency is contained in complex sounds? what happens to the basilar membrane?

A

complex sounds contain various frequencies causing for vibrations to occur in various places

215
Q

what is the basilar motion converted into

A

neuronal activity at the organ of corti

216
Q

what is the organ of corti?

A

lines the basilar membrane at the bottom of the cochlear duct
place where vibrations are transduced into neuronal activity

217
Q

what happens when air particles vibrate

A

causes for the tympanic membrane to vibrate

218
Q

what does the deflection of the basilar membrane produce

A

shearing of the hair cells sterocelia

219
Q

what is found on the inner and outer membrane of the organ of corti?

A

hair cells

220
Q

what is the bundle of hair found on hair cells called?

A

sterocilia

221
Q

the sterocilia are pressed close to what membrane?

A

tectorial membrane

222
Q

what is the movement of the basilar and sterocilia related to?

A

the opening and closing of ion channels

223
Q

what do the tip links connect?

A

they connect each sterocilia

224
Q

what do hair cell contain?

A

mechanoreceptors

225
Q

how are the hair cells sterocilia stacked?

A

from short to tallest

226
Q

what do tiplinks do?

A

they pull on the membrane of the mechanically gated ion channels and open by the strings

227
Q

what do tip links gate?

A

the ion channels in the sterocilia

228
Q

what is activated by the mechanotransduction at the tip link?

A

activation of afferent neurons

229
Q

what happens when the ion channel is opened?

A

potassium gets pulled in (higher amount of potassium in cochlear duct than in as opposed to other cells)

230
Q

what does the flow of potassium cause?

A

depolarization of the cell allowing to reach threshold and activate afferent neurons

231
Q

what effect does the depolarization have on Ca2+

A

it will enter the cell and cause neurotransmitters to be released allowing afferent neuron to continue to fire action potentials

232
Q

what happens when the cell hyperpolarizes

A
  • hyperpolarization is caused by the closing of the gate
  • k+ stops flowing in
  • action potentials are not fired anymore
233
Q

which type of transduction is faster between visual and auditory?

A

-auditory

234
Q

what happens to tip link if exposed to extremly loud sounds

A

they will break (causing for hearing of ringing) eventually they will grow back

235
Q

does auditory need amplification like visual transduction?

A

no

236
Q

in comparaison to opsin molecules, do we have more or less tip links

A

a lot less tip links than opsin molecules

237
Q

are sound waves generally high in energy?

A

no, low energy, however present all around hence easier to catch

238
Q

what cranial N. carries auditory info up the brains stem?

A

8th cranial nerve

239
Q

why does the auditory pathway function in a bilateral representation?

A

allows brain to localize sound

240
Q

where does the auditory info synapse in the brain and where does it pass after?

A

synapses at the medulla and makes it way up to mid brain and thalamus before moving laterally to the primary auditory cortex

241
Q

what us the function of the vestibular system?

A

allows to detect the positions in which the body is

242
Q

what is tinnitus?

A

ringing in the ears after loud noises

243
Q

is the ear a vestibular organ?

A

yes

244
Q

what is the function of a vestibular organ?

A

gives information to the body

245
Q

what is the function of the semicircular canal?

A

tells info about the heads rotation

246
Q

what is the function of the utricle and saccule

A

gives info about linear acceleration

247
Q

what gives info about horizontal movement?

A

utricle

248
Q

what gives info about verticle movements?

A

saccule

249
Q

what is the role of the vestibular ocular reflex

A

it enables to keep images clear while the head is moving

250
Q

what happens to the gaze when the head is moving?

A

no change

251
Q

what is the semicircular canal filled with?

A

fluid

252
Q

what is the name given to the buldge of the semicircular canal?

A

ampula

253
Q

what do the hair cells in the semicircular canal line and attach to?

A

they line the ampula and attach to the bone

254
Q

in the semicircular canal, where do the sterocelia stick out into?

A

into the cupula

255
Q

what happens to the hair cells when the head moves?

A

they also move because they are attached to the bone

256
Q

what happens to the fluid when the head moves?

A
  • Inertia causes it to lagg behind and puts pressur on the capula causing it to bend
  • the bend of capula causes the bend of the sterocilia which are found inside the capula
257
Q

where are otholits found?

A

they float above sterocilia

258
Q

what happens when the otholits lag and cause sterocilia to bend?

A

transduction can occur

259
Q

what do we feel rotation/dizzy when drinking alcohol?

A

-affects blood brain barrier causing lagging of otholiths

260
Q

what is the function of taste buds?

A

its where the saliva will dissolve molecules and send the signals

261
Q

where are taste buds located?

A

in the papillae

262
Q

where is the signal of taste afferents carried to?

A

to the brain

263
Q

how are salty foods tasted?

A

Na+ dissolves causing for depolarization, firing AP and releasing neurotransmitters

264
Q

what impacts the level of sourness tasted?

A

the amount of H+ ions present

265
Q

how is sour foods tasted

A

the presence of H+ ions will block the k+ and Na+ to enter the channels

266
Q

what is bitter tastes an indicator of?

A

harmful substances

267
Q

what do bitter substances cause?

A

they block K+ ions or will bind to various receptors and activate Gprotein cascades causing the depolarization and firing of AP

268
Q

why take salt prior to drinking tequilla?

A

salt will saturate gestation allowing not to taste the bitterness of tequilla, then with the lemon you can remove tast by blocking Na+ channels

269
Q

what do sugar receptors activate?

A

G protein cascade which eventually fires AP

270
Q

what type of receptor is activated in umami?

A

glutamate receptor

271
Q

what will the activation of glutamate receptors in umami lead to?

A

g protein cascade

PHGY209 (6 decks)

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